Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals Revision > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two commonest causes of hearing loss in adults?

A

Wax and Presbyacusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name causes of conductive hearing loss

A

Blocked ear canal (wax, pus, debris, foreign body)
Ear drum perforations (from trauma or AOM)
Middle ear effusions (e.g. glue ear)
Otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A 
Presbyacusis
Noise exposure
Perilymph fistula
Ototoxicity
Acoustic neuroma
Inflammatory diseases e.g. measles, mumps, meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does ‘Rinne’s test -ve’ indicate?

A

A conductive hearing loss in the tested ear (bone conduction better than air conduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In which ear will sound localise to in Weber’s test if there is conductive hearing loss?

A

Sound will localise to the affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In which ear will sound localise to in Weber’s test if there is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Sound will localise to the unaffected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Above which decibel line is considered normal in an audiogram?

A

Above 20dB line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the commonest cause of hearing loss in children?

A

Otitis media with effusion/ Glue Ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some risk factors for glue ear?

A

Male sex, downs syndrome, cleft palate, atopy, children of smokers, primary ciliary dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What signs would you see in OME?

A

Retracted ear drum

Bubbles or a fluid level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does an audiogram show in OME?

A

Conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a tympanogram look like in OME?

A

Flat tympanogram - ‘Type B’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long should you initially observe OME for?

A

12 weeks - most cases resolve themself in this time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What surgery is done for OME?

A

Myringotomy + fluid aspiration + grommet insertion

+/- adenoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long will grommets be in for?

A

Usually fall out themselves in 3-12 months due to growth of the tympanic membrane
1 in 3 children will need reinsertion of grommets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition is characterised by inflammation of the outer ear canal and causes symptoms such as redness, swelling, itch and increased wax?

A

Otitis Externa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is otitis externa treated?

A

Aural toilet
If mild –> acetic acid 2%
If moderate –> otomize (acetic acid, neomycine and dexamethasone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes acute otitis media?

A

Usually an URTI involving the middle ear via extension of infection via the eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main organisms causing acute otitis media?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae
Pneumococcus
Moraxella
Strep Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Do all cases of acute otitis media need antibiotics?

A

No - 80% resolve within 4 days by themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When would you consider antibiotics for acute otitis media?

A

If otorrhoea is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What antibiotic is used for acute otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS 5 days

If allergic - Clarithromycin 500mg BD 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What condition commonly presents as severe facial pain worse on bending, nasal discharge/congestion and fever?

A

Acute sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What organisms cause acute sinusitis?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae
Strep Pneumoniae
Strep Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When should antibiotics be given for sinusitis?

A

For severe/deteriorating cases which have been ongoing for more than 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What antibiotics are given for acute sinusitis?

A

Penicillin V 500mg QDS/1g BD for 7 days

If allergic - doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of organism causes the majority of sore throats?

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes a severe sore throat with a greyish white membrane on the pharynx?

A

Diptheria

29
Q

What condition presents as white patches on red raw mucous membranes?

A

Oral thrush

30
Q

What is the treatment of oral thrush?

A

Miconazole gel QDS (7 days)

31
Q

What condition presents as fever, enlarged lymph nodes, sore throat, malaise, lethargy and enlarged spleen?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

32
Q

What is the causative organism of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus

33
Q

How is infectious mononucleosis treated?

A

Supportive - bed rest, paracetamol, fluids. Avoid sport to prevent splenic rupture.

34
Q

What causes symptoms in Menieres disease?

A

Build up of fluid in the inner ear, resulting in dilatation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth

35
Q

What condition presents as recurrent, spontaneous episodes of vertigo with associated tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss and an aural fullness?

A

Meniere’s disease

36
Q

How long do episodes of Meniere’s last?

A

A few hours

37
Q

What conservative management options are there for Menieres?

A

Reduce salt, caffeine and alcohol intake
Reduce stress
Stop smoking

38
Q

What is the medical management of Menieres?

A

Acute - prochlorperazine

Prevention - betahistine

39
Q

What condition is characterised by sudden attacks of rotational vertigo caused by turning the head?

