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Surgery > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

The narrowest portion of the upper respiratory tract and, as such, has a major bearing on the
aerodynamics of nasal air-flow

A

LIMNE NASI

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2
Q

The anterior bony opening of the nasal cavity

A

PIRIFORM APERTURE

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3
Q

Most common site of epistaxis

A

Kisselbach’s plexus in Little’s Area

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4
Q

Standard paranasal sinus radiographs in the occipitomental projection

A

Water projection

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5
Q

Standard paranasal sinus radiographs in the occipitofrontal projection

A

Caldwell projection

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6
Q

Demonstrates the maxillary sinus and gives a limited view of the sphenoid sinus

A

occipitomentalprojection (Water)

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7
Q

Better for evaluating the ethmoid cells and frontal sinus

A

occipitofrontalprojection (Cadwell)

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8
Q

A butterfly-shaped advancement flap used to close a defect.

A

bilobed flap

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9
Q

Larger defects of the nose can be reconstructed with a forehead flap based on what 2 arteries

A

supraciliary and supratrochlear arteries

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10
Q

The myocutaneous pectoralis major flap is frequently used in the head and neck and is useful for repairing large defects in the facial region. This is based on what artery?

A

thoracoacromial artery

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11
Q

Converse scalp flap is usually based on what artery?

A

superficial temporal artery

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12
Q

Special type of lateral midfacial fracture which is characterized by isolated fracture of the orbital floor with a partial herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus

A

Blow out fracture

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13
Q

Isolated detachment of the alveolar process

A

Le Fort I

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14
Q

Pyramidal fracture with detachment of the maxilla.

A

Le Fort II

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15
Q

Craniofacial dysjunction.

A

Le Fort III

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16
Q

Painless, tense swelling in the carotid triangle between the hyoid bone and sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

Branchial cleft cysts

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17
Q

Presence of typically large hemangioma in which thrombotic processes lead to DIC with consumption coagulopathy; almost exclusive to small infants.

A

Kassabach-Merritt

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18
Q

Deep bluehemangiomas with a rubbery consistency form on the integument and persist without involution

A

Blue rubber Bleb Nevus Syndrome

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19
Q

Hypernasal speech

A

rhinophonia aperta

Incomplete closure of the nasopharynx

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20
Q

3 drugs that commonly causes gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin
Nifedipine
Cyclosporine

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21
Q

An exotosis protruding from the midline of hard palate.

A

TORUS PALATINE

22
Q

Bony growth in the mandible along the surface nearest to the tongue.

A

TORUS MANDIBULARIS

23
Q

Vincent’s Angina, Vincent’s dse is also known as

A

Trench mouth

24
Q

Trench moutch is caused by

A

Borrelia vincentii

25
Q

It presents clinically with unilateral dysphagia, malaise and a fetid breath odor and examination reveals unilateral fibrin coated ulceron the palatine tonsil

A

Trench mouth

26
Q

Circle of protective lymphoid tissue at the upper ends of the respiratory and alimentary tracts

A

Waldeyer’s Ring

27
Q

In severe tonsillitis, pain may be felt in ipisilateral ear. This referred pain is due to

A

CN IX

28
Q

Complication of untreated tonsillitis which causes muffled speech and distorted quality of the voice (“hot potato voice)

A

PERITONSILLAR ABSCESS

29
Q

Duct of parotid gland

A

Stensen’s duct

30
Q

Duct of submandibular gland

A

Wharton’s duct

31
Q

Duct of sublingual duct

A

Rivinus duct

32
Q

Provide the most detailed view of duct system

A

Sialography

33
Q

Secondary to obstruction of sublingual gland duct/rivinus; appears like belly of frog

A

Ranula

34
Q

Aka post-parotidectomy syndrome characterized by gustatory sweating or excessive sweating of the cheek, temple, or behind the ears after food ingestion

A

Frey Syndrome

35
Q

Obesity hyperventilation syndrome

A

Pickwickian Syndrome

36
Q

Apnea index that is diagnostic of Peripheral/ Obstructive Sleep ApneaSyndrome (OSAS)

A

> 5

37
Q

Gold standard in confirming OSAS

A

POLYSOMNOGRAPHY (PSG)

38
Q

In a diagnostic method for OSAS, patient sits in an upright/45. reclined position; endoscope put in place; patient’s nostrils compressed & instructed to inhale the residual intraoral air while keeping mouth closed. What do you call this maneuver?

A

Muller maneuver

39
Q

“Swimmer’s ear”

A

ACUTE OTITIS EXTERNA

40
Q

Most common pathogen of AOE

A

P. aeruginosa 99%
S. aureus
Streptococcus

41
Q

Bulging of TM is what stage of AOM?

A

Stage 3 (exudative)

Stage 1 - hyperemic
Stage 2 - transudative
Stage 4 - suppurative

42
Q

Non-surgical treatment for OSAS that “pneumatically splints” unstable portions of airway via continuous positive pressure ventilation which keeps tissues from collapsing during sleep & obstructing airflow

A

Transnasal CPAP/BIPAP mask

43
Q

Where is the point of weakness in the upper cervical esophagus which is the site of the origin of Zenker’s diverticulum:

A. the esophageal introitus
B. the middle pharyngeal constrictor
C. the transition between the thyropharyngeus and the cricopharyngeus
D. the uppermost portion of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

A

C. the transition between the thyropharyngeus and the cricopharyngeus

44
Q

A young patient in a psychiatric institution undergoes rigid esophagoscopy for the removal of an open safety pin in the distal esophagus. Following the procedure, she develops midchest pain and fever. In this patient:

A. esophageal perforation should be considered
B. esophageal ulceration should be suspected
C. a flexible esophagoscopy should be done
D. antibiotic therapy should be commenced

A

A. esophageal perforation should be considered

45
Q

The most common important prognosticating factor in well differentiated thyroid cancer is:

A

Age of the patient

46
Q

A 40 year old male presents with progressive dysphagia and weight loss. On esophagoscopy, the esophagus is dilated with food debris but the procedure is completed with ease. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Esophageal cancer
B. Achalasia
C. Adenocarcinoma of the cardia
D. Reflux esophagitis

A

A. Esophageal cancer

47
Q

Which of the following esophageal lesions is most likely to be followed by the development of adenocarcinoma:

A. Achalasia
B. Barrett’s esophagus
C. Caustic burn
D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

B. Barrett’s esophagus

48
Q

The most common presenting symptom in patients with esophageal carcinoma is:

A. Chest pain
B. Palpable lower cervical nodules
C. Dysphagia
D. Hematemesis

A

C. Dysphagia

49
Q

Histologic examination of a thyroid gland tumor reveals psammoma bodies. This findings indicates that the lesion is:

A. Benign
B. Metastatic
C. Follicular CA
D. Medullary CA
E. Papillary CA
A

E. Papillary CA

50
Q

A 42-year old female with goiter, a 4 x 6 cm mass on the scalp of 6 months duration and a pulmonary nodule on chestx-ray. In this case, one suggests:

A. Follicular CA of thyroid
B. Bronchogenic CA with scalp and thyroid metastases
C. Soft tissue sarcoma of scalp
D. Papillary CA of thyroid
E. Medullary CA of thyroid
A

A. Follicular CA of thyroid

51
Q

The radiographic examination of choice for diagnosing an unstable cervical spine is:

A. Cervical lateral x-ray
B. Cervical AP x-ray
C. Cervical MRI
D. Cervical CT Scan

A

A. Cervical lateral x-ray

Surgery (10 decks)

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