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ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What is epistaxis?

A

Bleeding from the nose

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2
Q

Types of epistaxis?

A

Anterior bleeds 90% - in Little’s area where there is an anastomosis of 5 arteries (so is highly vascularised)

Posterior bleeds 10% - deeper structures of the nose, occurs in older individuals, have a greater risk of obstructing the airway

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3
Q

Important things for epistaxis history?

A 
Recent trauma (picking, foreign body)
Co-morbidities
Drugs (clotting)
Facial pain (nasopharyngeal tumour)
FHx/PHx of clotting disorders
Otalgia
Systemic symptoms
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4
Q

Management of epistaxis

A

Sat up, sat forward (to protect airway)
Resus if necessary

Nose peg applied for 20 minutes
Ice to back of neck/bridge of nose to promote vasoconstriction

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5
Q

Investigating epistaxis

A

Adrenaline soaked gauze can cause vasoconstriction and help to visualise the septum

Examine the oropharynx if no bleeding point identified

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6
Q

What is nasal packing used for?

A

Pack the nose with a nasal tampon to attempt to control the bleeding if no bleeding point found

Posterior packing with a Foley catheter can be used if bleeding into oropharynx

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7
Q

When do we consider surgery in epistaxis?

A

When nasal packing has been unsuccessful we can ligate surgically or embolise radiologically.

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8
Q

Arteries in Little’s area

A

Ant./post. ethmoidal
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine artery
Superior labial artery

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9
Q

If we can visualise the point of bleeding in epistaxis, what can we do?

A

Cauterise using silver nitrate

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10
Q

What is a nasal septal haematoma?

A

An important complication of nasal trauma in which there is a haematoma between septal cartilage and perichondrium

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11
Q

Symptoms of nasal septal haematoma?

A 
Sensation of nasal obstruction
Pain
Rhinorrhoea (runny nose)
Bilateral red swelling from nasal septum
Boggy to palpate (as opposed to deviated septums which are firm)
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12
Q

Management of nasal septal haematoma

A

Surgical drainage

IV abx

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13
Q

Features of nasal polyps?

A

Nasal obstruction
Poor sense of smell
Rhinorrhoea/sneezing

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14
Q

Management of nasal polyps?

A

Corticosteroids shrink 80%

ENT referral

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of tonsillitis?

A

Viral infections

Bact. infection (1/3) - s. pyogenes/S. aureus

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16
Q

Features of tonsillitis

A

Difficult/painful swallowing
Pyrexia
Halitosis
Erythematous/swollen tonsils

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17
Q

What is the centor criteria?

A

Used to assess likelihood of bacterial tonsillitis. Abx if >2

Hx of pyrexia
Tonsillar exudate
No cough
Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

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18
Q

Important differentials of tonsillitis?

A 
EBV (infectious mononucleosis)
Head and neck malignancy
Leukaemia
Scarlett fever
Abscess formation
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19
Q

Management of tonsillitis

A

Symptomatic
Hydration
Abx - penicillin 5 or benzylpenicillin

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20
Q

Why don’t we give amoxicillin in tonsillitis?

A

If it’s caused by EBV it’ll result in a maculopapular rash

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21
Q

Indication for tonsillectomy?

A 
>7 episodes in the last year
>5 episodes in each of the last 2 years
>3 episodes in each of the last 3 years
Suspected malignancy
Sleep apnoea
Peritonsillar abscess formation
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22
Q

What is quinsy?

A

Quinsy is a peritonsillar abscess, a common complication of bacterial tonsillitis

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of quinsy?

A 
Sore throat
Difficulty swallowing
Trismus (reduced ROM of jaw - lockjaw)
Pyrexia
Peri-tonsillar swelling and a deviated uvula
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24
Q

How do we treat quinsy?

A

Needle aspiration with topical anaesthetic
Incision and drainage
Following drainage, abx cover - typically metronidazole and penicillin regime

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25
Q

What causes hoarse voice?

A

Benign laryngeal conditions
Laryngitis/epiglottitis
Neurological conditions

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26
Q

What is the first line investigation for most cases of hoarseness?

A

Flexible nasal endoscopy

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27
Q

What are vocal cord nodules secondary to?

A

Chronic phonotrauma

Treat with SALT involvement

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28
Q

What is stridor?

A

Noise made by air being forced through narrow upper airways

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29
Q

What are acute causes of stridor?

A 
Foreign body inhalation
Laryngitis
Epiglottitis
Croup
Anaphylaxis
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30
Q

What are chronic causes of stridor?

A 
Laryngomalacia
Subglottic stenosis (usually from prolonged intubation)
Vocal cord paralysis
Subglottic haemangioma
Malignancy
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31
Q

Where is the obstruction if it is an inspiratory stridor?

A

Laryngeal

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32
Q

What is the obstruction if it is an expiratory stridor?

A

Tracheobronchial

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33
Q

Where is the obstruction if it is a biphasic stridor?

A

Subglottic/glottic

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34
Q

How do we investigate stridor?

A 
Fibreoptic nasal endoscopy (if non-emergency)
CT scan (for malignancies etc.)
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35
Q

How to treat stridor acutely?

A 
Stabilise
High-flow oxygen
Alert senior
Suction
Adrenaline/steroids
Bloods/ABG

If emergency, could be a cricothyroidotomy or intubation

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36
Q

What causes epiglottitis?

A

H. influenzae type B infections

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37
Q

Features of epiglottitis

A 
Sore throat
Fever
Dyspnoea
Absence of a cough
Tripod position (later presentation)
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38
Q

Investigation/management in epiglottitis?

A

Neb. adrenaline, IV dexamethasone
IV abx
Blood/throat cultures
IV fluids

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39
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

An infection that typically affects the external auditory canal of the ear

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40
Q

What is the skin like in otitis externa?

A

Erythematous
Swollen
Tender
Warm

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41
Q

What causes otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (40%)
S. epidermidis
S. aureus
Rarely aspergillus spp.

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42
Q

What are the main risk factors for otitis externa?

A 
Frequent water contact
Humid environments
Presence of ear polyps/foreign bodies
Narrow ear canals
Local trauma
Eczema/psoriasis
43
Q

What are the clinical features of otitis externa?

A

Progressive ear pain
Purulent discharge
Itchiness
Ear fullness

Less common:
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Swollen ear

44
Q

Colour of discharge in otitis externa and type of infection?

A

White-yellow - bacterial
Thick white grey - fungal
Clear grey - otitis media

45
Q

What is the Brighton Grading scheme for otitis externa?

A

A scoring system to quantify the severity of otitis externa

46
Q

What does Brighton Grade I mean?

A

Localised canal inflammation with mild pain, tympanic membrane visible

47
Q

What does Brighton Grade II mean?

A

Debris in ear canal (not entirely occluded)
Erythematous
Tympanic membrane partially obscured

48
Q

What does Brighton Grade III mean?

A

The ear canal is oedematous
Erythematous
Occluded
Tympanic membrane cannot be seen

49
Q

What does Brighton Grade IV mean?

A

Tympanic membrane is obscured
Perichondritis
Pinna cellulitis
Signs of systemic involvement

50
Q

Management of otitis externa?

A 
Prevention
Aural toileting
Topical abx
Simple analgesia
Steroid drops
51
Q

What is malignant otitis externa?

A

A complication of otitis externa in which you get mastoid and temporal bone involvement

52
Q

Who is most likely to get malignant otitis externa?

A

Elderly
Diabetics
Immunocompromised in general

53
Q

Presentation of malignant otitis externa?

A

Severe pain and headaches + OE symptoms

54
Q

Treatment of malignant otitis externa?

A

Urgent CT
Debridement
IV abx

55
Q

Which nerve is often involved in malignant otitis externa?

A

CN VII

56
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

It is an infection of the middle ear resulting from nasopharyngeal organisms migrating up the eustachian tube

57
Q

Why do younger children tend to get otitis media more often?

A

The eustachian tube starts off quite horizontal and is less likely to close when coughing/sneezing (during periods of increased pressure)
This changes as you get older and then it is more likely to close from these pressures, stopping organisms migrating upward

58
Q

What are common causes of otitis media?

A

Viral:
Respiratory syncytial virus
Rhinovirus

Bacteria:
H. influenzae
Strep. pneumoniae
Moraxella
Strep pyogenes
59
Q

Features of acute otitis media?

A

Pain
Malaise
Fever
Coryzal symptoms

60
Q

What do you see on otoscopy in otitis media?

A

Erythematous tympanic membrane, may be bulging
Potentially a small tear in the tympanic membrane
Purulent discharge

61
Q

What else should you check after otoscopy of the ear?

A

Check function of the facial nerve - VII (due to its course in the middle ear)
Also check for intracranial complications
Signs of infection in the throat/oral cavity

62
Q

How do we treat acute otitis media?

A

Usually self-resolves within 24 hours (vast majority gone within 3 days)
Simple analgesia

63
Q

When do you give abx in otitis media?

A 
If significant deterioration seen
Systemically unwell
Known risk factors (cong. heart disease, immunosuppression)
Unwell for >4 days
Discharge
64
Q

When should someone be admitted for otitis media?

A

Children under 3 months with a temperature above 38 degrees

Children 3-6 months with a temperature above 39

65
Q

What are complications of AOM?

A

Mastoiditis
Meningitis
Facial nerve paresis
Chronic otitis media

66
Q

What does mastoiditis present as?

A

Boggy, erythematous swelling behind the ear

67
Q

How do we treat mastoiditis?

A

Admission for IV abx

CT head if no improvement after 24 hours

68
Q

What are the two different aetiologies of chronic otitis media?

A

Mucosal COM
Chronic inflammation secondary to a perforation

Squamous COM
Discharge due to a cholestatoma

69
Q

What are causes of COM?

A

Recurrent AOM
Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane
Insertion of grommets

70
Q

Features of COM

A

Chronically discharging ear >6 weeks
Absence of fever
Absence of otalgia
Perforation of tympanic membrane

71
Q

What should you always test in COM?

A

Facial nerve function

Hearing (conductive hearing loss common - use Rinne’s)

72
Q

Investigations for COM?

A

Audiograms and tympanometry
Swabs
If cholesteatoma suspicion, CT

73
Q

What is the treatment for COM?

A

Aural toileting
Topical abx
Steroid treatments
ENT referral

74
Q

What are the surgical options for COM?

A

Myringoplasty - closure of perforation in pars tensa

Tympanoplasty - myringoplasty combined with reconstruction of ossicular chain

75
Q

If the external ear canal and drum are normal, but there is pain in the ear, what could be causing it?

A

Referred ear pain:
CN V
CN VII - Ramsay Hunt syndrome
CN IX and X

^ damage to any of these innervations

76
Q

What is a cholesteatoma?

A

Ectopic epithelium which grows in the attic of the middle ear causing a collection of epithelial tissue

77
Q

Clinical features of cholesteatoma

A

Conductive hearing loss

Background of COM

78
Q

Otoscopy finding in cholesteatoma

A

Pearly, keratinized, or waxy mass in the attic region of the tympanic membrane

79
Q

Management of cholesteatoma

A

Surgery

80
Q

What nerves are potentially affected in acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma)?

A

Cranial nerve VIII - causing vertigo, sensorineural unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus

Cranial nerve VII - facial palsy

Cranial nerve V - absent corneal reflex

81
Q

When might you see bilateral vestibular schwannomas?

A

Neurofibromatosis type II

82
Q

What investigations should be performed in vestibular schwannomas?

A

MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

Audiometry - 5% will be normal though

83
Q

Management of acoustic neuroma?

A

ENT referral for surgery/radiotherapy

84
Q

What is a vestibular schwannoma?

A

A cerebellopontine angle tumour, they make up 5% of intracranial tumours

85
Q

What is labyrinthitis?

A

An inflammatory disorder of the membraneous labyrinth affecting both the cochlear and vestibular ends

86
Q

What is vestibular neuronitis?

A

A cause of vertigo following a viral infection

87
Q

How do differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis?

A

As only the vestibular nerve is involved in vestibular neuronitis, there is no hearing impairment.
In labyrinthitis, there is inflammation of both the nerve and the labyrinth and so there is vertigo AND hearing impairment.

88
Q

Features of labyrinthitis?

A 
Usually viral
Vertigo, not triggered by movement (though can be exacerbated by it)
Nausea and vomiting
Hearing loss
Tinnitus
Often a preceding URTI
89
Q

Investigations in labyrinthitis?

A

Usually clinical diagnosis

Hypoglycaemia important to rule out

90
Q

Is hearing loss conductive or sensorineural in labyrinthitis?

A

Sensorineural

91
Q

Signs of labyrinthitis?

A

Nystagmus toward unaffected side
Sensorineural hearing loss
Gait disturbance

92
Q

Management of labyrinthitis?

A

Lie still in a dark room if you feel dizzy
Avoid noise/bright lights
Sleep
Try to start walking again
Focus on one object when walking
ENT referral if it doesn’t go away after a few days

93
Q

What are features of vestibular neuronitis?

A

Vertigo following a viral infection
Nausea/vomiting
Horizontal nystagmus
NO hearing loss/tinnitus

94
Q

Management of vestibular neuronitis?

A

If chronic symptoms:
Vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Buccal/IM prochlorperazine if severe
Short course of prochlorperazine to alleviate less severe cases

95
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A

A disease of the inner ear in which you get excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system

96
Q

What are the features of Meniere’s disease?

A 
Vertigo (lasts for hours)
Tinnitus
Sensorineural hearing loss
Aural fullness/pressure
Nystagmus
Positive Romberg test
Typically unilateral
97
Q

Management of Meniere’s disease?

A 
ENT referral to confirm
Inform the DVLA
Prochlorperazine for acute attacks
Betahistine to prevent attacks
Vestibular rehabilitation exercises
98
Q

Prognosis of Meniere’s disease?

A

Usually resolves within 5-10 years
Majority of patients will experiences some degree of hearing loss
Pyschological distress common

99
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

A disorder in which vertigo is triggered by changes in head position

100
Q

What are the features of BPPV?

A

Vertigo lasting 10-20 seconds
Associated with head movement
May be associated with nausea
Positive Dix-hallpike manoeuvre

101
Q

What is a Dix-hallpike maneouvre?

A

Patient sits up
You turn their head 45 degrees
Lie them down with their head off the end of the bed
Can repeat on contralateral side

Should reproduce vertigo symptoms if caused by BPPV

102
Q

How can we relieve symptoms of BPPV?

A

Epley maneouvre

Betahistine is also often prescribed but has limited benefit

103
Q

Prognosis of BPPV?

A

Symptom recurrence within 3-5 years for almost half of patients

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