ENR 1.5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is aircraft performance category based on?

A

Vat or threshold speed which is equivelant to 1.3 x Vs.

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2
Q

When conducting an instrument approach, when can an aircraft descend below LSALT or Minimum Sector Altitude?

A

Once past the initial fix or facility for the approach.

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3
Q

What terrain clearance does an RTCC provide?

A

1000ft and 3NM.

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4
Q

When can circling be conducted in no-circling areas?

A

Day VMC

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5
Q

When can a pilot descend below the MDA while circling?

A

When the pilot maintains:

a. within the circling area
b. visibility along the intended flight path not less than the minimum specified
c. visual contact with the landing runway environment
AND
d. by day or night, from a position on downwind base or finals above the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the threshold using rates and manoeuvres normal for the aircraft type, while maintaining required obstacle clearance for the aircraft category
OR
e. by day only, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path while maintaining required obstacle clearance for the aircraft category

Hint: If a pilot can maintain visual contact with obstacles during the day, they may descend from anywhere within the circling area.

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6
Q

What is the circling area and obstacle clearance for category C aircraft?

A

4.20NM and 400ft.

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7
Q

When can a pilot descend below the straight-in MDA?

A

When:

a. Visual reference can be maintained
b. MET conditions are above minimas
c. The aircraft is in a position to make a normal descent to the threshold (i.e. not too steep from late visual)

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8
Q

How much can a 2D straight-in approach be mis-aligned with the runway?

A

Up to 15 degrees for Cat C.

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9
Q

When can a pilot begin aligning the aircraft with runway centreline during a mis-aligned straight-in approach?

A

When:

a. within the circling area
b. visual reference can be maintained
c. continuously in sight of ground or water

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10
Q

When must a missed approach be conducted?

A

If:

a. during the final segment of an approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance
b. during an approach, below the MSA, the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect or fails
c. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA
d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted
e. visual reference is lost while circling

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11
Q

What obstacle clearance does a missed approach procedure provide?

A

100ft at 2.5% minimum gradient.

2.5% = 152ft/NM.

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12
Q

What should a pilot do if a missed approach is required from circling?

A

Climbing turn towards the landing runway until overhead tracking along the MAP path.

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13
Q

When must a pilot conduct a missed approach from a GNSS-based approach?

A

Loss of RAIM anytime after the initial approach fix. If RAIM does not return, the MAP must be flown using alternative means.

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14
Q

What restrictions apply to an approach with a visual segment at the end?

A

The visual segment must be flown clear of cloud and in sight of ground or water above the MDA.

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15
Q

When can a day IFR flight request a visual approach?

A

When:

a. within 30NM of the AD
b. above the LSALT/step height/MDA
c. clear of cloud
d. in sight of ground or water
e. visibility not less than 5000m

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16
Q

When can a night IFR flight request a visual approach?

A

When:

a. above the LSALT/step height/MDA
b. clear of cloud
c. in sight of ground or water
d. visibility not less than 5000m

AND can maintain the above at an altitude not less than:

  • 500ft above CTA steps (without a clearance)
  • the LSALT/step height/vectored altitude

UNTIL the aircraft is:

  • AD w/ IAP: within the circling area
  • AD wo/ IAP: within 3NM of the ARP with AD in sight
  • within 5NM (7NM if ILS exists), aligned with centreline and not below “on slope” on the T-VASIS/PAPI
  • within 10NM and established not below ILS glide path with less than full scale deflection
17
Q

What is the category C initial and intermediate approach speed range?

A

160-240kts.

18
Q

What is the category C final approach speed range?

A

115-160kts.

19
Q

What is the category C max circling speed?

A

180kts.

20
Q

What is the category C max missed approach speed?

A

240kts.

21
Q

If a partial runway lighting failure occurs, what additional restrictions must be applied by the pilot?

A

Multiply the approach minimum visibility requirements by 1.5.

22
Q

What is the maximum holding speed up to FL140?

A

230kts.

23
Q

What is the maximum holding speed above FL140?

A

240kts.

24
Q

What is the maximum bank angle for IAP turns?

A

25 degrees or rate one (whichever is less).

25
Q

In cold temperatures will an altimeter read higher or lower than the actual altitude?

A

Higher (over-read) which means the aircraft is actually closer to the ground.

26
Q

What are sources of actual QNH and how long is it valid for?

A

ATC, MET observer and ATIS/AWIS for 15 mins.

27
Q

Is a pilot allowed to conduct a radar SID without an assigned HDG or TRK?

A

No.

28
Q

Is manouevring within a GNSS approach sector permitted beyond the FAF or below the MSA?

A

No.

29
Q

Are you allowed to hold or conduct an orbit if cleared a GNSS approach in CTA?

A

No.

30
Q

What does a steady green light mean?

A

Flight: Authorised to land.

Ground: Authorised to take-off.

31
Q

What does a steady red light mean?

A

Flight: Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Ground: Stop moving.

32
Q

What does a flashing green light mean?

A

Flight: Return for landing.

Ground: Authorised to taxi.

33
Q

What does a red flashing light mean?

A

Flight: Do not land.

Ground: Taxi clear of landing area.

34
Q

What does a white flashing light mean?

A

Ground: Return to starting point.