ENE final Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 3 pillars of sustainable development
A
economic growth, environmental protection, social progress
2
Q
The FE exam is important for licensure, what does FE stand for?
A
Fundamentals of Engineering exam
3
Q
Who administers the FE exam?
A
NCEES
4
Q
Which chapter of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) publishes final Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
rules?
A
40 CFR
5
Q
Which year was the US Environmental Protection Agency (US EPA) created?
A
1970
6
Q
Which EPA act regulates drinking water treatment utilities?
A
The Safe Drinking Water Act
7
Q
Which EPA act regulates wastewater treatment plants?
A
The Clean Water Act
8
Q
Which EPA act sets the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)?
A
The Clean Water Act
9
Q
Which EPA act sets ambient air quality standards?
A
The Clean Air Act
10
Q
Which EPA act regulates toxic-waste-contaminated sites generated after 1980?
A
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
11
Q
Which EPA act regulates toxic-waste-contaminated sites generated before 1980?
A
Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
12
Q
What does TSCA stand for?
A
Toxic Substances Control Act
13
Q
Which EPA Act is also called the “Superfund”?
A
The Comprehensive Enivronmental Response, Comprehension and Liability Act
14
Q
Which state agency regulates environmental issues in Michigan?
A
MI Department of Environment, Great Lakes Energy
15
Q
What is the definition of LD10 of a toxic chemical
A
The amount of chemical required to kill 10% of a certain population
16
Q
Risk depends on which two factors?
A
Toxicity, Exposure
17
Q
What steps are included in the EPA’s human risk assessment process
A
Hazard identification, dose/response assessment, exposure assessment, risk assessment
18
Q
A substance with a low LD50 is
A
More toxic that a substance with a high LD50
19
Q
What is CDI in risk assessment
A
Chronic daily intake
20
Q
What is PF in risk assessment
A
Potency factor of a carcinogen
21
Q
What are units of concentration of contaminants in liquids?
A
mg/L, ppb, mol/L
22
Q
What are units of concentration of contaminants in solids/sludges?
A
mg/kg, % weight
23
Q
What are units of concentration of contaminants in air?
A
mg/m3, ppm by volume, ug/m^3
24
Q
What is the definition of specific gravity of sludge?
A
Specific gravity of sludge = density of sludge / density of water
25
How does ppm relate with mg/L in dilute solutions?
ppm = mg/L for dilute solutions
26
What does 1% by volume for a contaminant mean
1 part of contaminant per 100 parts of air
27
State the Law of Conservation of Mass
Mass can neither be created nor destroyed
28
Write the general equation for a mass (material) balance of a non-steady-state, non- conservative system.
Input rate – output rate – decay rate = accumulation rate
29
For a non-conservative system with a first order decay how is the decay rate expressed
KCV
30
Write the general equation for a mass balance for a steady-state, conservative system.
Input rate = output rate
31
What statement is accurate about mercury in water
It is an inorganic pollutant
32
What is NOT true about alkanes and alkenes.
Nitrogen is contained in alkanes
33
Which compound is the most toxic?
Trichloromethane
34
Which compound is propane
C3H8
35
Which compound is 1,4-dichlorobenzene
C6H4CL2
36
Name the elements of which benzene is composed of
Carbon and Hydrogen
37
What is the definition of Molarity (M)
Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in one liter of solution
38
What is the unit of Molecular Weight (MW) of a chemical compound
g/mol
39
Balance the following chemical reaction: CH4 + O2 => CO2 + H2O
CH4 + 2O2 => CO2 + 2H2O
40
What is Theoretical Oxygen Demand
Oxygen required to completely oxidize a chemical substance to carbon dioxide and water
41
What is NOT true about reversible and irreversible reactions
Equilibrium reactions are irreversible reactions
42
Describe the concept of chemical equilibria in a closed system, when both reactions proceed at the same rate
The rate of formation of each constituent equals the rate of depletion and there is no net change
43
What is the definition of pH
pH = -log[H+]
44
Which statement is correct for an acidic solution
[H+]>[OH-]
45
The following is true for equilibrium reaction constants
They stay constant when molar concentrations or reactants and products change
46
Which of the following terms is NOT an equilibrium reaction constant
settling constant
47
In an equilibrium system that involves gaseous and dissolved species what is the name of the equilibrium constant
Henry’s Law Constant
48
Write the equilibrium constant equation for the following reaction HCO3- <-> H+ + CO32-
K = [H+]*[CO32-] / [HCO3-]
49
What does ”neutralizing” an acidic solution mean
Bring its pH to 7
50
Define the term “chemical reaction rate”
The change in concentration of a chemical over the time it takes for the change to occur
51
Describe what “zero-order reaction rate” means
In a zero-order reaction the rate of the reaction doesn’t depend on the concentration
52
What is a half-life of a chemical compound?
Half-life is the time required for the concentration to decay to half its original value
53
What is true about logistic growth?
The logistic growth model does not assume infinite recourses
54
Which natural process is responsible for the uptake of CO2 and conversion into organic matter?
Photosynthesis
55
Which natural process is responsible for the decomposition of organic compounds to CO2 and H2O?
Aerobic degradation
56
What is produced during anaerobic degradation?
methane
57
How is N2 converted to biological available forms in the environment?
by bacteria
58
Which contaminant contributes to acid rain formation ?
sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
59
Which factors mostly affect eutrofication to the greatest extent
concentration of nutrients and availability of sunlight
60
List examples of waterborne bacteria that can cause human infections
Salmonella, Helicobacter
61
List examples of inorganic pollutants that may be found in water
Heavy Metals
62
Which is an example of a chlorinated toxic chemical
DDT
63
Name two nutrients that are considered pollutants when they are in excess
Nitrogen, Phosphorus
64
What is true about PAHs
they are formed during incomplete combustion
65
What is measured by BOD?
The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down organic substances
66
What does COD stand for?
Chemical oxygen demand
67
What does the ratio of BOD to COD indicate?
The biodegradability of the waste
68
When determining the dissolved oxygen DO sag curve in a river, the rate of increase of DO deficit is expressed a
function of which two rates?
rate of de-oxygenation, rate of re-aeration
69
What is the critical point in the DO sag curve
The point where DO is minimum
70
What is a hydrograph of a stream?
A time record of the discharge of the stream
71
Define runoff coefficient
Rate of water that runs off a surface divided by the rate of precipitation
72
What is a hydraulic gradient of an unconfined aquifer?
slope of the water table
73
What is NOT true for an artesian well?
Water is at atmospheric pressure
74
What is the definition of porosity of a soil material?
The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of material
75
Which material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?
fractured rock
76
What is diffusion it terms of contaminant transport
movement of contaminant from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration
77
How is “retardation factor” defined in the context of contaminant movement in groundwater?
velocity of water divided by velocity of contaminant
78
What does NAPLs stand for?
Non-aqueous phase liquids
79
What are LNAPLSs?
NAPLs that are ligther than water
80
Which technology is NOT used for aquifer/soil remediation
distillation
81
Soil-vapor extraction technology is used for remediation of what?
unsaturated zone
82
What is involved in the pump-and-treat technology for ground water remediation?
Groundwater is extracted and treated above ground
83
List three in-situ bio-remediation strategies
natural attenuation, bio-stimulation, cometabolism
84
What is involved in bio-stimulation technologies?
addition of nutrients, oxygen, methane, or microorganisms
85
Which parameter is often higher in untreated groundwater as compared to untreated surface water?
Hardness
86
Which parameter is considered a secondary drinking water standard?
Odor
87
What is the sequence of processes used in conventional surface drinking water treatment plants?
coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection
88
What is the major purpose of coagulation-flocculation-sedimentation in a surface drinking water treatment plant?
removal of particles
89
Which chemical is NOT a coagulant that is commonly used in a surface drinking water treatment plant?
