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Exams > EOC/ BioMedical > Flashcards

EOC/ BioMedical Flashcards

1
Q

These key structures are part of which human body system- thyroid gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, and ovary

A

Endocrine

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2
Q

These key structures are part of which human body system- spleen, thymus, and bone marrow

A

Lymphatic and Immune

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3
Q

A physical therapist and a nurse are riding in the elevator together. During their ride they loudly discuss a patient they both have had for some time now. The elevator is full of people who can hear them- did they violate HIPAA even though they don’t mention the patient by name?

A

Yes

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4
Q

This system assists with gas exchange with the external environment; keeps blood supplied with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide

A

Respiratory

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5
Q

Which of the PPE are specifically to protect the respiratory tract from airborne infectious agents?

  • Goggles
  • Respirators
  • Gowns
  • Gloves
  • Face shield
A

Respirators

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6
Q

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

A

Sugar, phosphate group, and nitrogenous base

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7
Q

The application of scientific knowledge to questions of civil and criminal law

A

Forensic science

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8
Q

This system filters fluid in the body; mounts the attack against foreign substances in the body

A

Lymphatic and Immune

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9
Q

Clear prediction of the anticipated results of an experiment

A

Hypothesis

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10
Q

These key structures are part of which human body system- skin, hair, nails

A

Integumentary

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11
Q

Two nurses are shopping for Christmas presents and they are talking about their patient, Brenda who has crazy “bug-eyes” (this is a symptom of Graves’ disease – overactive thyroid) – did they violate HIPPA laws?

A

Yes

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12
Q

Any of the usually linear bodies in the cell nucleus that contain the genetic material

A

Chromosome

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13
Q

If the sequence of a DNA strand is ATCGTTACGAAA, what is it’s complimentary strand?

A

TAGCAATGCTTT

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14
Q

(True/False) Type II diabetes can be managed through a modified diet, exercise, and doctor supervision?

A

True

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15
Q

A by-product of dehydration synthesis is

A

Water (H2O)

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16
Q

A 19-year-old UCLA student is admitted through the ER for injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. He is in stable condition, but awake and alert. His father calls from Minnesota asking for information on his condition. You give him the information after verifying that he is the patient’s father. Did you violate HIPPA law?

A

Yes

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17
Q

A three dimensional polymer made of monomers of amino acids

A

Protein

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18
Q

Monosaccharides’ are monomers of?

A

Carbohydrates

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19
Q

A person with an excess amount of sugar in their blood would be

A

Hyperglycemic

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20
Q

A liquid that is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

A

Solution

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21
Q

What is the suffix used in biochemistry to form the names of sugars?

A

-ose

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22
Q

A feedback loop that increases or magnifies the output of a process

A

Positive feedback

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23
Q

A protein hormone secreted by pancreatic endocrine cells that raise blood glucose level; an antagonistic hormone to insulin

A

Glucagon

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24
Q

The nucleotide bases of one strand of the DNA molecule is “bonded” to the other strand by

A

Hydrogen

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25
Q

Triglycerides are polymers of which class of organic compounds?

A

Lipids

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26
Q

(True/False) guanine-cytosine base pairs and adenine-thymine base pairs both form two bonds to attach the strands together

A

False

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27
Q

The separation of nucleic acids or proteins, on the basis of their size and electrical charge, by measuring their rate of movement through an electrical field

A

Del Electrophoresis

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28
Q

What is the chemical reaction that breaks down a polymer into individual monomers?

A

Hyrdolysis

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29
Q

Sucrose is glucose and fructose bonded together and is found in honey, maple syrup, and table sugar. Sucrose is a what?

A

Disaccharide

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30
Q

What is the macro-molecule above? It is a potato

A

Carbohydrate

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31
Q

What is proper PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)?

A

Gloves, Goggles, and Lab Coats

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32
Q

What are types of Evidence?

A

Fingerprints, Footprints, Hair, Identification, and Bodily Fluids/DNA

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33
Q

What is the stiffening of the Muscles?

A

Rigor Mortis

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34
Q

What is the cooling of the body?

A

Algor Mortis

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35
Q

What is blood pooling in tissues and discoloration?

A

Lividity

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36
Q

What is the Glaister Equation?

A

98.4-Measured rectal temperature/1.5=approximate hours since death

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37
Q

DNA=

A

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

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38
Q

What shape is DNA in?

A

DNA is in the shape of a double helix and contains genetic information for cells and proteins.

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39
Q

DNA is made up of many?

A

DNA is made up of many nucleotides, which are made up of a phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous base.

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40
Q

_____ form DNA

A

Nucleotides

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41
Q

A section of DNA is called a?

A

Gene

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42
Q

When many Genes build up, they form a?

A

Chromosome

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43
Q

Chromosomes code for the production of _______ and contain ______ _____?

A

Proteins and contain genetic information

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44
Q

What are Purines?

A

2 carbon nitrogen rings in the nitrogenous bases (Adenine and Guanine)

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45
Q

What are Pyrimidines?

A

1 carbon nitrogen ring in the nitrogenous base (Thymine and Cytosine)

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46
Q

Adenine and Thymine are a _____ hydrogen bond?

A

Double

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47
Q

Guanine and Cytosine are a _____ hydrogen bond?

A

Triple

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48
Q

How did we do the Strawberry DNA lab?

A

Step 1: Mash strawberry with soap
Step 2: Press through cheese cloth
Step 3: Put beaker full of stuff in test tube
Step 4: Add layered ice cold alcohol to the solution

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49
Q

HaeIII is a _____?

A

Restriction Enzyme

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50
Q

What do Restriction enzymes do?

A

They can cut DNA in specific places

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51
Q

What does the restriction enzyme, HaeIII do?

A

When it sees GGCC it cuts and splits it into GG and CC

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52
Q

When a Virus (Bacteriophage) lands on bacteria, it inserts DNA its ______?

A

DNA code

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53
Q

The _____ cut the viral DNA and Protect the bacteria that has been infected by a Virus?

A

Restriction Enzymes

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54
Q

What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLPs)?

A

Certain lengths of the DNA

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55
Q

RFLPs show the ?

A

Show the differences in a DNA sequence and their lengths

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56
Q

RFLPs can be seen in _____?

A

Gel Electrophoresis

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57
Q

Why do scientists use Gel elctrophoresis?

A

To see RFLPs and can compare the lengths of DNA strands

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58
Q

What does Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) do?

A

It takes out a specific strand of DNA and makes a lot of it.

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59
Q

Polymerase chain reaction allows scientist to?

A

Make many copies of a DNA sequence

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60
Q

What is a thermocycler?

A

It is a device that allows DNA strands to be copied. Inside, there are thermal blocks where the DNA samples can be placed. First, the computer raises the temp., which causes the DNA strands to separate. This is called Denaturation. Then, the computer cools, giving the primers one chance to bind with the complimentary strands of DNA. This is known as annealing. Finally, extension is when the DNA polymerase runs through the DNA and seals the primers together making complimentary strands of DNA.

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61
Q

What is Denaturation?

A

When DNA seperates

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62
Q

What Is annealing?

A

When giving the primers one chance to bind with the complimentary strands of DNA

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63
Q

From gel electrophoresis DNA analysis we can conclude that Anna’s DNA was?

A

Found at the crime scene. Not only do her RFLPs match up perfectly with the crime scene’s RFLPs but her body was even found at the crime scene. Anna’s RFLPs and the crime scene’s RFLPs extend the same distance and are identical. Therefore Anna’s DNA was found at the crime scene.

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64
Q

Covers by keeping internal parts in and outside stuff out, maintaining body temperature and protecting tissues

A

Urinary System

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65
Q

Protects by filtering pathogens and makes white blood cells

A

Immune System

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66
Q

Supports making muscle attachments and protecting organs, joints, bones, cartilage, and tendons

A

Skeletal System

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67
Q

Moves materials around the body, makes heat, and body movement. Heart, diaphragm, tongue, skeletal muscles. etc.

A

Muscular System

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68
Q

Nourishes by breaking down food into nutrients and takes them to the cells in the body, removes toxins

A

Digestive System

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69
Q

Delivers nutrients/oxygen and hormones to cells

A

Cardiovascular System

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70
Q

Controls by secreting hormones

A

Endocrine System

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71
Q

Exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide

A

Respiratory System

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72
Q

Communicates by receiving signals coordinating response, and tells what other systems to do

A

Nervous System

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73
Q

Cleans by removing cellular waste, filtering blood, and maintaining water balance

A

Integumentory System

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74
Q

What is an autopsy?

A

The dissection of a deceased person that will decide the cause of death

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75
Q

What incision is made to open up the body and see the organs?

A

Y- incision

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76
Q

What is Rokitansky’s Method?

A

That block 1 is from the trachea to the large intestine and block 2 are the large intestine, small intestine, kidneys, appendix, and the adrenaline glands.

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77
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability

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78
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

It is a set of laws that provides clients/patients/students/ with confidentiality and privacy.

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79
Q

If health officials do not protect or follow HIPAA they will?

A

They will be fined, lose their job, be criminally prosecuted, and/or have a lose of license.

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80
Q

3 ways of violating HIPAA?

A
  1. Leaving public records/patient records on the cafeteria table
  2. A phone call about lab results to anybody other than the patient
  3. Talking to another person about a patient that does not
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81
Q

3 things that are allowed according to HIPAA?

A
  1. A doctor reporting an infectious disease to a local/state health department
  2. Talking to another doctor who has the patient in private
  3. A mother asking the doctor about her daughter’s baby and the doctor answering all question
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82
Q

What is Diabetes?

A

It is a disease in which the body does not produce enough insulin or the receptors do not recognize insulin, resulting in high blood sugar

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83
Q

What are risk factors of type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Being over weight/obese
  • Inactivity
  • Unhealthy eating (lots of carbs and sugars)
  • Family history
  • Age: 45 or older have an increased risk
  • Race: African-Americans/Blacks, Hispanic, Asian Americans, American Indians, etc.
  • People with Prediabetes or gestational diabetes
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84
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Adult onset diabetes
  • Cell receptors do not recognize insulin anymore, so the cells cannot turn the glucose, in your blood, into ATP (energy)
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85
Q

What is treatment options for type 2 diabetes?

A

Exercise/weight loss, diabetic diet, and medication (anticoagulants, statin, and insulin)

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86
Q

What is type 1 diabetes?

A
  • Juvenile diabetes- symptoms start young
  • Your body does not produce enough insulin
  • Can not be prevented or reversed if its genetic
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87
Q

What is treatment options for type 1 diabetes?

A

Medications for insulin and carb counting/Diabetic diet

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88
Q

Symptoms of Diabetes?

A
  • Recessive thirst/urination
  • Fatigue
  • Weight Loss
  • Blurred Vision
  • Hunger
  • Tingling/pain/numbness (in limbs)
  • Mood swings
  • Fainting
  • Slow healing wounds
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89
Q

What does GTT stand for?

A

Glucose Tolerance Test

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90
Q

What is the Glucose Tolerance Test?

A

It is a test used to determine if a person has diabetes through oral and blood testing. In a GTT, people are given high levels of sugar, and we see how their body reacts.

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91
Q

What is insulin?

A

A protein hormone produced to signal the cell to take in glucose and make energy

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92
Q

What are beta cells?

A

The beta cells of the pancreas make the insulin in order to contain the amount of glucose in the blood

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93
Q

What is a negative feedback loop?

A

A negative feedback loop stops one action and makes no action or an opposite action in attempt to maintain homeostasis

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94
Q

What are examples of a Negative feedback loop?

A
  • Temperature
  • Blood sugar levels
  • Blood pressure
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95
Q

What is a positive feedback loop?

A

A positive feedback loop continues an action until something big happens. It keeps reinforcing the first action and causes the reaction to increase.

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96
Q

What are examples of Positive Feedback?

A

-Contracting in childbirth
-Orgasms
-

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97
Q

What are Chemical Indicator used to test for?

A

For macro-molecules to better understand what is in our foods

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98
Q

How do Chemical Indicators show a positive result and what does this tell us?

A

Through coloration or bubbling, this tells is that a certain chemical reaction has occurred.

99
Q

The chemical reaction with chemical indicators usually happen when?

A

Happens when chemical bonds are broken down, and then reformed again.

100
Q

(In Chemical Indicators) When Starch- Lugol’s Iodine is positive, what color is it?

A

Dark Blue/ Black Coloration

101
Q

(In Chemical Indicators) When Simple Sugars- Benedict’s Solution is positive, what color is it?

A

Orange/ Red Coloration

102
Q

(In Chemical Indicators) When Biuret Solution is positive, what color is it?

A

Purple/ Blue Coloration

103
Q

(In Chemical Indicators) When Brown Paper Towel Test is positive, what color is it?

A

Shiny

104
Q

What provides energy (needed for activity) and organ function?

A

Carbohydrates

105
Q

What are the monomers for carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccharides

106
Q

What is an example of a monomer for carbohydrates?

A

Glucose

107
Q

What are 2 5-carbon rings that make sucrose?

A

Disaccharides

108
Q

Whats function in cells and regulate tissue and organs

A

Proteins

109
Q

What monomers are in protein?

A

Amino acids

110
Q

There are how many different amino acids and what are they made of?

A

20 and made of an amino group, a carboxyl, a side chain, and a carbon

111
Q

What are the two macro-molecules that control organ function and are made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen?

A

Carbohydrates and Proteins

112
Q

What are the 4 macro-molecules?

A

Carbohydrates, Proteins, Lipids, and Nucleic Acids

113
Q

What do all 4 of the macro-molecules have in common?

A

They all are necessary for survival and all have monomers that buildup to polymers

114
Q

What do lipids do?

A

They provide energy source, gives insulation, and structure of cells membrane

115
Q

What are the monomers that build up the lipid?

A

Glycerol and the 3 fatty acid chains

116
Q

What do triglycerides do and why?

A

They store energy for later because they have 3 fatty acid chains

117
Q

What sores genetic information and transfer during cell division?

A

Nucleic Acids

118
Q

The monomer nucleic acid is a what?

A

A nucleotide

119
Q

A nucleotide is composed of what?

A

A phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base

120
Q

What do the macro-molecules Nucleic acids and Lipids do?

A

They both are key cellular function and can change how a cell functions

121
Q

What do Carbohydrates and Lipids do?

A

They both provide energy and are necessary in organ and system function.

122
Q

What would happen if we didn’t have carbohydrates or lipids?

A

Humans would have no energy ans would not exist because the majority of the cell is made of lipids or carbs

123
Q

Nucleic Acids code for what?

A

The production of proteins and their functions

124
Q

Nucleotides form DNA which can be what?

A

Copied by RNA in the process of protein synthesis

125
Q

Chemical Reactions form what?

A

Covalent bonds between elements or compounds

126
Q

What happend in dehydration synthesis?

A

Covalent bonds are formed through a chemical reaction in order to make a polymer

127
Q

Dehydration synthesis forms the bonds between what?

A

Monomers

128
Q

When do chemical reactions occur?

A

When chemical bonds are broken

129
Q

What breaks down the bonds and chemicals?

A

Hydrolysis

130
Q

What is calorimetry?

A

The one way of finding out how many calories are in a certain food?

131
Q

What is Type I diabetes?

A

When you do not have enough insulin

132
Q

What does it mean when you have type 1 diabetes and you do not have enough insulin?

A

You may need a pimp to give you insulin when needed.

133
Q

What will help your cells respond to insulin better and control blood sugar levels if you have diabetes type 1?

A

Exercising

134
Q

What is the most common blood sugar test?

A

Home glucose monitoring

135
Q

Why is it important to track your blood sugar levels?

A

Because you do not want your sugar to get too high

136
Q

Testing your blood sugar levels can also prevent what?

A

Long-term diabetic complications, such as nerve damage, and organ and blood vessel damage.

137
Q

Insulin pumps detect what?

A

Your blood sugar, and can inject insulin to lower your blood sugar

138
Q

What can Hemoglobin A1C determine?

A

what percent of hemoglobin is glycated (meaning covered in sugar) It tells the average blood sugar concentrations

139
Q

What is Hyperglycemia?

A

High blood sugar

140
Q

What does Hyperglycemia mean?

A

It is where there is too much sugar in your blood

141
Q

What is a hypertonic cell?

A

When there is too much pressure on the cell causing it to shrink

142
Q

What causes your cells to become hypertonic?

A

Hyperglycemia

143
Q

What are the risk factors of Hyperglycemia?

A

Family history and diabetes can all cause enough insulin or insulin resistance. Not producing insulin and insulin resistance cause high blood sugar

144
Q

What are the effect and symptoms of Hyperglycemia?

A

Extreme thirst, frequent urination, dry skin, hunger, blurred visison, drowsiness, and nausea

145
Q

What is low blood sugar?

A

Hypoglycemia

146
Q

What is Hypoglycemia?

A

It is when there is not enough sugar in your blood

147
Q

What is a hypotonic cell?

A

It is where there is very little pressure on the cell causing it to expand

148
Q

What are the risk factors of Hypoglycemia?

A

Family history and people with diabetes can have low blood sugar. If you have recently exercised or have skipped a meal, this puts you at a greater risk.

149
Q

What are the effects and symptoms of Hypoglycemia?

A

Shaking, sweating, anxious, dizziness, hunger, fast heartrate, impaired vision, weakness/fatigue, headache, irritable

150
Q

What is Isotonic blood?

A

When blood has just the right amount of sugar in it, so it puts the right amount of pressure on the cells.

151
Q

What has the same solute concentration as another solution?

A

Isotonic blood

152
Q

What does it mean by having isotonic blood?

A

Your cells can function and there is not too much water entering the cell or too much water exiting the cell.

153
Q

What is Diabetic Retinopathy?

A

A disease that effects your vision and can come from diabetes and high blood pressure

154
Q

What weakens the blood vessels?

A

High amounts of sugar in your blood

155
Q

After months to years of high blood sugar, what can happen?

A

Blockages can buildup small vessels that give the retina oxygen

156
Q
  1. ) When the small blood vessels can no longer reach the retina, what does this mean?
  2. )In attempt to solve this, what happens?
A
  1. ) The retina does not get enough oxygen
  2. ) They eye and blood vessels try to create more blood vessels. Generally, they fail to create successful blood vessels and most leak or are not developed fully.
157
Q

The complication with creating more blood vessels, this is related to what?

A

The ocular system

158
Q

Overall, what can happen with the complications of making new blood vessels?

A

It can cause blurred vision and can eventually cause you to go blind

159
Q

What is Diabetic Neuropathy?

A

It is caused by high glucose levels in your blood

160
Q

What can Diabetic Neuropathy cause?

A

Can damage nerve fibers, mainly in your hands and feet

161
Q

If you have high blood sugar for a long enough time, what can happen?

A

You may develop neuropathy because high blood sugar can damage nerve fibers.

162
Q

What can have happen if you have high blood sugar?

A

It can damage and block the capillaries going to the nerves. This means some parts of the nerves will not get enough oxygen and nutrients to function. High blood sugar can affect the way your nerves transmit signals and interfere with your reaction time.

163
Q

Neuropathy mainly affects what?

A

The nervous system

164
Q

What is Diabetic Nephropathy?

A

The glomeruli does not function properly and leaks an unusual amount of proteins into the urine.

165
Q

What are Glomeruli?

A

Are clumps of blood vessels and acts like a filter

166
Q

What does glomerulus do in a normal kidney?

A

It allows waste products, water and salt/electrolytes to pass through into a tubule. The filter does not allow proteins pass.

167
Q

What does a glomerulus and tubule make?

A

A nephron and a million nephrons are in each kidney

168
Q

What happens in a diabetic nephropathy?

A

The glomerulus get damaged and allows proteins, mainly a protein known as albumin, through into the urine.

169
Q

The high blood sugar in your body causes what?

A

Damage to the tiny blood vessels in your kidneys, thus allowing more albumin to enter your urine.

170
Q

Diabetic Nephropathy mainly affects what?

A

Your urinary system

171
Q

What is another word for Red Blood Cells (RBC)?

A

Erythrocytes

172
Q

What is another word for White Blood Cells (WBC)?

A

Leukocytes

173
Q

What is another word for Platelets?

A

Thrombocytes

174
Q

The erythrocytes main job is to what?

A

Supply the muscles and the brain with oxygen needed to function

175
Q

How much of your blood is made up of erythrocytes?

A

50%

176
Q

What do white blood cells do?

A

Fight infections and foreign invaders (pathogens) that enter your body

177
Q

What are the 5 different types of Leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils Basophils, Monocytes, and Lymphocytes

178
Q

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Monocytes, and Lymphocytes all use what?

A

Phagocytosis

179
Q

What does Phagocytosis mean?

A

It mean that the leukocytes engulf the bacteria

180
Q

Basophils as well as neutrophils and eosinophils use what to kill pathogens?

A

Degranulation

181
Q

How much of the blood do leukocytes make up?

A

Less than 1%

182
Q

What is the scientific name for blood plasma?

A

Plasma

183
Q

What is blood plasma’s main job?

A

To transport nutrients and carries all the nutrients, red blood cells, leukocytes, thrombocytes, and proteins around the body

184
Q

How much percent of plasma is there in your blood?

A

About 50%

185
Q

What percent of plasma is water?

A

About 95%

186
Q

What are the steps of hematocrit test?

A
  1. Collect a mircotest tube of a patient’s blood
  2. Centrifuge the blood in a microcentrifuge for minutes on low
  3. Find the measurements of the total height of the blood and the height of the red blood cells (mm)
  4. Calculate the height of the RBC over the height of the whole blood and then multiply by 100. This gives you a percent.
187
Q

What are hematocrit test used for?

A

This test results to determine whether a person has a low/normal/high hemocrit level.

188
Q

What doe it mean if you have a low hematocrit level?

A

It means that you are anemic and you cannot carry as much oxygen to your body

189
Q

What is anemia?

A

It is when your blood hemocrit level gets too low. This means there are not as many RBC’s in your blood to carry oxygen around.

190
Q

When can anemia occur?

A

When you are bleeding too much and you lose too much blood, when your body does not make enough RBC’s, or when your body destroys/attacks RBC’s.

191
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

It is a disease in which the body produces defective RBC’s that are in the shape of a banana. This means your blood can clot easier and not as much oxygen can be transported (anemia)

192
Q

What is the normal hematocrit level for a male?

A

42%-54%

193
Q

What can sickle cell cause in reference of hemtocrit levels.

A

It can cause low hematocrit levels because the defective red blood cells that are carried throughout the body

194
Q

What is Sickle Cell Disease know as?

A

sickle cell anemia

195
Q

Where is Sickle Cell Disease found?

A

It is an inherited disease that is found on chromosome 11. More specifically, it is found on the gene for hemoglobin-Beta.

196
Q

What happens in Sickle Cell Disease?

A

The hemoglobin S sticks to each other and form a long sickled blood cell. Sickled red blood cells cause more blood clots and carry less blood.

197
Q

What happens if you receive the gene for sickle cell disease?

A

You are more immune to malaria (malaria resistance)

198
Q

What happens in a person without sickle cell disease?

A

The hemoglobin molecule binds and take oxygen from the lungs and carries it to peripheral tissues

199
Q

How do you get Sickle Cell Disease?

A

Through a recessive gene, so you can only get sickle cell disease if both parents are carriers or have the disease. If your parents are both carriers for sickle cell disease, you have a 25% chance that you will get the disease and a 50% chance that you will carry the gene. This means that the sickle cell gene will be passed on for generations. Finally a person can never get or lose the sickle cell disease over time, but we can treat people with sick cell anemia.

200
Q

Where is Sickle Cell Disease found?

A

This mutation is found in African-Americans, Indians, and Mexicans.

201
Q

What are the symptoms of Sickle Cell Disease?

A
  • Angina or other pains (occurs when the sickled blood forms a clot)
  • Swelling (due to the blockages blocking flow to hands and feet)
  • Infections (can damage organs such as the spleen)
  • Delayed Growth (nutrients and oxygen cannot travel the body as quickly)
  • Jaundice (the sickled RBC’s are dying faster than the liver can filter them out causing biliruben to build-up)
202
Q

Red Blood Cells are directly affected by what?

A

sickle cell disease

203
Q

Instead of flowing smoothly in the arteries, veins, and capillaries, the sickled RBC’s can get what?

A

stuck

204
Q

If you have sickle cell disease, not all if your cell what?

A

Turn sickle.

205
Q

How fast do sickle cells die?

A

They die really quickly and easily. Normal cells last approximately 120 days, but sickled RBC’s only live 10-20 days

206
Q

What are some ways to treat/cure sickle cell disease.

A

Antibiotics (hydroxyurea), folic acid supplements, chronic blood transfusion therapy, and bone marrow transplant

207
Q

How do each treatments and cures for sickle cell disease work?

A
  • Antibiotics can help fight and prevent infection for sickle cell disease.
  • Hydroxyurea stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin, which prevents sickled cells from forming.
  • Folic acid production can help with the making of new red blood cells. This will help to dilute the blood
  • Chronic blood transfusion can help increase the amount of RBC’s, which ultimately helps carry more oxygen and more blood throughout the body.
  • Bone marrow help make red blood cells, so transplanting bone marrow will increase red blood cell production
208
Q

What is transcription?

A

Is a process in which DNA’s code is copied onto a strand of RNA (ribonucleic acid)

209
Q

What is mRNA know as?

A

Known as messenger RNA because it synthesizes DNA’s code to take to the ribosomes for translation

210
Q

What is the purpose of Transcription?

A

Is for the mRNA to copy specific genes on DNA and to be taken out of the nucleus, so that a protein can be produced

211
Q

DNA cannot fit through the nuclear pores so what happens?

A

It must be synthesized on a strand of mRNA. This allows mRNA to take the complimentary base pairs out of the nucleus for the production of proteins.

212
Q

Where does transcription happen?

A

In the nucleus

213
Q

RNA polymerase runs down the what strand?

A

The DNA strand and unwinds it so that an mRNA strand can copy the nucleotides.

214
Q

In transcription, the mRNA copies what?

A

Complimentary letter (except adenine (A) pairs with uracil (U), instead of thymine (T))

215
Q

After the mRNA copied the DNA, what happens?

A

It exits the nucleus through nuclear pores

216
Q

What is translation?

A

The process after transcription, in which the mRNA’s code (copied and opposite DNA’s code) is transformed into a protein.

217
Q

What is the process of translation?

A

First, the mRNA must find a ribosome. The ribosome goes along the mRNA and finds the start codon (AUG). Thereafter, the ribosome recognizes moves along the mRNA, tRNA (trnsfer RNA) holding the amino acids comes and starts to form a peptide chain. They must match so the tRNA codons will fit with the mRNA codons. The tRNA is actually using DNA’s code to produce a peptide chain, which will eventually turn into a protein, After the tRNA has been used, it leaves. Finally, once the ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAG, UAA, and UGA), the peptide chain breaks away to fold and form a protein. The whole process, both transcription and translation, makes one single protein and this is when mutations often occur.

218
Q

What is the starting codon?

A

AUG

219
Q

What is the stop codon?

A

UAG, UAA, UGA

220
Q

What are amino acids?

A

The monomers for proteins and are taken to the ribosome by the tRNA in translation

221
Q

What are codons?

A

Are 3 nucleotides on the mRNA that attract the complimentary tRNA. This helps build the peptide chain.

222
Q

What is a cytoplasm?

A

Is a cell organelle and is where translation occurs

223
Q

What is DNA?

A

Is made of genetic information to code for all living things. It is copied onto an mRNA strand so proteins can be built

224
Q

What is mRNA?

A

Is a copy of a strand of DNA and is synthesized by RNA polymerase. It holds DNA’s genetic information and takes it outside the nucleus for production of proteins

225
Q

What is a nucleus?

A

Is the control center of a cell and is where transcription takes place. After DNA is synthesized, the mRNA exits the nucleus.

226
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

They bring together the tRNA and mRNA and move along an mRNA strand in order to form a peptide chain

227
Q

What is RNA Polymerase?

A

It is an enzyme that unzips DNA so that a complimentary strand of RNA can be made

228
Q

What is tRNA?

A

It transfers the amino acids to the ribosome and indentifies the condons so that its anticodons (complimentary nucleotides of condons) can match up. It adds an amino acid to the peptide chain

229
Q

What is Van der Waals?

A

The stickiness of all atoms that attracts them to each other

230
Q

What is S-S Bonds?

A

Cysteine amino acids bond because there sulfur atoms attract

231
Q

What is Electrostatic Forces?

A

Positively charged amino acids bond to negative amino acids. This only happens with hydrophilic molecules.

232
Q

What are Hydrogen Bonds?

A

Water attracts hydrophilic amino acids. This affects all amino acids.

233
Q

What does it mean to be Hyrdophilic?

A

This mean that you are an amino acid that is attracted to water. These amino acids are polar and charged.

234
Q

What does polar mean?

A

That an amino acid has both a psotive and a negative

235
Q

What does it mean to be Hydrophobic?

A

This means that you are an amino acid that is trying to move away from water. These amino acids are nonpolar, uncharged, and neutral. Hydrophobic amino acids are like oil because oil and water separate

236
Q

What are some examples of Hydrophilic amino acids?

A
  • Glutamine
  • Asparagine
  • Histidine
  • Serine
  • Threonine
  • Tyrosine
  • Cysterine
  • Methionine
  • Tryptophan
237
Q

What are some examples of Hydrophilic amino acids?

A
  • Aspartic Acid (-)
  • Glutamic acid (-)
  • Arginine (+)
  • Lysine (+)
238
Q

What are some examples of Hydrophobic amino acids?

A
  • Alanine
  • Isoleucine
  • Leucine
  • Phenvlalanine
  • Valine
  • Proline
  • Glycine
239
Q

The nucleotide that is changed in order for a person to have sickle cell disease is located where?

A

In the codon for the 6th amino acid

240
Q

How does the amino acid sequence go in a norml red blood cell?

A

Valine - Histidine - Leucine - Threonine - Proline - Glutamic Acid

241
Q

In a sickled rel cell blood, instead of the 6th amino acid being glutamic acid, it changes to what?

A

To valine due to the nucleotide substitution. As a result, the hemoglobin becomes sickled. A person could have to deal with a lifetime of pain and suffering all because of one nucleotide base chnage

242
Q

What is a hydrophilic and has a negative charge?

A

Glutamic acid.

243
Q

What happens when trying to form a cell?

A

The sickle cell hemoglobin starts to stick to each other causing a dense cell. It becomes very hard for the sickle cell to carry oxygen. In a normal red blood cell hemoglobin is not sticky, which causes it to be able to carry more oxygen and flow better.

244
Q

What happens when glutamic is replaced with valine?

A

A hughly hydrophobic amino acid, the cell and its shape has changed. The hydrophobic valine wants to get away from the water so it “caves” in. This eventually causes a sickle-cell hemoglobin, which leads to a sickled red blood cell.

Exams (3 decks)

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