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DΔΥ 3 Gεnεral Εnginεεring > Engineering Management and Process Safety > Flashcards

Engineering Management and Process Safety Flashcards

1
Q

Management is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

A

A. An art

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2
Q

Engineering is:
A. An art
B. Both science and art
C. A science
D. Neither art nor science

A

C. A science

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3
Q

Engineers can become good managers only through
A. Experience
B. Taking master degree in management
C. Effective career planning
D. Trainings

A

C. Effective career planning

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4
Q

If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A. Learning to trust others
B. Learning how to work through others
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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6
Q

What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

A

A. Planning

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7
Q

What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing

A

D. Organizing

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8
Q

What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
A. Organizing
B. Staffing
C. Motivating
D. Controlling

A

B. Staffing

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9
Q

What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?
A. Directing
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

A

A. Directing

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10
Q

Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Controlling
D. Staffing

A

C. Controlling

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11
Q

What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
A. Staffing
B. Motivating
C. Controlling
D. Leading

A

D. Leading

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12
Q

What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A. Directing
B. Motivating
C. Staffing
D. Controlling

A

B. Motivating

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13
Q

What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A. Project Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Management
D. Planning

A

A. Project Management

PMTT Project Management Tolls and Techniques

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14
Q

Which is NOT an element of project management process?
A. Data and information
B. Research and development
C. Decision making
D. Implementation and action

A

B. Research and development

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15
Q

What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A. Leadership
B. Charisma
C. Communication skill
D. Knowledge

A

A. Leadership

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16
Q

In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development?
A. R & D model
B. Project feasibility
C. Life cycle model
D. All of the above

A

C. Life cycle model

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17
Q

What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
A. Morris model
B. Waterfall model
C. Incremental release model
D. Prototype model

A

B. Waterfall model

true ans: C. Incremental release model

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18
Q

In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A. Retail Distribution
B. Research and Development
C. Repair and Develop
D. Reduce and Deduce

A

B. Research and Development

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19
Q

In project management O & M stands for:
A. Operation and Manpower
B. Operation and Maintenance
C. Operation and Management
D. Operation and Mission

A

B. Operation and Maintenance

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20
Q

A project management must be very good in which of the following skills?
A. Communication skills
B. Human relationship skills
C. Leadership skills
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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21
Q

Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Quality planning

A

D. Quality planning

PIQP project integration quality planning

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22
Q

Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A. Quality planning
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Quality feature

A

D. Quality feature

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23
Q

What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making?
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems
B. Management Information System
C. Central Processing System
D. Data Management System

A

B. Management Information System

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24
Q

Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
A. Intermediate planning
B. Strategic planning
C. Operational planning
D. Direct planning

A

A. Intermediate planning

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25
Q

Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
A. Lower management level
B. Middle management level
C. Top management level
D. Lowest management level

A

C. Top management level

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26
Q

What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk
B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision-making
D. All of the above

A

A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk

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27
Q

If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
A. Set goals
B. Determine the resources needed
C. Set a standard
D. Develop strategies and tactics

A

A. Set goals

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28
Q

What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and effectively?
A. General Management
B. Engineering Management
C. Production Management
D. Operations Management

A

D. Operations Management

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29
Q

For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good
A. Interpersonal skills
B. Communication skills
C. Leadership
D. Decision-making skills

A

A. Interpersonal skills

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30
Q

What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda?
A. Technical opinion conflict
B. Politics
C. Ambiguous roles
D. Managerial procedure conflict

A

B. Politics

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31
Q

The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
A. Division of labor
B. Segmentation
C. Departmentalization
D. Territorialization

A

C. Departmentalization

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32
Q

By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes
A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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33
Q

What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only?
A. Interim committee
B. Temporary committee
C. Standing committee
D. Ad hoc committee

A

D. Ad hoc committee

ATS Ad hoc Short Term

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34
Q

What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ability to manage
D. Decision-making ability

A

B. Effectiveness

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35
Q

An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be ______ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Reliable
D. Qualified

A

B. Effective

Effective - finished job at required period

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36
Q

If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be more
A. Managerial skill
B. Economical
C. Effective
D. Efficient

A

D. Efficient

ELISO Efficient Less Input Same Output

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37
Q

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
A. Interest test
B. Aptitude test
C. Performance test
D. Personality test

A

C. Performance test

performance test - measure of applicant’s current knowledge of a subject

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38
Q

What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in particular subject?
A. On-the-job training
B. Vestibule school
C. Apprenticeship program
D. In-basket

A

C. Apprenticeship program

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39
Q

What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

A

D. Functional authority

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40
Q

When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
A. Top authority
B. Line authority
C. Staff authority
D. Functional authority

A

C. Staff authority

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41
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

A

A. Division of labor

division of labor - scope of words
departmentation - major organizational subunits

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42
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
A. Division of labor
B. Delegation of authority
C. Departmentation
D. Span of control

A

C. Departmentation

division of labor - scope of words
departmentation - major organizational subunits

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43
Q

Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?
A. Comparison technique
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Rational technique
D. Analytical technique

A

B. Intuition and subjective judgment

qualitative - intuition and subjective judgment
quantitative - rational and analytical techniques

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44
Q

Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?
A. Rational and analytical techniques
B. Intuition and subjective judgment
C. Comparison in number technique
D. Cost analysis

A

A. Rational and analytical techniques

qualitative - intuition and subjective judgment
quantitative - rational and analytical techniques

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45
Q

What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services and markets?
A. Corporate mission
B. Corporate vision
C. Corporate character
D. Corporate identity

A

A. Corporate mission

corporate mission - philosophy of management, etc.

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46
Q

What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives?
A. Power
B. Leadership
C. Teamwork
D. Charisma

A

B. Leadership

LISO - Leadership is Influencing and Supporting Others

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47
Q

What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service?
A. Queuing theory
B. Network model
C. Sampling theory
D. Simulation

A

A. Queuing theory

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48
Q

What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Decision theory
D. Simulation

A

C. Decision theory

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49
Q

What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?
A. Sampling theory
B. Linear programming
C. Statistical decision theory
D. Simulation

A

A. Sampling theory

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50
Q

The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
A. Physiological need
B. Security need
C. Esteem need
D. Self-actualization need

A

A. Physiological need

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51
Q

What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
A. Training
B. Development
C. Vestibule
D. Specialized courses

A

A. Training

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52
Q

What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique
C. Modular technique
D. Non- modular technique

A

A. Benchmark job technique

benchmark job many repititions

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53
Q

What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

A

A. Functional organization

functional organization - special in a specific functional area
product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit
matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible

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54
Q

What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

A

D. Product organization

functional organization - special in a specific functional area
product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit
matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

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55
Q

What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

A

B. Matrix organization

functional organization - special in a specific functional area
product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit
matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

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56
Q

In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization

A

B. Matrix organization

functional organization - special in a specific functional area
product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit
matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss, project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

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57
Q

Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
A. Rapid reaction organization
B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. State-of-the-art technology
D. Better utilization of resources

A

A. Rapid reaction organization

MRR Matrix Rapid Reaction

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58
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
A. Dual accountability of personnel
B. Conflicts between project and functional managers
C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
D. Inefficient use of specialist

A

D. Inefficient use of specialist

matrix disadvantage inefficient use

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59
Q

Which one is an advantage projectized organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Good project schedule and cost control
C. Single point for customer contact
D. Rapid reaction time possible

A

A. Efficient use of technical personnel

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60
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
A. Uncertain technical direction
B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments
D. Slower work flow

A

D. Slower work flow

projectized disadvantage slower work flow

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61
Q

Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Rapid reaction time possible
C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel
D. Good technology transfer between projects

A

B. Rapid reaction time possible

FORR Functional Organization Rapid Reaction

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62
Q

Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization?
A. Weak customer interface
B. Weak project authority
C. Inefficient use of specialist
D. Slower work flow

A

C. Inefficient use of specialist

FDIU Functional Disadvantage Inefficient Use

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63
Q

In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Project coordinated organization

A

B. Matrix organization

functional organization - special in a specific functional area
product organization - project assigned to a single organization unit
matrix organization - balancing the use of human resources and skills, dual boss
matrix organization - project manager is responsible for completion and budgest

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64
Q

In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
C. Location
D. Technology

A

C. Location

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65
Q

What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects

A

C. Location of the project

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66
Q

If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his to reach a compromise solution.
A. Leadership
B. Tradeoff analysis skill
C. Authority
D. Decision-making skill

A

B. Tradeoff analysis skill

multidimensional - tradeoff

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67
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor

A

B. Project manager

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68
Q

Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager

A

C. Functional manager

FMRD Functional Manager Running a Department

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69
Q

What is the major activity of the project support office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via the internet

A

A. Administrative support for projects

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70
Q

What is the major activity of the project office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via internet

A

C. Overall project management support

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71
Q

What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Life cycle model
D. Project design chart

A

A. Linear responsibility chart

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72
Q

What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Responsibility interface matrix
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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73
Q

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

A

B. Critical path method

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74
Q

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation

A

C. Program evaluation review technique

three time estimate program evaluation

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75
Q

For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?
A. Critical plan method
B. Critical path method
C. Critical project method
D. Coordinated plan method

A

B. Critical path method

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76
Q

For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?
A. Project evaluation review technique
B. Program evaluation review technique
C. Path evaluation review technique
D. Program execution review technique

A

B. Program evaluation review technique

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77
Q

What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?
A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project.
B. They illustrate the inter-dependencies of all tasks
C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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78
Q

The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960

A

A. 1957

1957 - CPM developed
1958 - PERT developed

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79
Q

In what year was PERT developed?
A. 1957
B. 1958
C. 1959
D. 1960

A

B. 1958

1957 - CPM developed
1958 - PERT developed

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80
Q

In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A

B. 4

Morris 4

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81
Q

What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?
A. Planning and design
B. Feasibility
C. Production
D. Turnover and startup

A

B. Feasibility

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82
Q

Risk management is:
A. Risk avoidance
B. Controlling risk
C. To gain opportunities
D. All of the above

A

B. Controlling risk

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83
Q

What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule
B. Use a different technology
C. Use a different supplier
D. Buying insurance

A

A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule

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84
Q

Buying insurance is a form of:
A. Risk elimination
B. Risk reduction
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk absorption

A

C. Risk sharing

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85
Q

What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
A. Reliability management
B. Risk management
C. Quality assurance management
D. Project assurance management

A

B. Risk management

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86
Q

What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
A. Risk management
B. Risk-benefit analysis
C. Benefit management
D. Uncertainty analysis

A

B. Risk-benefit analysis

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87
Q

What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager?
A. Responsibility
B. Leadership
C. Authority
D. Tradeoff skill

A

C. Authority

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88
Q

What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Program
D. Plan

A

B. Strategy

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89
Q

When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge:
A. Lacks leadership skill
B. Has inadequate control
C. Has poor organization
D. Has no proper planning

A

B. Has inadequate control

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90
Q

What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand?
A. Statistical confidence
B. Tolerance
C. Incompleteness of the data
D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem

A

B. Tolerance

tolerance - measure of relavance of available information

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91
Q

One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for?
A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

A

Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication

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92
Q

In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask?
A. What do we need to get it done?
B. What are we aiming to do?
C. How are we going to do it?
D. What is the operation environment?

A

A. What do we need to get it done?

Administration - need to be done

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93
Q

In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
C. Identify a need for a product or service
D. Develop a technological concept

A

C. Identify a need for a product or service

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94
Q

In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?
A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance
B. Develop a budget
C. Develop a schedule
D. Develop the technological concept

A

A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance

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95
Q

What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
A. Select appropriate performance measures
B. Implement a plan
C. Monitor and control the project
D. Evaluate project success

A

C. Monitor and control the project

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96
Q

To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take ____ times longer to complete than expected”.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Two
D. Two and a half

A

A. Three

careless project - three times longer

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97
Q

In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the
A. Finance manager
B. Manufacturing manager
C. General manager
D. Marketing manager

A

C. General manager

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98
Q

What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?
A. Organization chart
B. Authority chart
C. Policy chart
D. Control chart

A

A. Organization chart

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99
Q

What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
A. Sampling theory
B. Alternative-analysis
C. Problem-solving
D. Decision-making

A

D. Decision-making

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100
Q

What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money?
A. Engineering management
B. Engineering technology
C. Technical manger
D. General management

A

A. Engineering management

101
Q

Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

A

A. Management

102
Q

Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials
C. Engineering Organization
D. Engineering Club

A

A. Engineering Management

103
Q

The following are considered as functions of an engineer except
A. Testing
B. Construction
C. Sales
D. Physical Education

A

D. Physical Education

104
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

A

A. Research

105
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term.
A. Research
B. Manufacturing
C. Testing
D. Design and Development

A

D. Design and Development

106
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

A

C. Testing

107
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.
A. Research
B. Design and Development
C. Testing
D. Manufacturing

A

D. Manufacturing

108
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

A

A. Construction

109
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.
A. Construction
B. Government
C. Consulting
D. Sales

A

D. Sales

SEA Sales = Engineer Assists

110
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Consulting
D. Government

A

C. Consulting

111
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private.
A. Construction
B. Sales
C. Government
D. Consulting

A

C. Government

112
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

A

A. Teaching

113
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks.
A. Teaching
B. Government
C. Management
D. Consulting

A

C. Management

114
Q

Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Decision Making
B. Engineering Management
C. Initiative
D. Problem solving

A

A. Decision Making

115
Q

The first step in Decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Diagnose problem
C. Make a choice
D. Articulate problem or opportunity

A

B. Diagnose problem

116
Q

The last step in decision making process is to
A. Analyze environment
B. Make a choice
C. Diagnose problem
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

A

D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

117
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

A

B. Qualitative evaluation

118
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical.
A. Quantitative evaluation
B. Qualitative evaluation
C. Relative evaluation
D. Subjective evaluation

A

A. Quantitative evaluation

119
Q

Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Supervision

A

B. Planning

120
Q

Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

C. Strategic planning

121
Q

The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

C. Strategic planning

122
Q

Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

B. Intermediate Planning

123
Q

This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

B. Intermediate Planning

124
Q

Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

A. Operational Planning

125
Q

This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Secondary Planning

A

A. Operational Planning

lower management - operational planning
middle management - intermediate planning
top management - strategic planning

126
Q

This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

A

A. Marketing Plan

127
Q

This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

A

C. Production Plan

128
Q

It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Short-range plans

A

B. Financial Plan

129
Q

It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
A. Marketing Plan
B. Financial Plan
C. Production Plan
D. Human Resource Management Plan

A

D. Human Resource Management Plan

130
Q

These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

A

A. Short-range plans

131
Q

These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

A

B. Long-range plans

132
Q

Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

A

C. Standing Plans

SPAA standing plans - again and again

133
Q

These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

A

A. Policies

134
Q

These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

A

B. Procedures

ESAP exact series of actions - procedures

135
Q

These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
A. Policies
B. Procedures
C. Guidelines
D. Rules

A

D. Rules

RRF Rules Require or Forbid

136
Q

Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated.
A. Short-range plans
B. Long-range plans
C. Standing Plans
D. Single-Use Plans

A

D. Single-Use Plans

137
Q

A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

A

B. Budget

138
Q

A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

A

C. Program

139
Q

A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program.
A. Project
B. Budget
C. Program
D. Financial Statement

A

A. Project

140
Q

A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

A

A. Organizing

141
Q

The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
A. Organizing
B. Planning
C. Supervising
D. Structure

A

D. Structure

142
Q

This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

A

A. Functional Organization

143
Q

This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

A

A. Functional Organization

144
Q

This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

A

B. Product or Market Organization

145
Q

This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

A

B. Product or Market Organization

146
Q

An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager.
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization
D. Divisible Organization

A

C. Matrix Organization

147
Q

Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A

A. Line authority

148
Q

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A

B. Staff authority

149
Q

A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.
A. Line authority
B. Staff authority
C. Functional authority
D. Head authority

A

C. Functional authority

150
Q

A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

A

A. Ad hoc committee

151
Q

A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
A. Ad hoc committee
B. Standing committee
C. Sinking committee
D. Midget committee

A

B. Standing committee

152
Q

Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
A. Resourcing
B. Recruitment
C. Hiring
D. Staffing

A

D. Staffing

153
Q

An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

A

A. Forecasting

154
Q

Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.
A. Forecasting
B. Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

A

C. Programming

programming - translation to personnal objectives and goals

155
Q

This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

A

B. Evaluation and Control

156
Q

Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Programming
D. Recruitment

A

D. Recruitment

157
Q

Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job.
A. Forecasting
B. Evaluation and Control
C. Selection
D. Training

A

C. Selection

158
Q

In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

A

B. Induction and Orientation

159
Q

Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.
A. Performance Appraisal
B. Induction and Orientation
C. Training and Development
D. Monetary Rewards

A

C. Training and Development

160
Q

Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

A

B. Promotion

161
Q

The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization.
A. Monetary reward
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

A

D. Transfer

162
Q

The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position.
A. Separation
B. Promotion
C. Demotion
D. Transfer

A

C. Demotion

163
Q

Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
A. Separation
B. Transfer
C. Termination
D. Demotion

A

A. Separation

164
Q

A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.
A. Counseling
B. Communication
C. Hypnotism
D. Language

A

B. Communication

165
Q

Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

A

A. Information Function

166
Q

A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

A

C. Motivation Function

167
Q

Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.
A. Information Function
B. Emotive Function
C. Motivation Function
D. Control Function

A

B. Emotive Function

168
Q

A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

A

A. Verbal

169
Q

A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.
A. Verbal
B. Oral
C. Written
D. Nonverbal

A

D. Nonverbal

verbal - hearing or sight
nonverbal - body language

170
Q

Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
A. Suppression
B. Motivation
C. Praising
D. Unification

A

B. Motivation

171
Q

The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
A. Willingness to do a job
B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
C. Needs satisfaction
D. Inferiority complex

A

D. Inferiority complex

172
Q

The following are considered theories of Motivation except:
A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
D. Gagarin’s Theory

A

D. Gagarin’s Theory

173
Q

It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.
A. Sales talk
B. Motivation
C. Leading
D. Commanding

A

C. Leading

174
Q

A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

A

A. Legitimate power

175
Q

When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

A

D. Reward power

176
Q

When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

A

C. Coercive power

coercive - threats or punishment

177
Q

When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former.
A. Legitimate power
B. Referent power
C. Coercive power
D. Reward power

A

B. Referent power

178
Q

Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:
A. A high level of personal drive
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology
C. Charisma
D. Greedy

A

D. Greedy

179
Q

Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.
A. Planning
B. Controlling
C. Evaluation
D. Inspection

A

D. Inspection

achieve objectives Inspection

180
Q

A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

A

A. Feed forward control

181
Q

A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

A

C. Concurrent control

182
Q

A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.
A. Feed forward control
B. Preventive control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

A

D. Feedback control

183
Q

Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
A. Operation
B. Production
C. Construction
D. Creation

A

A. Operation

184
Q

The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively.
A. Planning
B. Operations management
C. Evaluation management
D. Backboning

A

B. Operations management

185
Q

A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

A

A. Product Design

186
Q

Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
A. Product Design
B. Blueprinting
C. Product planning
D. Conceptualizing

A

C. Product planning

187
Q

The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes.
A. Plotting
B. Scheduling
C. Timetable
D. Anticipating

A

B. Scheduling

188
Q

Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.
A. Work
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

189
Q

The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

C. Inventory Control

“stocks of goods” - inventory control

190
Q

The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

A. Work-Flow Layout

191
Q

Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
A. Work-Flow Layout
B. Quality Control
C. Inventory Control
D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

B. Quality Control

192
Q

A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
A. Advertisement
B. Commercial
C. Marketing
D. Sales

A

C. Marketing

193
Q

The four P’s of marketing are the following except:
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Publicity

A

D. Publicity

194
Q

It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

A

A. Product

195
Q

Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

A

B. Price

196
Q

An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

A

D. Place

197
Q

Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place

A

C. Promotion

198
Q

A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

A

A. Advertising

199
Q

The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

A

B. Publicity

200
Q

A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling

A

D. Personal selling

201
Q

Which of the following is not a measure of effectiveness safety program?

  • OSHA incident rate
  • Fatal Accident Rate (FAR)
  • Fatality rate
  • HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study)
A

HAZOP (Hazard and Operability Study)

202
Q

How toxicants enters into organisms?

  • Injection
  • Inhalation
  • All of the above
  • Ingestion
A

All of the above

203
Q

Lowest value on response vs dose curve is called

  • Threshold limit value
  • Average response
  • Highest response
  • Relative toxicity
A

Threshold limit value

204
Q

Identification, evaluation and control are the phases of

  • Safety program
  • Industrial hygiene
  • Material handling
  • None of the above
A

Industrial hygiene

205
Q

Fire is rapid __________ of ignited fuel

  • Exothermic oxidation
  • Exothermic reduction
  • Endothermic reduction
  • Endothermic oxidation
A

Exothermic oxidation

206
Q

_____________ is a rapid increase in volume and release of energy in an extreme manner, usually with the generation of high temperatures and the release of gases.

  • Fire
  • Flammability
  • Explosion
  • Toxicity
A

Explosion

207
Q

_____________ is the lowest temperature that the vapors of a material will ignite when exposed to an ignition source.

  • Flash point
  • Fire point
  • Autoignition temperature
  • Inerting
A

Fire point

208
Q

An explosion occurring within vessel or a building

  • Confined explosion
  • Unconfined explosion
  • BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion)
  • None of the above
A

Confined explosion

209
Q

Which of the following causes of overpressure?

  • Ambient heat
  • Valve failures
  • All of the above
  • None of the above
A

Both A and B

210
Q

For material handling which is wrong statement?

  • Indoor storage facilities for flammable liquids should have ventilation
  • Flammable liquids should be stored in retaining embankments so they cannot spread uncontrollably
  • Corrosive substances should not be stored above eye level
  • Environmental risk assessments should not be available.
A

Environmental risk assessments should not be available.

211
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the workers are provided with safe working environment?

  • HAZAN (Hazard Analysis)
  • HAZOP
  • PICHE
  • OSHA
A

OSHA

212
Q

Hazard evaluation consist of the elements

  • Safety review/audit/inspection
  • HAZAN
  • HAZOP
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

213
Q

PHA stands for

  • Process hazard analysis
  • Public housing authority
  • Public health association
  • Personal health assessment
A

Process hazard analysis

214
Q

Which of the following is not Guide word of HAZOP?

  • NO
  • LESS
  • MORE
  • AND
A

AND

215
Q

HAZAN study involves

  • Estimate how often an incident will occur
  • Steps can be taken to either eliminate risk or reduce risk to an acceptable level
  • It is centered around the hazard analysis and functional based safety process
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

216
Q

Process of adding inert gas to combustible mixture to reduce concentration of oxygen below limiting oxygen concentration (LOC).

  • Fire point
  • Flash point
  • Inerting
  • toxicity
A

Inerting

217
Q

Vessels can be pressure-purged by adding inert gas

  • Under atmospheric pressure
  • Atmospheric pressure
  • Above atmospheric pressure
  • At high temperature
A

Under atmospheric pressure

218
Q

The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.

  • Hazard identification
  • Exposure assessment
  • Toxicity assessment
  • Risk characterization
A

Hazard identification

219
Q

Hazard is defined as the probability of

  • Suffering harm or loss
  • Accident
  • Development
  • Fire
A

Suffering harm or loss

220
Q

________________ occurs when a tank containing a liquid held above its atmospheric pressure boiling point ruptures, resulting in the explosive vaporization of a large fraction of the tank contents.

  • boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion
  • Vapor cloud explosions
  • Missile damage
  • Blast damage to people
A

boiling-liquid expanding-vapor explosion

221
Q

For _______________ the reaction front propagates at a peed less than the speed of sound.

  • Deflagration
  • Detonation
  • Confined explosions
  • Unconfined explosions
A

Deflagration

222
Q

The MIE depends on the

  • Specific chemical or mixture
  • The concentration
  • Pressure and temperature
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

223
Q

An explosion resulting from the sudden failure of a vessel containing high-pressure nonreactive gas

  • Deflagration
  • Mechanical explosion
  • Flammability limits
  • Firepoint
A

Mechanical explosion

224
Q

The essential elements for _______________ are fuel, an oxidizer and an ignition source.

  • Fire triangle
  • Explosion
  • Flammability limits
  • Toxicity
A

Fire triangle

225
Q

What is toxicity equivalence factor?

  • Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference
  • Ratio of the toxicity of a containment to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference
  • Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another chemical pollutant chosen as a reference
  • Ratio of toxicity of a chemical to that of source
A

Ratio of the toxicity of a chemical to that of another structurally related chemical (or index compound) chosen as a reference

toxicity equivalence - ratio of chemical to another structurally related

226
Q

OSHA ensures that employees have been provide with

  • Job
  • PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)
  • Insurance
  • Security
A

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)

227
Q

ED stands for

  • Effective dose
  • Toxic dose
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Lethal dose
A

Effective dose

228
Q

Eco-toxicology is based on ____________ of chemicals

  • Chemical
  • Physical
  • Toxicological
  • Biological
A

Toxicological

229
Q

During the ______________ phase, the various types of existing control measures and their effectiveness are also studied.

  • Identification
  • Evaluation
  • Control
  • Hygiene
A

Evaluation

230
Q

The unit-specific technical requirements are designed to

  • Prevent the release of HW
  • Chemical analysis
  • Pathway analysis
  • Evaluation of long term impact
A

Prevent the release of HW

231
Q

What are the steps involved in evaluation of toxicity?

  • Hazard identification and dose-response evaluation
  • Chemical analysis
  • Pathway analysis
  • Evaluation of long term impact
A

Hazard identification and dose-response

232
Q

_________________ establishes the relationship between the contaminants of concern and the receptor.

  • Hazard identification
  • Toxicity assessment
  • Risk characterization
  • Exposure assessment
A

Toxicity assessment

toxicity assessment contaminants and receptor

233
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?

  • Toxicity
  • Corrosivity
  • Ignitibility
  • Leakage
A

Leakage

234
Q

Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as

  • Acute toxicity
  • Chronic toxicity
  • Moderate toxicity
  • none
A

Chronic toxicity

235
Q

Which of the following chemical is responsible for acute lung disease from Bhopal gas tragedy?

  • Methylisocyanate
  • Methylisocyanade
  • Methyl
  • methylcyanate
A

Methylisocyanate

236
Q

Heavy metals like arsenic, cadmium and cyanide effects

  • Immune system
  • Nervous system
  • Skin
  • Respiratory system
A

Nervous system

237
Q

___________ represents a contact between a chemical agent and an object.

  • Dose
  • Response
  • Exposure
  • concentration
A

Exposure

238
Q

Under the OSH Act, employers are responsible for providing a

  • Safe workplace
  • Land
  • Insurance
  • Estimation
A

Safe workplace

239
Q

OSHA was created to

  • Data analysis
  • Reduce hazards
  • Ecological development
  • EIA analysis
A

Reduce hazards

240
Q

How is sensitivity analysed in risk estimation?

  • By critical assumptions
  • Chemical assessment
  • Character assessment
  • Personal measurement
A

By critical assumptions

241
Q

An incident can be called hazardous only when?

  • stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
  • Poses threat to surrounding
  • Monitoring is failed
  • Outburst of chemicals
A

stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems

242
Q

The purpose of ventilation is to dilute the _________ with air to prevent explosion and to confine the ______ mixtures.

  • Toxic vapors; flammable
  • Hazardous flammable; explosive vapors
  • Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable
  • Flammable; toxic vapors
A

Explosive vapors; hazardous flammable

243
Q

Each chemical family should be separated from all other chemical families by an approved non-combustible partition or by distance of _________ ft

  • Ten
  • Twenty
  • Thirty
  • Forty
A

Twenty

chemical families 20 ft distance

244
Q

While storing of chemicals in store rooms the care must be taken for the leaks, spills and

  • Weeps
  • Holes
  • Drips
  • None of the above
A

Drips

LSD leaks spills drips

245
Q

Prevent chemicals from running down sink, flow or

  • Storm water drains
  • Holes
  • Channels
  • None of the above
A

Storm water drains

246
Q

An inerting system is required to maintain an inert atmosphere in the __________ above the liquid

  • Vacuum space
  • Confined space
  • Vapour space
  • None of the above
A

Vapour space

247
Q

Vacuum purging is a common procedure for which of the following

  • Storage vessels
  • Crystallizers
  • Distillation columns
  • Reactors
A

Reactors

248
Q

Probability of the event that might occur X severity of the event if it occurs =

  • Accident
  • Hazard
  • Risk
  • None of the above
A

Risk

249
Q

Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of

  • Work area, material, machine, tools
  • Men, machine, work area, tools
  • Men, machine, work area, tools
  • Men, work area, material, tools
A

Work area, material, machine, tools

DΔΥ 3 Gεnεral Εnginεεring (13 decks)

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