Magnesium hydroxide
90
What media are usually used for granular media filtration?
sand
91
What is the major purpose of adsorption in a surface drinking water treatment plant?
Removal of natural or synthetic organic molecules and chlorine
92
Which chemical compound is settled/precipitated by precipitative softening for hardness removal?
CaCO3
93
Which chemical is NOT a disinfectant?
Amine
94
What is the purpose of secondary (residual) disinfection?
to prevent pathogen re-growth in the distribution system
95
Which process provides residual disinfection?
chlorination
96
Which compound is a much stronger disinfectant?
Hypochlorous acid
97
Under certain conditions, which carcinogenic chemicals may be formed as chlorination by-products?
Halo-acetic acids
98
How is CT defined in the context of disinfection?
concentration of disinfectant * contact time
99
Which membrane process is able to remove small particles, dissolved material, and sodium and chloride?
Reverse-osmosis
100
After a rainfall event, what happens to the flow of wastewater in combined-sewer-overflow collection system?
the flow of wastewater increases
101
What is true about industrial wastewater?
It may be connected to the municipal sewer line after pre-treatment
102
What process is used in primary wastewater treatment?
settling
103
What is true about the activated sludge process?
aerobic microorganisms biodegrade wastewater organic material
104
In a municipal wastewater treatment system which process removes the majority of BOD?
activated sludge
105
What is an example of a fixed growth system for secondary municipal wastewater treatment?
trickling filters
106
Which parameters will negatively affect the activated sludge process?
presence of toxic chemicals
107
If wastewater recycling is intended for irrigation purposes which treatment process is optimum?
membrane bioreactors
108
What is NOT true about Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) fouling mitigation?
there is no need for fouling mitigation
109
What is NOT true about Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) fouling mitigation?
there is no need for fouling mitigation
110
In advanced wastewater treatment for nitrogen removal the following is true:
ammonium is converted to volatile ammonia
111
In advanced wastewater treatment for chemical phosphorus removal the following is true:
phosphorus is precipitated
112
What are class A and class B biosolids?
treated municipal wastewater sludge
113
What is NOT true for class B biosolids
they can be used in private lawns and home gardens
114
What is NOT contained in septic systems
chlorination system
115
What is NOT an option for on-site wastewater treatment in rural areas in the US
no treatment
116
According to EPA, which solid waste management practice is the most preferred?
Source reduction and reuse
117
According to EPA, which solid waste management practice is the least preferred?
Landfilling
118
What are the two main components of the landfill gas?
Carbon dioxide and methane
119
What is a typical BOD5 of a new landfill leachate?
10,000 mg/L
120
Which of the following is NOT a good practice at landfill sites?
Locating landfill sites in flood plains
121
Which of the following parameters is NOT a characteristic of a hazardous waste?
Settling capacity
122
What are SUPERFUND sites?
Contaminated sites generated before 1980
123
Which is NOT a recommended approach for treating hazardous waste?
Discharge in the municipal sewer system
124
Which parameter indicates that a hazardous waste may be biodegradable?
BOD to COD ratio is close to 1
125
What is NOT true about neutralization of hazardous wastes?
The pH of the treated hazardous waste becomes 0
126
Which substance is NOT part of the EPA’s Clean Air Act criteria pollutants?
carbon dioxide
127
What are the major sources of carbon monoxide?
On-road vehicles
128
Carbon monoxide is produced by the following process:
Incomplete combustion
129
Acid rain is produced by the following reaction:
Nitrogen oxide or sulfur oxide reacts with water
130
Name the primary pollutant-oxidant that is produces in photochemical smog:
ozone
131
What is the basic principle of the cyclone method?
centrifugation
132
What chemical is injected in a liquid scrubber for SO2 control?
calcium carbonate
133
What does adsorption mean?
gas to solid mass transfer
134
Describes an absorption process
gas to liquid mass transfer
135
How does air stability affect air pollution?
Air stability affects the vertical dispersion of pollutants