A

Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo (BPPV)

40
Q

How long does the vertigo last in BPPV?

A

<30 seconds

41
Q

What test is used to investigate BPPV?

A

Dix - Hallpike test

42
Q

What is a positive Dix-Hallpike test?

A

A reproduction of vertigo symptoms and rotational nystagmus towards the affected side for 30secs

43
Q

How is BPPV treated?

A

Epley Manoevre - dislodges the crystals thought to be causing symptoms

44
Q

What condition causes sudden onset vertigo lasting days with associated hearing loss and tinnitus?

A

Labyrinthitis

45
Q

What condition causes sudden onset vertigo lasting days with NO associated hearing loss and tinnitus?

A

Vestibular Neuronitis

46
Q

What genetic condition is acoustic neuroma associated with?

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 2

47
Q

Where (anatomically) do 90% of nosebleeds occur?

A

Anteriorly in the anterioinferior nasal septum

48
Q

What is the name of the area where most nosebleeds occur?

A

Kiesselbach’s Plexus / Little’s Area

49
Q

What are the main arteries that form Littles area?

A 
Ophthlamic artery (anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries)
Maxillary artery (spehnopalatine and greater palatine arteries)
Facial artery (septal branch of superior labial artery)
50
Q

Name some local causes of epistaxis

A

Idiopathic, infection, trauma, neoplasia, iatrogenic

In children remember juvenile angiofibromas

51
Q

Name some systemic causes of epistaxis

A

Von Willebrands, Haemophilia, anti-coagulant drugs, Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangastasia

52
Q

What is the initial first aid management of epistaxis?

A

Get patient to sit forward with mouth open to reduce blood flow to the area and allow blood to get spat out
Pinch the soft part of the nose firmly for 10-15 mins
Suck an ice cub to induce vasoconstriction

53
Q

Which patients with epistaxis should be sent to A&E?

A

Patients who are deemed to be haemodynamically unstable

Patients with posterior nosebleeds

54
Q

If bleeding stops with first aid measures, what should be given to prevent crusting?

A

Naseptin cream

55
Q

If bleeding does not stop with first aid measures in 10-15 minutes, what should be done next?

A 
Nasal Cautery (silver nitrate applied to bleeding point for 10-15 secs)
If cautery ineffective or cannot locate bleeding point - Nasal Packing.
56
Q

If nasal cautery or packing does not work for epistaxis, what should be done next?

A

EUA and arterial ligation

If this does not work, radiological arterial embolization

57
Q

What is the commonest cause of neck lumps?

A

Lymphadenopathy

58
Q

What neck swellings move upwards when swallowing?

A

Thyroid swellings

59
Q

What neck lump is an embryological remnant of thyroid descent and moves upwards with tongue protrusion?

A

Thyroglossal cyst

60
Q

What would you suspect in a patient with dysphagia, regurgitation and aspiration and a neck lump that gurgles on palpation?

A

Pharyngeal pouch

61
Q

Where is a cystic hygroma found on the neck?

A

Between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the side of the neck. Classically on the left side. Most of them are present at birth.

62
Q

What is an oval, mobile cystic mass found between the sternocleidomastoid and the pharynx?

A

Branchial cyst

63
Q

What causes a branchial cyst?

A

Failure of obliteration of the 2nd branchial cleft in embryonic development

64
Q

What would be the cause of a pulsatile lateral mass that does not move on swallowing?

A

Carotid aneurysm

65
Q

Where do the majority of salivary lumps occur?

A

In the parotid (80%), 80% of which are benign and 80% of these are pleomorphic adenomas

66
Q

When do pleomorphic adenomas occur in life?

A

Occur in middle age and are slow growing

67
Q

Are pleomorphic adenomas malignant?

A

No they are benign but DO have malignant potential

68
Q

Which salivary tumour is cystic with abundant lymphocytes with germinal centres?

A

Warthin’s tumour - usually occurs in elderly male smokers

69
Q

What are some features of malignant salivary tumours?

A

Rapid growth, painful, fixation of skin, facial nerve palsies

Finals Revision (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions