Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Alice's finals cards > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 names of the ossicles?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Over what time frame can hearing loss be defined as sudden?

A

Over less than 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the result of webbers test in sensioneural hearing loss?

A

Louder in normal ear, quieter in the affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the result of webbers test in conductive hearing loss?

A

Louder in the affected ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the result of Rinne’s test in conductive hearing loss?

A

Is louder on the mastoid process than by the ear on the affected side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which drugs can cause sensioneural hearing loss?

A 
Loop diruretics (furosemide)
Gentamicin
Chemotherapy drugs (cisplatin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which pitch of sounds does presbycusis affect?

A

High pitched sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for sudden sensorineural hearing loss?

A

loss of at least 30 decibels in 3 consecutive frequencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can idiopathic SSNHL be managed?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How may eustachian tube dysfunction present?

A

Reduced or altered hearing
Popping noises or sensations in the ear
Pain or discomfort
Tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the investigations for Eustachian tube dysfunction?

A

Tympanometry
Audiometry
nasopharyngoscopy
CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which procedure can be done to widen the eustachian tube?

A

Balloon dilatation eustachian tuboplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of otosclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the typical presentation of otosclerosis?

A

Conductive hearing loss
Tinnitus
Woman in her 40s

Hearing loss is generally of lower-pitched sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which investigations should be done for otosclerosis?

A

Audiometry
Typanometry
High resolution CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the management options for otosclerosis?

A

Stapedotomy

Hearing aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which bacteria most commonly causes otitis media?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the symptoms of otitis media?

A

ear pain
Reduced hearing
Fever
Cough, coryza and sore throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can be seen on otoscopy in otitis media?

A

Red, inflamed looking membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for otitis media and for how long?

A

Amoxicillin for 5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 most common bacterial causes of otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 conditions which psuedomonas aeruginosa can cause?

A

Otitis externa and can colonise the lungs in patients with cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can pseudomonas aeruginosa be treated with?

A

Gentamycin and ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the management of otitis externa?

A 
Mild= acetic acid 2%
Moderate= topical antibiotics and steriod (eg neomycin and dexamethosone) aka otomize ear spray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the potentially life threatening complication of otitis externa and which populations does it occur in?

A

malinant otitis externa (osteomyelitis of the temporal bone)

Occurs in people with diabetes, people who are immunosuppressed or have HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is objective tinnitus? How can you assess this?

A

The patient can objectively hear an extra sound within their head.

The sound can also be observable on examination by auscultating with a stethoscope around the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does pulsatile tinnitus suggest?

A

May indicate a cardiovascular cause such as carotid artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the suggested investigations for tinnitus?

A

Bloods to assess for underlying causes:
FBC (anaemia), glucose (diabetes), TSH (thyroid), lipids (hyperlipidaemia)

Audiology

Imaging (CT/MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the fluid which fills the semicircular canals called?

A

Endolymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 4 most common causes of vertigo?

A

BPPV
Menieres disease
Vestibular neuronitis
Labrynthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes BPPV?

A

Crystals of calcium carbonate called otoconia becoming displaced in the semicircular canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What manoeuvre can be used to diagnose BPPV?

A

Dix-hallpike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the symptoms pf menieres disease?

A

Unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo and a sense of fullness in the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes acute vestibular neuronitis?

A

inflammation of the vestibular nerve, usually secondary to a viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes labrynthitis?

A

Inflammation of the inner ear. Usually due to viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Name 4 central causes of vertigo

A

Posterior circulation infarction
Tumour
MS
Vestibular migraine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which test can be used to diagnose a peripheral cause of vertigo?

A

Head impulse test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which test can be used to diagnose a central cause of vertigo?

A

Test of skew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which medications can be used to manage symptoms of peripheral vertigo?

A

Prochlorperazine

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which medication can be used to reduce attacks in menieres disease?

A

Betahistine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which manoeuvre can treat BPPV?

A

Epley manoeuvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where do otoconia most often occur?

A

Posterior semi circular canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the symptoms of vestibular neuritis?

A

Constant vertigo, nausea and vomiting and balance problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which symptoms differentiate neuronitis and labrynthitis?

A

Labrynthitis- loss of hearing and tinnitus

neuronitis- no loss of hearing or tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which 2 conditions is labyrinthitis usually secondary to?

A

Otitis media or meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which disease are patients always offered an audiology assessment after recovering from?

A

Meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in menieres disease?

A

Hearing loss
vertigo
tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the increased pressure in the inner ear called in menieres disease?

A

Endolymphatic hydrops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the pattern of vertigo in menieres disease?

A

20 minute episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the management for acute attacks of menieres?

A

Prochlorperazine

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the prophylaxis for menieres?

A

Betahistine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which cells are acoustic neuromas a tumour of?

A

Schwann cells

53
Q

Where do acoustic neuromas occur?

A

Cerebellopontine angle

54
Q

Which disease are acoustic neuromas associated with?

A

Neurofibromatosis type II

May be bilateral in this case

55
Q

What is the presentation of an acoustic neuroma?

A

Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
Unilateral tinnitus
Dizziness or imbalance
Sensation of fullness in the ear

56
Q

What are the investigations for ?acoustic neuroma?

A 
Audiometry 
Brain injury (CT or MRI)
57
Q

What is the management of acoustic neuroma?

A

Conservative

Surgery

Radiotherapy (+/- surgery)

58
Q

What is a cholesteatoma made up of?

A

Squamous epithelial cells

59
Q

What is the presentation of cholesteoma?

A

Foul discharge from the ear

Unilateral conductive hearing loss

60
Q

What is the management of cholesteatoma?

A

CT head to assess the severity

Surgical removal

61
Q

What is the pathway of the facial nerve?

A

exists the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle

Passes through the temporal bone and the parotid gland

62
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve?

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Marginal mandibular
Cervical
63
Q

what are the motor functions of the facial nerve?

A

Supplies the muscles of facial expression, the stapedius, posterior digastric, stylohyoid platysma muscles of the neck

64
Q

What are the sensory functions of the facial nerve?

A

Carries taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

65
Q

What are the parasympathetic functions of the facial nerve?

A

Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands

lacrimal gland

66
Q

In which type of motor neurone lesion is the forehead spared? Why is this and what is the differential?

A

Upper motor neurone lesion

Each side of the forehead has upper motor neurone innervation by both sides of the brain. However, each side of the forehead only has lower motor neurone innervation from one side of the brain.

Suspect stroke (yikes!)

67
Q

What is bells palsy?

A

Unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy

68
Q

What is the management of bell’s palsy?

A

Prednisolone if presented within 72 hours of symptom onset

Lubricating eye drops to protect against exposure keratopathy

69
Q

which virus causes Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster

70
Q

What is the presentation of ramsay-hunt syndrome?

A

Unilateral motor neurone facial nerve palsy, tender and painful vesicular rash in the ear canal, pinna and around the ear

71
Q

What is the management of ramsay hunt?

A

Prednisolone

Aciclovir

72
Q

Where does the bleeding in epistaxis usually originate?

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus in little’s area

73
Q

If nose bleeding in bilateral, where is the likely location of bleeding?

A

Posterior in the nose

74
Q

What is the management of acute epistaxis?

A

Sit up and tilt head forwards. Squeeze the soft part of the nostrils together for 10-15 mins

If this doesn’t stop, nasal packing or nasal cautery using silver nitrate sticks

75
Q

What can be prescribed after an acute nosebleed is resolved and why?

A

Naseptin (chlorhexidine and neomycin) QDS to reduce crusting, inflammation and infection

76
Q

When is naseptin contraindicated?

A

Peanut or soya allergy

77
Q

What are the time periods which define acute and chronic sinusitis?

A 
Acute= <12 weeks
Chronic= >12 weeks
78
Q

What are the holes called in the sinuses which allow the mucous to drain?

79
Q

Name the 4 sets of paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid

80
Q

Name 4 possible causes for inflammation of the sinuses

A

Infection
Allergies
Obstruction (foreign bodies, polyps, trauma)
Smoking

81
Q

How does sinusitis present?

A 
Nasal congestion
Nasal discharge
Facial pain or headache
Facial pressure
Facial swelling
Loss of smell
Fever
82
Q

What are the investigations which can be done for sinusitis?

A

Nasal endoscopy

CT scan

83
Q

What is the management of acute sinusitis?

A

Do not offer antibiotics for the first 10 days, most causes are viral

High dose steroid spray for 14 days (mometasone)

Delayed abx prescription if not improved after 7 days (phenoxymethylpenicillin)

84
Q

What are the options for managing chronic sinusitis?

A

Saline nasal irrigation
Steroid nasal sprays or drops
Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

85
Q

What is the proper technique for using steroid nasal sprays?

A

Ask, “do you taste the spray at the back of your throat after using it?” Tasting the spray means it has gone past the nasal mucosa= not be as effective.

  1. Tilt head forward
  2. Left hand to spray into right and vice versa (away from septum)
  3. Don’t sniff hard during the spray
  4. Very gently inhale through the nose after the spray
86
Q

Which is a red flag- unilateral or bilateral nasal polyps?

A

Unilateral - think tumour

87
Q

Which conditions are nasal polyps associated with?

A

Chronic rhinitis or sinusitis
Asthma
Samter’s triad (nasal polyps, asthma and aspirin intolerance)
Cystic fibrosis
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

88
Q

What is the presentation of nasal polyps?

A 
Chronic rhinosinusitis 
Difficultly breathing through the nose
Snoring
Nasal discharge
Anosmia
89
Q

How can nasal polyps be assessed?

A

Nasal speculum
Otoscope with big attachment
Nasal endoscopy

90
Q

What is the management of nasal polyps?

A

Intranasal topical steroid drops or spray

Surgery- intranasal/ endoscopic nasal polypectomy

91
Q

What are the risk factors for OSA?

A 
Middle age
Male 
Obesity
Alcohol
Smoking
92
Q

What are some features of OSA?

A 
Episodes of apnoea during sleep (often reported by partner)
Snoring
Morning headache
Waking up unrefreshed from sleep
Daytime sleepiness
Concentration problems
Reduced oxygen sats during sleep
93
Q

Which tool is used to assess symptoms of sleepiness associated with sleep apnoea?

A

The epworth sleepiness scale

94
Q

What is the management of OSA?

A
  1. Correct reversible risk factors
  2. CPAP
  3. Surgery- uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
95
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of tonsilitis?

A

Group A strep (Strep pyogenes)

96
Q

What is the ring of lymphoid tissue in the pharynx (which contains the adenoids, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils and lingual tonsil) called?

A

Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring

97
Q

What is the typical presentation of tonsilitis?

A

Sore throat
Fever (above 38)
Pain on swallowing
Enlarged tonsils with or without exudate

98
Q

What are the criteria of the FeverPAIN score?

A 
Fever in 24 hours
P- purulence
A- attended within 3 days of onset
I- inflammed tonsils
N- no cough or coryza
99
Q

What score is needed in FeverPAIN for a antibiotic prescription?

100
Q

Which abx should be prescribed in tonsilitis? (and if pen allergic)

A

Penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin)

Clarithromycin if allergic (loser)

101
Q

Name some complications of tonsilitis

A 
Peritonsillar abscess
Otitis media
Scarlet fever
Rheumatic fever
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Post-streptococcal reactive arthritis
102
Q

What are the borders of the anterior triangle?

A

Mandible (superior)
Midline of the neck (medial)
Sternocleidomastoid (lateral)

103
Q

What are the borders of the posterior triangle?

A

Clavicle (inferior)
Trapezius (posterior)
Sternocleidomastoid (medial)

104
Q

What are the 2 week wait criteria for neck lumps?

A
  1. unexplained neck lump in someone >45 years old

2. Persistent neck lump at any age

105
Q

Which blood tests should be done for neck lumps?

A 
FBC and blood film
HIV test
Monospot test or EBV antibodies
TFT
ANA 
LDH (tumour marker for hodgkins)
106
Q

Which investigations should be done for a neck lump?

A
  1. Bloods
  2. Imaging (ultrasound, CT/MRI and nuclear medicine scan)
  3. Biopsy
107
Q

What are the 4 groups of lymphadenopathy?

A
  1. reactive
  2. infected
  3. inflammatory
  4. malignancy
108
Q

what is the presentation of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Fever
Sore throat
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy

109
Q

What can occur if you give someone with mononucleosis amoxicillin?

A

They can develop an intensely itchy maculopapular rash

110
Q

What is the first line investigation for mononucleosis?

A

The mono-spot test

111
Q

What advise should be given to people with mononucleosis?

A 
Avoid alcohol (increased risk of liver impairment)
Avoid contact sport (increased risk of splenic rupture)
112
Q

What are the three reasons for salivary glands to enlarge?

A

Stones blocking drainage (sialolithiasis)
Infection
Tumours

113
Q

Where is the carotid body located?

A

Just above the carotid bifurcation

114
Q

What are the chemoreceptors in the carotid body called? What is a group of these cells called?

A

Glomus cells

Paraganglia

115
Q

What is the other name for a carotid body tumour?

A

Paragangliomas

116
Q

Which nerves can carotid body tumours press on?

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Accessory (XI)
Hypoglossal (XII)
Vagus (X)

117
Q

What can be caused by a carotid body tumour pressing on the vagus nerve?

A

Horner’s syndrome:
Ptosis
Anhydrosis
Miosis

118
Q

What is the characteristic finding on imaging for carotid body tumour?

A

Splaying of the internal and external carotid arteries (lyre sign)

119
Q

What is a key differential when considering a thyroglossal cysts?

A

Ectopic thyroid tissue

120
Q

What are the red flags for head and neck cancer?

A 
Lump in mouth or on lip
Unexplained mouth ulceration which lasts more than 3 weeks
Erythoplakia or erythroleucoplakia
Persistent neck lump
Unexplained horseness of voice
Unexplained thyroid lump
121
Q

Which monoclonal antibody is commonly used to target squamous cell carcinomas of the head and neck?

122
Q

What are some causes of glossitis?

A 
Iron deficiency anaemia
B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency
Coeliac disease
Injury or irritant exposure
123
Q

What are the 3 top causes of angioedema (which can lead to tongue swelling)?

A

Allergic reactions
ACE-i
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency (hereditary angioedema)

124
Q

Which factors can cause oral candidiasis?

A 
Inhaled corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Diabetes
Immunodeficiency (HIV)
Smoking
125
Q

What are the treatment options for oral candidiasis?

A

Miconazole gel
Nystatin suspension
Fluconazole tablets

126
Q

What are the 2 key causes of strawberry tongue?

A

Scarlet fever

Kawasaki disease

127
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

white patches in the mouth (tongue and inside of cheeks). It is a precancerous condition and increases the risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the mouth

128
Q

What are the 3 patterns that lichen planus can form in the mouth?

A

reticular
Erosive
Plaque

129
Q

What is wickham’s striae?

A

A reticular pattern of lichen planus in the mouth. It involves a net-like web of white lines

Alice's finals cards (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions