Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Engineer Promotion Process > Engineer Specific > Flashcards

Engineer Specific Flashcards

1
Q

There must be at least how much water over the strainer?

A

24”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when backing an apparatus, sound how many blasts immediately beforehand?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of 36,000 lbs or greater be equipped with?

A

auxiliary braking system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do palms face spotter using both arms?

A

when backing straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Boundaries between wildland and structural development are called?

A

wildland urban interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if you have to drive into smoke area where crews operate, you must?

A

sound horn, use warning lights, drive slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Water tender must carry how many gallons?

A

1,000 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Law of inertia states that?

A

an object in motion, stays in motion. Objects at rest, stays at rest, unless acted upon by an outside force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What speeds do emergency vehicles out run audible devices?

A

50 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which NFPA requires water tenders to be filled at a rate of at least 1,000 gallons?

A

1901

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What caused green lights for fire apparatus in direction of travel and reds for others?

A

preemption devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Any wildland fire attack should begin being positioned in an

A

anchor point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Any apparatus with less than _____ must have a tank fill line of at least 1 inch

A

1,000 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the advantage of a brush truck?

A

pump and roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Average brush trucks carries how much water?

A

500 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Road test are performed with?

A

fully loaded truck at service weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Float strainers have a minimum depth of?

A

1 foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Float pumps are capable of producing?

A

500 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The height that a column of water that may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum at sea level is called?

A

theoretical lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many feet is a theoretical lift for a column of water?

A

33.9 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In theoretical lift, as the elevation increases, the height will?

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Max lift in a fire truck?

A

25 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are common types of skidding?

A

acceleration & locked wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies that the minimum pump capacity for pump design is?

A

750 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Portable generators are designed to provide power at?

A

5,000 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The section of the pump that gradually increases in cross sectional area as it nears the discharge outlet of the pump is the?

A

Volute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When a pumper is connected to a hydrant, and 1” line is opened, the residual pressure will drop 20%. this indicates the hydrant should be able to supply?

A

one additional set up at the same size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When using a centrifugal pump to supply hose line and nozzle is shut off quickly, the pressure travels back to?

A

Water main

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If the speed of the stream of water is increased beyond limits, and friction loss becomes so great that the stream is agitated by resistance, this is known as?

A

Critical Velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Master stream flows at?

A

350 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Back pressure is also known as?

A

Head pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What flow test is done when an apparatus is equipped with onboard water tank?

A

Tank to pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pump cert tests performed by?

A

independent testing organizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If pump fails to reach _____ inch of mercury, remove the apparatus from service.

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What braking systems are most commercial and private vehicles (built since 1990) equipped with?

A

anti-lock brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which brake is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices?

A

Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pump ratings NFPA 1901: percentage rated capacity at 150 psi, 200 psi, & 252 psi?

A

100%, 70%, 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Volunteer FD should inspect/maintain trucks at least?

A

weekly/biweekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fire apparatus with pump rated capacity less than 750 gpm are required to undergo same cert test as pumps over 750 gpm with exception of?

A

pumping engine overload test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hydrostatic test performed to ensure that the pump can with stand high pressure pumping demands: _____ psi for minimum of _____ minutes.

A

500/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pumping test checks overall conditions of

A

engine and pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pitot tube used to find flow pressure at?

A

discharge opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Air horn stops working at?

A

drops below 80 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rescue vehicles commonly have generators with capacity up to?

A

50,000 Watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What improves traction and handling by locking the differential during off road/wet conditions?

A

driver controlled differential lock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What occurs when throttle is applied in manual transmission in too high a gear for the demand of the engine?

A

Lugging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why should a small line be left discharging when running a drafting operation?

A

if no water is discharged, the smallest air leak may result in a loss of vacuum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A _____ is also called a throttle knob

A

Vernier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Air exhaust and vacuum are different types of?

A

Primers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What may use jet siphoning devices to transfer water from one tank to another?

A

portable tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What pump must be primed before operation?

A

Centrifugal pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A term for apparatus that is empty with no tools or gear?

A

Curb weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening when water is flowing?

A

Flow pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a gauge that indicates amount of electrical current being drawn?

A

Ammeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which pilot valve is the most common type of pressure relief valve?

A

Spring controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

NFPA requires fire apparatus have a water tank capacity of at least?

A

300 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Operating from negative pressure can increase the possibility of what happening to fire pump?

A

Cavitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a device used for measuring existing voltage in an electrical system?

A

Voltmeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Fog nozzle pressure is?

A

100 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When sprinkler system is being charged, how many pounds of pressure should be maintained on discharge gauge?

A

150 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In the same size hose, FL varies approximately inversely as the?

A

square of the velocity of flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Max theoretical height possible to lift water by suction at sea level is?

A

33.9 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

According to NFPA 1901, mobile water supply apparatus must carry at least?

A

1,000 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

NFPA 1901 states that piping should be sized so pumpers with a capacity of 500 gpm or less are capable of flowing ______ from booster tank

A

250 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

steering wheel play should be no more than _____ degrees in either direction.

A

10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

DPF need to be regenerated or vehicle may not operate properly. Regen requires exhaust temps to be?

A

Elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Engine lugging happens when?

A

manual transmission shifting in too low a gear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When driver controlled differential locks are on, it may feel like its driving?

A

Straight in a turn, and tires may scrub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

4 practical driving exercises

A

alley dock
diminishing clearance
serpentine
confined space turn around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When should an engine speed check be conducted?

A

under no load and after all fluids are with in recommendations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where should you place engines on hazmats?

A

Upwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Larger/modern fire pumpers are equipped with what brakes?

A

Air brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

ABS brakes don’t necessarily provide faster stopping, but enhances?

A

controlled stops and reduces skidding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Water tenders are designed to be filled at?

A

1,000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

On 20 inch diameter steering wheel, there should be how many inches of play?

A

2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pre plumbed aerial ladder is an?

A

elevated master stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Master stream fog nozzle operate at what psi?

A

100 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Fill tenders with open ended ______?

A

Butt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Multiple tank fill operates at?

A

300 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How to figure out how much more water a hydrant can supply?

A

1st digit percent squared method (difference between static and residual pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Intake hose connected on shore and length of pipe extended into water with strainer on end is a?

A

Dry hydrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What device turns lights on at specific intervals?

A

Load sequencer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When overload occurs, the monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment this is?

A

load shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What causes the clutch to not release completely, harsh shifting, and gear clashing/damage to teeth?

A

Excessive free play

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What device is used in the air brake system that connects between the activation pads and brake pads to compensate for pad wear?

A

Slack adjuster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What fluid do you check with truck on?

A

Transmission Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Weight transfer caused by movement of water flow is?

A

Law of inertia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Use the service brake & auxiliary brakes as well as manually shifting to lower gears to limit?

A

Speed when driving downhill (lower speed blow max RPM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the loss of braking function due to excessive use of brakes & speed?

A

Brake Fade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Most modern large FD apparatus have what braking system?

A

Air actuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Roll stability control (RBC) is integrated in ABS system. This includes a lateral accelerometer that senses?

A

When side force caused by concerning approaches the roll over threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

NFPA 1911 says to change tires every?

A

7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What component of load management system load sheds?

A

The load monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the purpose of DEF?

A

Cleaner emissions for diesel engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does the society of Auto Engineers number for engine oil indicate?

A

Viscosity of Oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which pumper should have largest capacity in relay operations?

A

Water supply pumper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When large quantities of foam for wildland/industrial fire is needed, method of storage should be?

A

Totes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Purpose for pre-performance testing?

A

Ensure pump/powertrain perform as specified under normal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When using static water source to conduct pump performance test, strainer should be _____ feet?

A

2 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

During brake test, how long for air pressure to build up?

A

60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Operations where strong hydrant is used to supply 2 pumpers, intake to intake is called?

A

Dual pumping, 2nd pumper receives excess water not being pumped by 1st pumper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is a short relay operation in which pumper taking water from supply pumps into intake of 2nd pumper?

A

Tandem pumping, 2nd pumper boots pressure of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Taking a bumper line, & looping back to your tank does what?

A

Method of cooling pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

NFPA 1901 states a side-to-side variance should not exceed?

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Class A foam application method is?

A

Direct application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What properties does water have?

A

Cooling
suppressing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

When connecting to a hydrant, stop short, or pull past in order to allow?

A

Hose to curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Accelerator pedal free play means?

A

Throw out bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Excessive free play can cause?

A

Damage to teeth
harsh shifting
gear clash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Electromagnetic braking is connected to?

A

Driveshaft or rear axle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

PTO pumps limit its pump capacity to?

A

500 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Hydrostatic pump up to?

A

1,000 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Gate or butterfly valves may be equipped with?

A

Hydraulic, pneumatic, or electric actuators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What must be open in order to remove air from system so water may enter pump from supply line change over without interruption of fire stream?

A

Bleeder line open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Positive placement primer is most common choice, but not as common as?

A

Electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Dependable lift is?

A

14.7 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Max lift is?

A

25 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

ow level strainers draft as low as?

A

1.2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

1,000 gpm pumper to supply FDC to every _____ sprinklers?

A

50 sprinklers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Mobile water supply apparatus must carry at least _____, and are limited to ____ or less for single rear axel.

A

1,000 gallons, 1,500 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Aerial apparatus must have minimum pump capacity of?

A

250 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Inverters produce how many watts?

A

1,500 watts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Water tenders fill at least 1,000 gpms & carry at least 1,000 gallons. Today, majority carry?

A

1,500 - 3,000 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How often are brakes tested?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Pumps tested hydrostatically at

A

250 psi for 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

NFPA 1901 requires all gauges to be calibrated with in how many days of service testing?

A

60 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

NFPA 1901 states pumpers with less than 500 gpm flow _____ from booster pumpers with 500 gpm or more flow?

A

250, 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Flowmeters provide water flow in?

A

GPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Break over angle is created from rear tires toughing ground to the bottom of frame at the?

A

Wheelbase midpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Electromagnetic torque provides greatest ____ braking system?

A

Auxiliary Braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Auxiliary engine driver pump may be part of _____ mount assembly, or mounted on _____ truck?

A

Skid, pick up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Max flow of handline is?

A

350 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

You should never proceed in the opposite direction of a onramp unless what?

A

The road is closed & blocked by police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

When loading hose in a forward motion what speed shoudl you never exceed?

A

5 MPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Hydrants pre-piped with a floating strainer are called

A

Dry Hydrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The 1st digit method or squaring the lines is used to

A

Calculate available water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

In a wild fire attack the position of the apparatus is what

A

The Ancor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Apparatus should maintain a clear zone of how far from railroad tracks

A

30 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Play in the steering wheel of more than what % is not allowed

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Most damage done to an apparatus is done when?

A

When backing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Before tilting the cab what should you do?

A

Make sure the overhead is clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Before you leave for an incident you should make sure of what?

A

That everyone is belted

143
Q

When does brake fad occur?

A

When the brakes overheat due to excessive use

144
Q

Any person working near a body of water are required to wear what?

A

PFD (Personal floatation device)

145
Q

What uses the GPS & the radio transmitter in the apparatus to preempt a signal at an intersection

A

GPS traffic signal preemption

146
Q

What works by a strobe light activating a sensor at the traffic light. It generates an optical signal turning the signal to green in the direction of travel

A

An emitter or traffic emitter

147
Q

What does ESC or electronic stability control do?

A

It applies the brake independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel

148
Q

Audio sirens out run the effective range its audible warning device at speeds above what?

A

50 MPH

149
Q

What area is between wild-land & rural area?

A

Wildland urban interface

150
Q

ABS systems don’t stop the vehicle faster but what do they do?

A

Greatly increase controlled stops

151
Q

Modern apparatus may be equipped with what type of braking system

A

Air-activated braking systems

152
Q

What is the lowest amount of water that floating strainers can draft from?

A

2 feet

153
Q

Older vehicles may be equipped with what type of braking system

A

Hydraulic braking system

154
Q

What uses an intake connection that goes into a natural source with a strainer on the end?

A

Dry hydrant

155
Q

Gears braking and hard shifting are a result from what

A

Excessive play

156
Q

In engines 2007 and newer with DPS it is crucial to do what?

A

check the exhaust connection and flex pipe

157
Q

When is the engine speed check done?

A

with no load

158
Q

Steering wheel sensors along with accelerometer are also equipped with what?

A

Stability control sensors

159
Q

If an operator finds damage what must he/she do first

A

Document

160
Q

A operator must get in the cab and start the engine to perform what test?

A

Function

161
Q

Weather permitting what test should be done outside

A

Function

162
Q

The vehicle weight with no water, tools, or passengers is what?

A

Curb weight

163
Q

What system are slack adjusters in?

A

Brake system

164
Q

Brush trucks are capable of what GPM with what gallon tanks?

A

500 gpm/500 gallon tanks

165
Q

Turning off appliances to prevent overload is known as?

A

load shedding

166
Q

What turns things on in intervals as to not do it all at once?

A

load sequencers

167
Q

why must a hard suction fill site be monitored?

A

if may become unsafe dangerous to and have to be relocated

168
Q

DEF is used to reduce what

A

Nitrogen oxide

169
Q

All tires on an apparatus must

A

match

170
Q

How often should tires be replaced on an apparatus

A

7 years

171
Q

Side to side weight cannot very more then what percent

A

7%

172
Q

What are some of the problems with homemade pumpers

A

they are top heavy

173
Q

when walking into relieve the current driver/operator you should ask what?

A

any incident & equipment out of service

174
Q

What uses a pick up tube, that uses a pressure differential from the water stream passing through the venturi?

A

Enductor

175
Q

If the operator on an aerial has the DCDL locked & hears tires scrubbing what should be done?

A

Not worry because it is normal

176
Q

Why does an engine pull past or short of the hydrant?

A

To allow the hose to curve

177
Q

A counter clockwise turn between the hydrant & the pumper does what?

A

keeps from forming kinks

178
Q

Direct application is a method of applying what type of foam?

A

Class A

179
Q

If the operator during backing feels unsafe what should he/she do?

A

Stop & apply the parking brake

180
Q

In the water shuttle operation what part of the operation are the nurse tender & portable tank?

A

The operations located at the dump site

181
Q

What is dual pumping?

A

One strong hydrant that supplies 2 pumpers

182
Q

2 short blast of the air-horn indicate what

A

Backing up

183
Q

What are the least desirable hydrants?

A

One located at a dead-end main

184
Q

Water tenders must be capable of a portable tank at what GPM

A

1,000 GPM

185
Q

If an apparatus does not reach adequate air pressure in the allotted time, it may be necessary to do what?

A

Add an electric air compressor

186
Q

SOPs, the officer, and the driver/operator will determine what on scene?

A

apparatus placement

187
Q

Brush trucks have the ability to do what

A

Pump and roll

188
Q

Engine lugging is caused by

A

The manual transmission being in to high of a gear

189
Q

What is the only fluid that you check with the engine running

A

transmission

190
Q

What mode do you set the attack pumper in?

A

Pressure mode

191
Q

When do most collisions occur?

A

At intersections

192
Q

Keep your eyes moving, always leave an out when doing what?

A

Emergent driving

193
Q

Who do complex repairs have to be done by?

A

Certified Mechanic

194
Q

If the spotters wants the driver to pull forward in the backing operation, the spotter must first do what?

A

Stop the driver

195
Q

While backing, the spotters palms should be facing which way?

A

Towards the spotter

196
Q

What is elevation pressure affected by?

A

Topography

197
Q

How do you solve engine lugging?

A

Get an automatic transmission

198
Q

What does SEA refer to?

A

Oil Viscosity

199
Q

Most vehicles after 1990 are equipped with what?

A

Anti-lock brakes

200
Q

What type of brakes do most apparatus have

A

Air actuated brakes

201
Q

During water shuttle operations the best layout is what?

A

Not always the closest

202
Q

During relay pumping what do you want to do?

A

Put the largest pumper at the water source

203
Q

Foam concentrate of 0.1% - 1.0% is for what type of foam?

A

Class A

204
Q

What is the protocol for staging when 1 or more apparatus are at the scene?

A

Level 1 Staging

205
Q

What is used for an efficient connection to a natural water source with a prepiped system?

A

Dry hydrant

206
Q

What type of pumping with the attack pumper uses short distances from the hydrant but a long distance from the scene?

A

Tandem pumping / Relay pumping

207
Q

Pumpers can be set in RPM mode & direct pumpers are set in?

A

Pressure mode

208
Q

Intake hose is common in 10 feet to ______ lengths?

A

100 feet

209
Q

What can result in the clutch not releasing completely causing harsh shifting, gear clashing, & damage to gear teeth?

A

Excessive free Play

210
Q

FD personnel, especially driver/operators may be involved in

A

Acceptance testing

211
Q

Freeplay is the distance that the pedal must be pushed before the ______ actually contacts the clutch release fingers?

A

Throw-out bearings

212
Q

NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service must be calibrated within _____ of testing

A

60 days

213
Q

Other than locked wheel skid, what other kinds of skid is common?

A

acceleration skid

214
Q

The _____ elevates the overall operation of the engine & fire pump

A

Pumping test

215
Q

You should avoid discharging foam concentration solutions or finished foam directly into

A

A body of water

216
Q

The U.S. bureau of land management conducted research that resulted in the development of this high energy foam

A

Class A

217
Q

Rescue vehicles commonly have generators with capacities up to _____

A

50,000 Watts

218
Q

NFPA 1901 brake test requires that a new fire apparatus be brought to a complete stop from a speed of 20 mph in a distance not to exceed _______

A

35 feet

219
Q

When driving through smoke what should be done besides sounding horn

A

Drive close to the crew

220
Q

Because total vacuum is not possible in field operations, fire apparatus must have a maximum lift of ______.

A

35 feet

221
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies that the minimum pump capacity for pump design is:

A

750 gpm

222
Q

when drafting, the maximum theoretical lift is:

A

33.9 feet

223
Q

According to NFPA 1901, a mobile water supply apparatus must carry at least

A

1,000 gallons

224
Q

Portable generators are designed to provide power with _____ watts of power being the largest

A

5,000

225
Q

dependable lift = ______ feet

A

14.7

226
Q

An apparatus with air brakes, NPFA requires the air pressure to build to a sufficient level to allow vehicle operations within _____ seconds of starting

A

60

227
Q

Elevating water devices typically range in height from ______ to _____ feet?

A

50-75

228
Q

When using 2 1/2 or 3 inch hose lines to supply the pumper directly off the hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than:

A

300 feet

229
Q

The water supply in a typical residential swimming pool:

A

May contain adequate water supply for a fire in a single family home

230
Q

Lift can be described as the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply & the:

A

Center of the pump intake

231
Q

In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately:

A

25 feet (7.5m)

232
Q

The driver/operator of the attack pumper should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure:

A

Does not drop below 20 psi (140 kPa)

233
Q

The driver/operator must consider that when a standpipe or hoseline is changed, there ______ until the nozzle is opened

A

is no flow through the system or hose layout

234
Q

What is the function of bleeder valves

A

Allow air to bleed off as incoming supply hose is charged

235
Q

What allows later arriving pumpers to tie into the relay and boost pressure and volume after it has already started flowing, without interrupting the water supply?

A

inline relay valves

236
Q

What is a likely cause if a driver/operator receives a message from an attack team that the volume of water at the nozzle has suddenly decreased without a corresponding change at the flowmeter?

A

a hoseline may have burst

237
Q

Low-level strainers are most commonly used to draft from:

A

portable water tanks

238
Q

When large diameter hose (LDH) is used in relay operations:

A

The LDH often requires only one supply line to meet fireground requirements

239
Q

What do some jurisdictions do to help avoid problems with silt and debris?

A

install dry hydrants at favorable drafting locations

240
Q

When providing flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus, floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as:

A

1 foot (300mm)

241
Q

When shutting down the relay, beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with other pumpers in the relay, each driver/operator should:

A

slowly decrease the throttle and open the dump line valve

242
Q

What is most likely to require specially threaded adapters or other tools to operate the sytem?

A

agricultural irrigation systems

243
Q

What is typically found on large commercial or industrial properties and contains many million gallons of water?

A

ground reservoirs

244
Q

All firefighters working in close proximity to bodies of water must wear personal floating devices and use safety lines:

A

regardless of assumed depth

245
Q

What directly affects the reach of the fog stream?

A

volume of water flowing

246
Q

nozzle reaction occurs as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure and:

A

A counterforce pushes back against operating the hoseline

247
Q

The difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is:

A

The friction caused by water flowing through the pipes, valves, and fittings

248
Q

A solid stream nozzle produces a fire stream that has a:

A

Tight stream and little spray or shower effect

249
Q

When a pumper is being supplied by another pumper, net pump discharge pressure is the difference between pump discharge pressure and:

A

Incoming pressure from supply source

250
Q

For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weight:

A

8.3 lb/gallon

251
Q

Why does the third principle of friction loss demonstrate the advantages of larger size hose?

A

for the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the 5th power of diameter of hose

252
Q

Which apparatus has the ability to supply its own master stream & may function with the capability of an engine or a ladder company?

A

Aerial apparatus equipped with a fire pump

253
Q

Which apparatus would be most beneficial in assisting municipal fire departments with large scale flammable liquid incidents?

A

Aircraft rescue & fire apparatus

254
Q

What type of lights range from 300 to 1,000 watts and is advantageous where illumination is needed away from the apparatus?

A

Portable lights

255
Q

The main purpose of fire department pumperss is to:

A

Provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams

256
Q

What equipment is powered by small gas/diesel engines, generally has 110/220 volt capacity, and is available with power capacities up to 5,000 watts?

A

portable generator

257
Q

Which equipment is powered by gasoline, diesel, power-take-off, or hydraulic system?

A

Vehicle-mounted generator

258
Q

According to NFPA 1901, mobile water supply apparatus must be equipped with a tank capacity of at least:

A

1,000 gallons (4,000L)

259
Q

Compared to full-size pumpers, initial attack fire apparatus have:

A

smaller chassis

260
Q

Which equipment converts a vehicle 12-/24-volt DC current 110-/220-volt AC current?

A

Inverter

261
Q

Which apparatus is most likely to have a pump and roll system that allows apparatus to be driver while discharging water?

A

wildland fire apparatus

262
Q

What equipment is most likely to be used when a small amount of power is needed near the vehicle?

A

Mini-generator

263
Q

Which type of apparatus is often divided into 3 categories:
major fire fighting vehicles
rapid intervention vehicles
combined agent vehicles

A

Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus

264
Q

What equipment is use to supply power to several connections from one supply source?

A

Junction boxes

265
Q

What apparatus is often designed with the pump panel and one or more preconnected hoseline housed in a compartment?

A

rescue apparatus equipped with fire pump

266
Q

Which of the following is a safety and efficiency requirement that should be met by mobile water supply?

A

suspension and steering matched to terrain requirements

267
Q

What is the function of mobile water supply apparatus?

A

Transport water to areas where water system is nonexistent or inadequate

268
Q

What term is often used to define pumping apparatus smaller than a full-size pumper?

A

Mini-pumper

269
Q

What apparatus are known as:
brush trucks
brush breakers
booster apparatus

A

Wildland fire apparatus

270
Q

What equipment is useful when remote power is needed away from the apparatus?

A

Portable generator

271
Q

According to NFPA 1901, fire department pumpers should have a water tank capacity of at least

A

300 gallons (1,200 liters)

272
Q

An apparatus that is equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders, is best referred to as a:

A

Quint

273
Q

Which type of light provides general lighting for the scene and is often mounted so that it may be raised, lowered, or turned to provide the best possible lighting?

A

Fixed lights

274
Q

In general, steering wheel play should be ore than approximately:

A

10 degrees in either direction

275
Q

Vehicles should not be driver over bridges unless the:

A

Weight of the apparatus is known to be within the capacity of the structure

276
Q

When the first apparatus arrives at an incident where no fire is evident, the driver/operator should:

A

Pull apparatus past the front of the building

277
Q

What is the preferred type of hose for making hydrant connections?

A

Large diameter intake hose

278
Q

What zone is considered safe and does not require personal protective equipment?

A

Cold Zone

279
Q

Once on the scene of a highway incident, the use of warning lights should be:

A

Reduced as Much as possible

280
Q

When referring to pump wear rings and packing, why must very close tolerance be maintained between pump casing and the hub of the impeller?

A

Any increase in opening lessens the effectiveness of the pump

281
Q

Before being placed into service, the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of:

A

500 psi (3,500 kPa)

282
Q

What displays engine speed in revolution per minute?

A

Tachometer

283
Q

What is typically driven through a gear box and a clutch connected by a drive shaft to the front of the crankshalf?

A

Front-Mount Pump

284
Q

Most manufacturers recommend that the centrifugal fire pump be drained:

A

Between Fire Calls

285
Q

Which pump design has the disadvantage of the driver/operator being more directly exposed to oncoming traffic than in other pump-mounting positions?

A

Read-Mount Pump

286
Q

Why is the rotary vane pump more efficient at pumping air than the rotary gear pump?

A

Salf-adjusting feature

287
Q

Which type of pump is most vulnerable to damage from exposure or a vhicle collision?

A

Front-Mount Pump

288
Q

Modern Versions of Quarter-Turn handles lock by:

A

Rotating the handle in a clockwise direction

289
Q

NFPA 1901 requires all components of piping system to be:

A

Made of Corrosion resistant Material

290
Q

According to NFPA 1901, pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm (2,000 L/min) should be able to flow:

A

At least 500 gpm (2,000 L/min)

291
Q

Which type of auxiliary cooling device works when water supplied by the fire pump passes through a coil or tubing mounted inside the cooler?

A

Immersion type auxiliary cooler

292
Q

In multistage centrifugal pumps, the impellers generally:

A

Are identical and have the same capacity

293
Q

Any significant deviation from normal oil pressure reading is most likely to indicate:

A

An equipment malfunction

294
Q

Which type of auxiliary cooling device is inserted into one of the hoses used in the engine cooling system so that engine coolant must travel through it as it circulated through the system?

A

Marine Cooler

295
Q

At intersections with a red light, apparatus should:

A

be brought to a complete stop before proceeding further

296
Q

In most FDs, it is standard operating procedure (SOP) for firefighters to don protective gear:

A

Before getting into apparatus

297
Q

What is the most common place for accidents to occur?

A

Intersections

298
Q

What staging protocol is most likely to be enacted when a large number of units are responding to an incident?

A

Level II Staging

299
Q

Which site would be given preference for a drafting location?

A

A location accessible from a hard surface

300
Q

What staging protocol is most likely to be applied to initial response of more than one fire department unit?

A

Level I staging

301
Q

Driver/operator should not attempt to cross streams with a vehicle unless:

A

It has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions that

302
Q

When should fire department identify suitable drafting site in their response district?

A

During pre-incident planning

303
Q

When positioning to support an aerial apparatus, pumpers providing water for elevated stream operations should position:

A

As closely to the aerial apparatus as possible

304
Q

When the apparatus is operated in a stationary position during a wildland fire attack, it should be placed in an area that:

A

Affords maximum protection from heat and flames

305
Q

How is the pumper position to supply a fire department connection best determined?

A

Through Pre-incident planning

306
Q

When might tandem pumping operations be needed?

A

When pressures higher than a single engine is capable of supplying are required

307
Q

In which zone are driver/operators most likely to stage their apparatus?

A

Cold Zone

308
Q

In the “inside/outside” method, when would an attack pumper be positioned on the side of the street closest to the building and the aerial apparatus be placed outside of the pumper?

A

If the building is less than 5 floors tall

309
Q

What may be needed when driving the vehicle in conditions of reduced visibility during a wildland fire attack?

A

Spotter walking ahead of the apparatus

310
Q

What location is generally considered the safest position should a structural collapse occur?

A

Corners of the Structure

311
Q

When positioning during wildland fire attack, the vehicle should be positioned facing the direction of an exit path with the:

A

Front Wheels Straight

312
Q

When responding to a hazardous materials incident, the driver/operator should:

A

Not drive the apparatus directly to the scene until the material involved can be identified

313
Q

When laying supply hose to the fire scene during a roadway response, lay the hose:

A

To the side of the street

314
Q

What should a driver/operator do when a piece of equipment onboard is found broken, defective, or in need of any type of repair?

A

Follow the established policy of the AHJ for documenting, reporting, and following up on status of repair

315
Q

When jump starting a vehicle, the vehicle being used as a power source must have the same voltage electrical system as the apparatus being jump-started in order to:

A

Prevent damage from occurring to either system

316
Q

Whenever an apparatus is parked:

A

Chock its wheels

317
Q

When checking vehicle batteries, driver/operators should check that cable connections are tight and protected with:

A

a film of grease, petroleum jelly, or battery terminal protection product

318
Q

What can cause a corrosive effect on steel body components?

A

Road salt used during inclement weather

319
Q

How often should apparatus brakes be thoroughly tested?

A

Annually

320
Q

What is an adverse effect to overcleaning a fire apparatus?

A

May remove lubrication from the chassis, engaging, pump, and underbody

321
Q

Fire pumps are tested at regularly scheduled intervals and compare actual performance to:

A

Specific standards

322
Q

Why should a driver/operator use an inspection checklist?

A

Ensures the driver/operator conducts a uniform and complete inspection

323
Q

When cleaning the interior of an apparatus using cleaning agents:

A

Ventilate the cab or crew riding area

324
Q

What agency in the United States establishes basic requirements for licensing a driver?

A

Federal Department of Transportation (DOT)

325
Q

In order for an apparatus to come to a complete stop on snow and ice, it may take:

A

3 to 15 times a greater distance than it does on dry pavement

326
Q

What about the driver/operator and organization in civil or criminal cases is mostely accurate?

A

Both the driver/operator and organization can be held responsible:

327
Q

What must all riders be doing, in additional to being seated within the cab or body, before the apparatus is put into motion?

A

Wearing Seat Belts

328
Q

What ability or skill is necessary to understand maps, dispatch instructions, and preiincident plans?

A

Reading skills

329
Q

What is a reason computer skills are important for a driver/operator?

A

To access and operate online mapping software and dispatch instructions

330
Q

Driver/operators are subject to any statute, rule, regulations, or ordinance that govern any other vehicle operator:

A

Unless specifically exempt

331
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel

A

At least 300-500 feet (90-150m) apart

332
Q

What is the primary reason for daily pretrip inspections?

A

Minimize mechanical failure

333
Q

When should the mirrors be adjusted on an apparatus?

A

Any time driving responsibility changes from one individual to another

334
Q

In most jurisdiction, when civilian drivers encounter emergency vehicles responding with warning lights activated and audible devices sounding they must:

A

Pull to the right, stop, clear intersections, and remain motionless

335
Q

The component in a load management system that turns on various lights at specified intervals so that startup electrical load for all devices does not occur at the same time is called the:

A

Load Sequencer

336
Q

According to NFPA 1911, tires must be replaced every:

A

7 Years

337
Q

What should be done during the first 6 months after an apparatus is received?

A

Wash frequency using cold water

338
Q

What can be used to clean automotive glass?

A

Commercial glass cleaner in conjunction with a clean cloth rag

339
Q

When conducting a walk around inspection, who should the driver/operator talk to in order to get the most accurate impression of how the vehicle last operated?

A

Last person to drive the apparatus

340
Q

Before using any waxes or polishes on the fire apparatus:

A

Reference the manufacturer’s manual

341
Q

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below:

A

80 psi (560 kPa)

342
Q

Based on NFPA 1901, as a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750 gpm (3,000 L/min) or greater must be equipped with at least:

A

two 2 1/2 inch (65mm) discharges

343
Q

The ability to initiate a successful drafting operation depends on creating:

A

a lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere

344
Q

Pressure control devices that are a part of a fire apparatus pumping system must restrict the pressure from exceeding:

A

30 Psi (210 kPa) above the set level

345
Q

Which type of positive displacement pump is the simplest of all fire apparatus pumps, from the standpoint of design?

A

Rotary pump

346
Q

When the pump is in operation, which of the following is a responsibility of the driver/operator?

A

Monitor all gauges associated with the engine as well as with the operation of the fire pump

347
Q

When a dry standpipe system is charged, water will be discharged:

A

At all points where caps are off and valve is open

348
Q

What is the most likely scenario if a supply line that was charged suddenly loses water?

A

The supply line has burst

349
Q

When preparing to start the apparatus, whether for emergency response or a routine trip, the driver/operator must first know the destination and:

A

route of travel

350
Q

When responding to emergencies, apparatus should:

A

Turn on headlights as part of the emergency response

351
Q

On an aerial apparatus, which of the following refers to the angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at wheelbase midpoint?

A

Breakover Angle

352
Q

Weight carried on most apparatus can contribute to:

A

Skidding or possible rollover due to lateral weight transfer

353
Q

What is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus?

A

drive apparatus only in forward direction

354
Q

Apparatus equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF) will have:

A

Very clean exhaust emissions and no black smoke

Engineer Promotion Process (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions