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ENE 280 > ENE final > Flashcards

ENE final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 pillars of sustainable development

A

economic growth, environmental protection, social progress

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2
Q

The FE exam is important for licensure, what does FE stand for?

A

Fundamentals of Engineering exam

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3
Q

Who administers the FE exam?

A

NCEES

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4
Q

Which chapter of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) publishes final Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
rules?

A

40 CFR

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5
Q

Which year was the US Environmental Protection Agency (US EPA) created?

A

1970

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6
Q

Which EPA act regulates drinking water treatment utilities?

A

The Safe Drinking Water Act

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7
Q

Which EPA act regulates wastewater treatment plants?

A

The Clean Water Act

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8
Q

Which EPA act sets the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)?

A

The Clean Water Act

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9
Q

Which EPA act sets ambient air quality standards?

A

The Clean Air Act

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10
Q

Which EPA act regulates toxic-waste-contaminated sites generated after 1980?

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

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11
Q

Which EPA act regulates toxic-waste-contaminated sites generated before 1980?

A

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

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12
Q

What does TSCA stand for?

A

Toxic Substances Control Act

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13
Q

Which EPA Act is also called the “Superfund”?

A

The Comprehensive Enivronmental Response, Comprehension and Liability Act

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14
Q

Which state agency regulates environmental issues in Michigan?

A

MI Department of Environment, Great Lakes Energy

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15
Q

What is the definition of LD10 of a toxic chemical

A

The amount of chemical required to kill 10% of a certain population

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16
Q

Risk depends on which two factors?

A

Toxicity, Exposure

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17
Q

What steps are included in the EPA’s human risk assessment process

A

Hazard identification, dose/response assessment, exposure assessment, risk assessment

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18
Q

A substance with a low LD50 is

A

More toxic that a substance with a high LD50

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19
Q

What is CDI in risk assessment

A

Chronic daily intake

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20
Q

What is PF in risk assessment

A

Potency factor of a carcinogen

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21
Q

What are units of concentration of contaminants in liquids?

A

mg/L, ppb, mol/L

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22
Q

What are units of concentration of contaminants in solids/sludges?

A

mg/kg, % weight

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23
Q

What are units of concentration of contaminants in air?

A

mg/m3, ppm by volume, ug/m^3

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24
Q

What is the definition of specific gravity of sludge?

A

Specific gravity of sludge = density of sludge / density of water

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25
Q

How does ppm relate with mg/L in dilute solutions?

A

ppm = mg/L for dilute solutions

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26
Q

What does 1% by volume for a contaminant mean

A

1 part of contaminant per 100 parts of air

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27
Q

State the Law of Conservation of Mass

A

Mass can neither be created nor destroyed

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28
Q

Write the general equation for a mass (material) balance of a non-steady-state, non- conservative system.

A

Input rate – output rate – decay rate = accumulation rate

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29
Q

For a non-conservative system with a first order decay how is the decay rate expressed

A

KCV

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30
Q

Write the general equation for a mass balance for a steady-state, conservative system.

A

Input rate = output rate

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31
Q

What statement is accurate about mercury in water

A

It is an inorganic pollutant

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32
Q

What is NOT true about alkanes and alkenes.

A

Nitrogen is contained in alkanes

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33
Q

Which compound is the most toxic?

A

Trichloromethane

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34
Q

Which compound is propane

A

C3H8

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35
Q

Which compound is 1,4-dichlorobenzene

A

C6H4CL2

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36
Q

Name the elements of which benzene is composed of

A

Carbon and Hydrogen

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37
Q

What is the definition of Molarity (M)

A

Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in one liter of solution

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38
Q

What is the unit of Molecular Weight (MW) of a chemical compound

A

g/mol

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39
Q

Balance the following chemical reaction: CH4 + O2 => CO2 + H2O

A

CH4 + 2O2 => CO2 + 2H2O

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40
Q

What is Theoretical Oxygen Demand

A

Oxygen required to completely oxidize a chemical substance to carbon dioxide and water

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41
Q

What is NOT true about reversible and irreversible reactions

A

Equilibrium reactions are irreversible reactions

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42
Q

Describe the concept of chemical equilibria in a closed system, when both reactions proceed at the same rate

A

The rate of formation of each constituent equals the rate of depletion and there is no net change

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43
Q

What is the definition of pH

A

pH = -log[H+]

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44
Q

Which statement is correct for an acidic solution

A

[H+]>[OH-]

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45
Q

The following is true for equilibrium reaction constants

A

They stay constant when molar concentrations or reactants and products change

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46
Q

Which of the following terms is NOT an equilibrium reaction constant

A

settling constant

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47
Q

In an equilibrium system that involves gaseous and dissolved species what is the name of the equilibrium constant

A

Henry’s Law Constant

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48
Q

Write the equilibrium constant equation for the following reaction HCO3- <-> H+ + CO32-

A

K = [H+]*[CO32-] / [HCO3-]

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49
Q

What does ”neutralizing” an acidic solution mean

A

Bring its pH to 7

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50
Q

Define the term “chemical reaction rate”

A

The change in concentration of a chemical over the time it takes for the change to occur

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51
Q

Describe what “zero-order reaction rate” means

A

In a zero-order reaction the rate of the reaction doesn’t depend on the concentration

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52
Q

What is a half-life of a chemical compound?

A

Half-life is the time required for the concentration to decay to half its original value

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53
Q

What is true about logistic growth?

A

The logistic growth model does not assume infinite recourses

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54
Q

Which natural process is responsible for the uptake of CO2 and conversion into organic matter?

A

Photosynthesis

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55
Q

Which natural process is responsible for the decomposition of organic compounds to CO2 and H2O?

A

Aerobic degradation

56
Q

What is produced during anaerobic degradation?

A

methane

57
Q

How is N2 converted to biological available forms in the environment?

A

by bacteria

58
Q

Which contaminant contributes to acid rain formation ?

A

sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide

59
Q

Which factors mostly affect eutrofication to the greatest extent

A

concentration of nutrients and availability of sunlight

60
Q

List examples of waterborne bacteria that can cause human infections

A

Salmonella, Helicobacter

61
Q

List examples of inorganic pollutants that may be found in water

A

Heavy Metals

62
Q

Which is an example of a chlorinated toxic chemical

A

DDT

63
Q

Name two nutrients that are considered pollutants when they are in excess

A

Nitrogen, Phosphorus

64
Q

What is true about PAHs

A

they are formed during incomplete combustion

65
Q

What is measured by BOD?

A

The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down organic substances

66
Q

What does COD stand for?

A

Chemical oxygen demand

67
Q

What does the ratio of BOD to COD indicate?

A

The biodegradability of the waste

68
Q

When determining the dissolved oxygen DO sag curve in a river, the rate of increase of DO deficit is expressed a
function of which two rates?

A

rate of de-oxygenation, rate of re-aeration

69
Q

What is the critical point in the DO sag curve

A

The point where DO is minimum

70
Q

What is a hydrograph of a stream?

A

A time record of the discharge of the stream

71
Q

Define runoff coefficient

A

Rate of water that runs off a surface divided by the rate of precipitation

72
Q

What is a hydraulic gradient of an unconfined aquifer?

A

slope of the water table

73
Q

What is NOT true for an artesian well?

A

Water is at atmospheric pressure

74
Q

What is the definition of porosity of a soil material?

A

The ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of material

75
Q

Which material has the highest hydraulic conductivity?

A

fractured rock

76
Q

What is diffusion it terms of contaminant transport

A

movement of contaminant from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration

77
Q

How is “retardation factor” defined in the context of contaminant movement in groundwater?

A

velocity of water divided by velocity of contaminant

78
Q

What does NAPLs stand for?

A

Non-aqueous phase liquids

79
Q

What are LNAPLSs?

A

NAPLs that are ligther than water

80
Q

Which technology is NOT used for aquifer/soil remediation

A

distillation

81
Q

Soil-vapor extraction technology is used for remediation of what?

A

unsaturated zone

82
Q

What is involved in the pump-and-treat technology for ground water remediation?

A

Groundwater is extracted and treated above ground

83
Q

List three in-situ bio-remediation strategies

A

natural attenuation, bio-stimulation, cometabolism

84
Q

What is involved in bio-stimulation technologies?

A

addition of nutrients, oxygen, methane, or microorganisms

85
Q

Which parameter is often higher in untreated groundwater as compared to untreated surface water?

A

Hardness

86
Q

Which parameter is considered a secondary drinking water standard?

A

Odor

87
Q

What is the sequence of processes used in conventional surface drinking water treatment plants?

A

coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection

88
Q

What is the major purpose of coagulation-flocculation-sedimentation in a surface drinking water treatment plant?

A

removal of particles

89
Q

Which chemical is NOT a coagulant that is commonly used in a surface drinking water treatment plant?

A

Magnesium hydroxide

90
Q

What media are usually used for granular media filtration?

A

sand

91
Q

What is the major purpose of adsorption in a surface drinking water treatment plant?

A

Removal of natural or synthetic organic molecules and chlorine

92
Q

Which chemical compound is settled/precipitated by precipitative softening for hardness removal?

A

CaCO3

93
Q

Which chemical is NOT a disinfectant?

A

Amine

94
Q

What is the purpose of secondary (residual) disinfection?

A

to prevent pathogen re-growth in the distribution system

95
Q

Which process provides residual disinfection?

A

chlorination

96
Q

Which compound is a much stronger disinfectant?

A

Hypochlorous acid

97
Q

Under certain conditions, which carcinogenic chemicals may be formed as chlorination by-products?

A

Halo-acetic acids

98
Q

How is CT defined in the context of disinfection?

A

concentration of disinfectant * contact time

99
Q

Which membrane process is able to remove small particles, dissolved material, and sodium and chloride?

A

Reverse-osmosis

100
Q

After a rainfall event, what happens to the flow of wastewater in combined-sewer-overflow collection system?

A

the flow of wastewater increases

101
Q

What is true about industrial wastewater?

A

It may be connected to the municipal sewer line after pre-treatment

102
Q

What process is used in primary wastewater treatment?

A

settling

103
Q

What is true about the activated sludge process?

A

aerobic microorganisms biodegrade wastewater organic material

104
Q

In a municipal wastewater treatment system which process removes the majority of BOD?

A

activated sludge

105
Q

What is an example of a fixed growth system for secondary municipal wastewater treatment?

A

trickling filters

106
Q

Which parameters will negatively affect the activated sludge process?

A

presence of toxic chemicals

107
Q

If wastewater recycling is intended for irrigation purposes which treatment process is optimum?

A

membrane bioreactors

108
Q

What is NOT true about Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) fouling mitigation?

A

there is no need for fouling mitigation

109
Q

What is NOT true about Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) fouling mitigation?

A

there is no need for fouling mitigation

110
Q

In advanced wastewater treatment for nitrogen removal the following is true:

A

ammonium is converted to volatile ammonia

111
Q

In advanced wastewater treatment for chemical phosphorus removal the following is true:

A

phosphorus is precipitated

112
Q

What are class A and class B biosolids?

A

treated municipal wastewater sludge

113
Q

What is NOT true for class B biosolids

A

they can be used in private lawns and home gardens

114
Q

What is NOT contained in septic systems

A

chlorination system

115
Q

What is NOT an option for on-site wastewater treatment in rural areas in the US

A

no treatment

116
Q

According to EPA, which solid waste management practice is the most preferred?

A

Source reduction and reuse

117
Q

According to EPA, which solid waste management practice is the least preferred?

A

Landfilling

118
Q

What are the two main components of the landfill gas?

A

Carbon dioxide and methane

119
Q

What is a typical BOD5 of a new landfill leachate?

A

10,000 mg/L

120
Q

Which of the following is NOT a good practice at landfill sites?

A

Locating landfill sites in flood plains

121
Q

Which of the following parameters is NOT a characteristic of a hazardous waste?

A

Settling capacity

122
Q

What are SUPERFUND sites?

A

Contaminated sites generated before 1980

123
Q

Which is NOT a recommended approach for treating hazardous waste?

A

Discharge in the municipal sewer system

124
Q

Which parameter indicates that a hazardous waste may be biodegradable?

A

BOD to COD ratio is close to 1

125
Q

What is NOT true about neutralization of hazardous wastes?

A

The pH of the treated hazardous waste becomes 0

126
Q

Which substance is NOT part of the EPA’s Clean Air Act criteria pollutants?

A

carbon dioxide

127
Q

What are the major sources of carbon monoxide?

A

On-road vehicles

128
Q

Carbon monoxide is produced by the following process:

A

Incomplete combustion

129
Q

Acid rain is produced by the following reaction:

A

Nitrogen oxide or sulfur oxide reacts with water

130
Q

Name the primary pollutant-oxidant that is produces in photochemical smog:

A

ozone

131
Q

What is the basic principle of the cyclone method?

A

centrifugation

132
Q

What chemical is injected in a liquid scrubber for SO2 control?

A

calcium carbonate

133
Q

What does adsorption mean?

A

gas to solid mass transfer

134
Q

Describes an absorption process

A

gas to liquid mass transfer

135
Q

How does air stability affect air pollution?

A

Air stability affects the vertical dispersion of pollutants

ENE 280 (10 decks)

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