Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y3 CORE CONDITIONS > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

what body system mediates balance?

A

vestibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what system regulates gravity, linear and angular acceleration and regulates muscle tone?

A

vestibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 2 otolith organs?

A

utricle

saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how many semicircular canals are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is smooth pursuit used for?

A

tracking moving objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is optokinetic nystagmus?

A

reflex when tracking objects that lie outside the fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the vestibular-ocular reflex?

A

stabilised the eye on an object when the head moves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where are the main gravity receptors located?

A

major blood vessels

abdominal viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what balance disease is characterised by the illusion of movement when there is none?

A

vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the onset of being paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

sudden, last only seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

does hearing loss accompany BPPV?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what manoeuvre/test might you perform to diagnose BPPV?

A

dix-hallpike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what manoeuvre night you perform to treat BPPV?

A

epley’s manœuvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what eye problem is characterised by involuntary rhythmic oscillation of the eyes?

A

nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the onset of meniere’s disease?

A

lasts hours

episodi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what hearing problem accompanies meniere’s?

A

tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is vestibular neuronitis?

A

vertigo that lasts hours after a URTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is there any hearing loss or neurological signs with vestibular neuronitis?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is treatment for vestibular neuronitis?

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is presbystasis and what causes it?

A

balance disorder

related to ageing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is saccades?

A

normal eye jerk between current and new stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is head shaking nystagmus?

A

nystagmus following head shaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why might you test calorics when testing vestibular function?

A

vestibular-ocular reflex is based on calorics (hot/cold sense)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

who is most commonly affected by epistaxis?

A

children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what causes 85% of all cases of epistaxis?

A

idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

give 3 simple local causes of epistaxis

A

trauma e.g. nose picking
mucosal irritation
anatomical abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

give a tumour cause of epistaxis

A

nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (benign tumour that bleeds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

give 3 associated symptoms of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma - who does it affect?

A

headache
rhinorrhoea
anosmia
affects young males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

give 4 pathological systemic causes of epistaxis

A

bleeding disorders
neoplasms
inflammatory disorders
hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

give 3 medications that may increase the risk of epistaxis

A

aspirin
clopidogrel
warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the blood supply of the nose is

a) very rich
b) poor
c) absent in some

A

a) very rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do you distinguish between an anterior and a posterior nosebleed?

A

pooling in front of nose or running down back of throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what type of facial pain is characterised by throbbing?

A

vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what type of facial pain is characterised by severe stabbing, nasal obstruction and nausea?

A

trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

name 2 other types of facial pain

A

sinogenic

migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

is there pain in chronic sinus obstruction?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does acute sinus obstruction often precede?

A

URTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe how sinusitis affects one’s sense of smell

A

hyposmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what might you expect on a painful tooth when you percuss it?

A

more pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

is dental pain well or poorly localised?

A

poorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what type of migraine make up 25% of cases?

A

classical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

name 2 accompanying features of migraine

A

aura

visual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which gender is paroxysmal hemicrania more common in?

A

women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

is pain unilateral or bilateral with paroxysmal hemicranial?

A

unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how long does the pain last for paroxysmal hemicrania?

a) seconds
b) less than an hour
c) over 12 hours
d) days

A

b) less than an hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

give 2 associated symptoms of paroxysmal hemicrania

A

lacrimation
nasal congestion
rhinorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe the onset of cluster headaches

A

sudden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

which gender is more commonly affected by cluster headaches?

A

men (middle aged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how can cluster headaches impinge on the trigeminal nerve?

A

dilate blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

give a neurological symptom of cluster headaches

A

horner’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is horner’s characterised by?

A

myosis
anhydrous
ptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what type of pain is mid facial segment pain and where does it occur?

A

tightness/pressure over nasal bridge or orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

is mid facial segment pain symmetrical or not?

A

symmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

describe the changes to sensation that occur with mid facial segment pain

A

hyperaesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what might a patient with mid facial segment pain complain of in regards to their nose? (although it would appear normal upon examination)

A

nasal congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

give an example of a specific trigger for trigeminal neuralgia

A

washing face

brushing teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is firstline treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

name 3 other drugs that may be used to treat trigeminal neuralgia

A

gabapentin
pregabalin
lidocaine
amitryptilline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what type of patient is more likely to get atypical facial pain that has no dermasomal associations?

A

pessimistic or with negative life events/stressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which branches of the trigeminal nerve are affected in 1/3 of trigeminal neuralgia cases?

A

V2 and V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

name the 4 sinuses from top to bottom

A

frontal
ethmoidal
sphenoidal
maxilliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the definition for rhinosinusitis?

A

inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

give 2 examples of endoscopic signs you might see in rhinosinusitis

A

polyps

mucopurulent discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the difference between acute and chronic rhinosinusitis?

A

acute 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how are nasal polyps normally managed?

A

topical steroid drops e.g. luticason or beclomethasone

66
Q

what is FESS?

A

functional endoscopic sinus surgery

67
Q

give 3 examples of viruses that can cause rhinosinusitis

A

rhinovirus
influenza
respiratory syncytial virus

68
Q

give 3 examples of bacteria that can cause rhinosinusitis

A

pneumococcus
streptococcus
h influenzae

69
Q

give 3 abnormalities of the osteomeatal complex that can cause rhinosinusitis

A

too small
increase secretion
impaired ciliary function

70
Q

what are kartagener’s syndrome and primary ciliary dyskinesia both examples of?

A

mucociliary disorders

71
Q

what is Samter’s triad?

A

aspirin hypersensitivity
nasal polyps
asthma

72
Q

what complication of rhino sinusitis is characterised by diplopia, proptosis and visual abnormalities?

A

peri-orbital celluliitis

73
Q

give a vascular complication of rhinosinusitis

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

74
Q

give an infective complication of rhinosinusitis

A

meningitis

abscess

75
Q

what are the 3 major salivary glands?

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

76
Q

what nerve supplies the parotid gland?

A

glossopharyngeal

77
Q

what is the name of the duct which flows from parotid and where does it open?

A

stepson’s duct

opens next to 2nd molar

78
Q

what type of fluid does the parotid gland produce?

A

watery, serous

79
Q

what 2 senses does the parotid help to stimulate?

A

gustatory

olfactory

80
Q

what nerve does it lie very close to?

A

facial

81
Q

what type of secretion does the submandibular gland produce?

A

thick mucoid

82
Q

what type of tumours constitute 80% of salivary gland tumours?

A

pleomorphic adenomas

83
Q

are 80% of salivary gland tumours benign or malignant?

A

benign

84
Q

where do 80% of salivary gland tumours lie?

A

parotid

85
Q

give 5 functions of saliva

A 
moisten mucosa
taste
transport
buffer
digestion
antibacterial
mineralisation
pellicle (layer of proteins)
86
Q

describe the swelling characteristic of acute viral parotitis

A

bilateral with mild pain

87
Q

give a systemic symptom of acute viral parotitis

A

pyrexia

88
Q

what causes acute viral parotitis?

A

paramyxovirus

89
Q

what 2 supportive management options are used to treat acute viral parotitis?

A

rehydration

analgesia

90
Q

give 3 complications of acute viral parotitis

A 
meningitis
encephalitis
pancreatitis
orchiditis
deafness
91
Q

give 5 causes of hypo function of the salivary glands

A 
candidiasis
lichen planes
pathos ulcers
xerostomia
poor dentition
burnt mouth
92
Q

what are the symptoms of acute bacterial parotitis similar to?

A

acute viral parotitis

93
Q

why is acute bacterial parotitis more serious that acute viral parotitis?

A

mortality 80% if not treated

94
Q

what is the most common causative organism for acute bacterial parotitis?

A

staph aureus

95
Q

what are the 4 parts of treatment for acute bacterial parotitis?

A

antibiotics
rehydration
analgesia
drainage

96
Q

describe the swelling characteristic of HIV parotitis

A

firm, non-tender

97
Q

is HIV parotitis often bilateral or unilateral?

A

bilateral

98
Q

benign lymphopithemial cysts are types of what parotitis? what causes them?

A

HIV parotitis

hyperplasia of follicles in lymph nodes

99
Q

what immune cells infiltrate lymph glands in HIV parotitis/benign lymphopithemial cysts?

A

CD8 t cells (cytotoxic)

100
Q

what is sjoren’s syndrome?

A

autoimmune connective tissue disorder

101
Q

give 2 symptoms of sjoren’s syndrome and their implications

A 
keratoconjuctivitis sicca (dry eyes)
xerostomia (dry mouth)
102
Q

what occurs to the lymph glands in sjoren’s syndrome?

A

infiltration and atrophy of acini

103
Q

how is sjoren’s treated?

A

antinuclear antibodies

104
Q

give a complication of sjoren’s syndrome

A

non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

105
Q

what is a ranula?

A

painless salivary gland mass of constant size

106
Q

what is a ranula made of?

A

mucocoele

107
Q

what type of agent is used to treat a ranula?

A

sclerosing agent

108
Q

what is sialolithiasis?

A

deposition of crystals in gland

109
Q

when is the pain of sialolithiasis worst?

A

around eating

110
Q

what does sialodentesis have that sialolithiasis doesn’t?

A

erythema and pus

111
Q

what is the word for ear discharge?

A

ottorhoea

112
Q

what is an inflamed ear canal called?

A

otitis externa

113
Q

give 3 symptoms of mastoiditis

A

swelling over mastoid process
non-draining
ear pushed forwards and downwards

114
Q

give 2 bacterial causative organisms of otitis externa

A

pseudomonas
s aureus
proteus

115
Q

if a patient with otitis external was complaining of deep pain and had cranial nerve palsies, what would you be concerned about?

A

malignancy

116
Q

give 2 fungal causative organisms of otitis externa. what predisposes to fungal ear infections?

A

aspergillus
candida
fumigatis
predisposed by prolonged antibiotic use

117
Q

give the 3 most common causative organisms for acute otitis media

A

s pneumonia
h influenza
moraxella

118
Q

what abnormal growth can cause chronic suppurative otitis media?

A

cholesteatoma

119
Q

give 2 causes of chronic suppurative otitis media

A

perforated tympanic membrane
trauma/grommets
bacteria
abnormality of tympanic membrane

120
Q

what systemic complication can occur with acute mastoiditis?

A

septicaemia

121
Q

give 4 causes of non infective ear discharge

A 
atopic dermatitis
eczema
psoriasis
trauma
CSF
blood
122
Q

what is the difference between antibiotic treatment of bacterial otitis externa, malignant otitis externa and fungal otitis externa?

A 
bacterial = topical abx
malignant = IV abx
fungal = topical antifungals + stop abx
123
Q

what type of otitis externa has the highest mortality?

A

malignant

124
Q

what is the difference between treatment in AOM and CSOM?

A

AOM only give abx if it fails to improve

CSOM topic abx

125
Q

what surgical treatment would you recommend for

a) mucosal CSOM
b) squamous CSOM

A

a) tympanoplasty

b) mastoidectomy

126
Q

give 3 viral causes of acute sore throat

A 
rhinovirus
coronavirus
syncytial virus
parainfluenza
aden, EBV, HSV, paramyxo
127
Q

give 3 bacterial causes of acute sore throat

A

group a strep (pyogenes)
scarlet fever (s pyogenes)
c diphtheriae

128
Q

what causes glandular fever?

A

EBV infectious mononucleosis

129
Q

give 3 symptoms of glandular fever

A 
sore throat
pyrexia
malaise
anorexia
rash
130
Q

give 2 signs of glandular fever

A

lymphadenopathy

splenomegaly

131
Q

how is glandular fever treated?

A

suppurative w steroids

132
Q

what is laymen’s terms for pharyngitis?

A

sore throat

133
Q

what would the throat look like upon inspection of a patient with pharyngitis?

A

erythematous

maybe tonsil swelling

134
Q

give 4 signs/symptoms of pharyngitis

A

temperature
lymphadenopathy
cough
rhinorrhoea

135
Q

how can you distinguish a peritonsilar abscess from peritonsillar cellulitis?

A

uvula is central in peritonsilar cellulitis

136
Q

place unilateral and bilateral into this sentence:

peritonsilar abscess is characterised by severe ___ pain and _____ earache, with pyrexia

A

severe unilateral pain

bilateral earache

137
Q

how is the voice of someone with a peritonsilar abscess described?

A

hot potato

138
Q

describe these two symptoms of peritonsilar abscesses

a) odynophagia
b) trismus

A

a) pain when swallowing

b) inability to open jaw fully

139
Q

name a breath symptom of peritonsilar abscesses

A

oris halitosis

140
Q

give the 2 main causative organisms of peritonsilar abscesses

A

strep progenies

staph aureus

141
Q

how are peritonsilar abscesses managed?

A

broad spectrum abx and drainage

142
Q

when is the pain worse in pharyngotonsillitis?

A

swallowing

143
Q

name 3 bacterial causative organisms for pharyngotonsillitis

A

strep progenies
staph aureus
haem influenza

144
Q

give 2 symptoms for laryngitis

A

fever

dysphonia

145
Q

give 3 causes for laryngitis

A

chemical trauma
physical trauma
viral infection

146
Q

how is laryngitis treated?

A

voice rest + humidity

steroids

147
Q

give 4 symptoms of epiglottis, supraglottitis

A 
sore throat
dysphagia
dysarthria
tachycardia
difficulty breathing
148
Q

which of epiglottitis and supraglottitis is more common in children?

A

supraglottitis more common in children

149
Q

what are 2 bacterial causative organisms for epiglottis and supraglottitis?

A

s pneumoniae

h parainfluenzae

150
Q

what is immediate emergency treatment for epiglottitis and supraglottitis?

A

secure airway

151
Q

what drugs might you give to treat epiglottitis and supraglottitis?

A

broad spectrum abx

steroids

152
Q

complete this pneumonic for the branches of the facial nerve

Two zebras bit Miley Cyrus

A 
temporal
zygomatic
buccal
mandibular
cervical
153
Q

if a facial nerve is damaged above the spinal cord, which parts of the face will be affected?

A

lower contralateral quadrant (as upper quadrants are supplied doubly by nerves from both sides)

154
Q

if a facial nerve is damaged below the spinal cord, which parts of the face will be affected?

A

ipsilateral half of face

155
Q

what is neuropraxia?

A

reversible blockage of transmission of nerve impulses

156
Q

what causes neuropraxia?

A

pressure on nerve fibres

157
Q

what is axonotmesis?

A

blockage of axon flow causing neuronal degeneration

158
Q

what is neurotmesis?

A

total nerve transection

159
Q

bell’s palsy is dysfunction of which cranial nerve?

A

7

160
Q

which of these is not a symptom of Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome?

a) facial paralysis
b) face and lip swelling
c) widespread erythema
d) furrows/folds in tongue

A

c) widespread erythema

161
Q

what is the pathophysiology of lambert eaton disease?

A

autoantibodies block presynaptic calcium channels

162
Q

what causes lambert eaton disease?

A

underlying malignancy

Y3 CORE CONDITIONS (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions