Endogenous/Drug effects on receptor Flashcards

1
Q

Norepinephrine has a low affinity/efficacy at what two receptors?

A

B2 & B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

EPI binds to what receptor causing bronchodilation?

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At low concentrations, epinephrine binds to what receptor?

What is the effect?

A

B2

vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At high concentrations, epinephrine binds to what receptor?

What is the effect?

A

A1

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List 3 bronchodilators?

A

Epi
isoproterenol
albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can block NET? What is the result?

A

Cocaine and TCA(amitriptyline)

increased available Norepi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Methylxanthines (caffeine)

A

bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phenylephrine cause increase myocardial contractility by 2-3x WHY?

A

post junctional A1 receptors on heart

more prominent in failure or ischemia due to receptor upregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs such as ephedrine do what?

A

act using endogenous NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs act primarily on what receptors

A

A1 and B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epi (agonist) primarily stimulates what receptors?

A

B1,2,3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Norepi stimulates_____, but minimal______ receptor activity?

A

B1

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dopamine is a ____receptor agonist?

A

Beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stimulation of SNS causes 80% release of____from adrenal medulla.

A

Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Catecholamines are?

A

sympathetic amines with hydroxy substitutions 3 and 4 of benzene ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cocaine does what?

A

blocks reuptake of NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tyramine is

A

from fermented food, contraindicated with mao inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tyramine, amphetamine, ephedrine cause what?

A

increase available nor epi, reuptake inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epinephrine in large doses may cause

A

PVC, tachycardia, fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The negative SE of EPI may exacerbated in

A

MI and anesthetic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the presence of a beta blocker EPI will act as

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EPI causes increased coronary blood flow via

A

metabolic adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EPI via A1 causes high vasoconstriction where?

A

skin vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Epinephrine indirectly increase blood pressure why?

A

Positive inotropic and chronotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Place in order affinity for A1&A2 Isoprotenrol epi norepi
epi norepi isoproterenol epi>=NE>>i
26
Place in order affinity for B1 Isoprotenrol epi norepi
``` B1 Isoprotenrol epi norepi i>epi=NE ```
27
Place in order affinity for B2&B3 Isoprotenrol epi norepi
Isoprotenrol epi norepi i>=epi>>NE
28
Dobutamine would be a good choice for what patient?
Short term cardiac decompensation states(post CT surg, acute MI, CHF
29
In severe CHF dobutamine would be a shit choice. Why?
down regulation of b adrenergic receptors would decrease its effectiveness.
30
Dobutamine facilitates AV conduction and may cause
ventricular ectopy.
31
Dobutamine predominantly simulates which receptor
B1
32
Dobutamine is more prominent inotrope or chronotrope?
inotrope
33
Pheonochromocytoma will cause an increase of ______release by the _____of _______%?
norepi adrenal medulla 97%
34
A low dose of epi 2-10mcg will cause
B3 lipolysis
35
Epi can cause an increase in this electrolyte______. Why?
Potassium | Increased Na-K pump action
36
Ephedrine may cause this adverse action______ if taken with ________.
HTN crisis | moa inhibitors
37
Isoproterenol and epinephrine are | equally effective in stimulating
release of free fatty acids and in | energy production
38
The duration of action of isoproterenol is somewhat longer than
epi
39
Inotropic
force of contraction
40
Chronotropic
rate
41
Dromotropic
conduction speed
42
Metaproterenol is a?
bronchodilator selective B2 agonist resistant to methylation by COMT
43
Terbutaline is a
``` Terbutaline is a bronchodilator selective B2 agonist can be give subq 0.25mg can repeat Q15 rapid onset ```
44
Albuterol is
bronchodilator selective B2 agonist works in 15 min
45
Levalbuterol is
bronchodilator selective B2 agonist R-enantiomer= less SE
46
Ritodrine is
Tocolytic | selective B2 agonist
47
Phenylephrine is epinephrine minus
hydroxyl group at pos 4
48
Phenylephrine is an A1 selective agonist but acts on ________at high doses.
B1
49
Baroceptor response often stay intact if using
clonidine or dexmedetomidine
50
Fenoldopam is
D1 receptor agonist | vasodilator for acute treatment of severe HTN
51
Amphetamine and dextroamphetamine
Acts indirectly by releasing biogenic amines from storage sites in nerve terminals – Activates RAS – Can cause psychosis (5-HT mediated) – Anorectic, locomotor stimulant (DA mediated
52
``` Phenoxybenzamine 6 things what is it? where does it bind? causes? enhanced by what? Useful in two things? ```
-Phenoxybenzamine-vasodilator -Blocks A1 & A2 irreversibly/Antagonists -Causes decrease in SVR and increase in CO (reflex) – Hypotension enhanced with b2 agonists – Useful in pheochromocytoma and in -autonomic hyperreflexia, SC injury
53
``` Phentolamine 5 what is it use duration S/E contra in who ```
``` Phentolamine Blocks A1 &A2 receptors COMPETITIVELY – Mainly used in preoperative management of pheochromocytoma • Same as phenoxybenzamine, but short-lived (~15 min following IV bolus) – Causes release of histamine • Contraindicated in CAD ```
54
Prazosin
Prazosin/CHF Potent A1 receptor antagonist/no A2 blockade (no increase in NE release) • Blocks A1 receptors in arterioles • Decreases SVR & venous return to heart – Does not usually cause increase in HR or SV • half-life 2-3 hours • Terazosin (Hytrin®) is structural analog of prazosin – Also has high specificity for A1 receptors
55
A1-Adrenergic Antagonists Therapeutic uses 2
A1-Adrenergic Antagonists Therapeutic uses -CHF/A1 receptor blockade dilates arteries • Decrease afterload and preload -BPH • A1 receptor antagonists reduce resistance in some patients • A1 receptors in bladder trigone and urethra contribute to blockage • Essential hypertension & prostatic hypertrophy (prazosin, doxazosin, terazosin)
56
Yohimbine | inhibits what
``` Erectile dysfunction (Yohimbine) • Blockade with selective antagonists (yohimbine) can increase sympathetic outflow A2 receptor antagonist • Increase SNS activity • Inhibits the function of monoamine oxidase enzymes ```
57
Therapeutic Uses of A Blockers (Antagonists) 5
* Hypertension * Pheochromocytoma * Benign prostatic hyperplasia * Peripheral vascular disease * Erectile dysfunction (Yohimbine)
58
``` Beta Antagonists (B-Blockers) used to treat 4 cardiac issues ```
Used to Tx: CAD, HTN, HF, tachydysrhythmias
59
Cardiac selective (β1 receptor) drugs
Atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol -Relative selectivity; much less vascular, bronchial smooth muscle, and metabolic effects
60
Beta blockers Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) (partial agonist activity) drugs
Pindolol, acebutolol Less slowing of HR at rest; exercise induced ↑ HR still blunted like non-ISA β-blockers
61
Beta blocker Membrane stabilizing activity (MSA)
Acebutolol, labetalol, metoprolol, pindolol, and | propranolol
62
Beta blocker that vasodilates
Nebivolol vasodilates via endothelial dependent | NO pathway
63
B antagonists block
renin release caused by SNS stimulation Reduction in plasma renin activity causes anti-HTN
64
Beta blockers cause these negative effects on the heart
decreased sinus rate, spontaneous & | depolarization of ectopic foci
65
Propranolol is life threating to what patient population? Why
COPD & asthma | blocks B2 receptor
66
Beta blockers cause hypoglycemia. Why ? | 4
Beta blockers cause hypoglycemia. Why ? Metabolic effects – Catecholamines promote glycogenolysis and mobilize glucose in response to hypoglycemia -B adrenergic antagonists may block this response -B2 receptor blockade may inhibit hepatic response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia -B3 adrenergic antagonists attenuate the release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue
67
Propranolol
non selective beta Interacts with B1& B2 receptors with equal affinity Highly lipophilic with large VD • Crosses BBB – Lacks intrinsic sympathomimetic activity – Extensively metabolized – Propranolol may be administered IV for management of life-threatening dysrhythmias or to patients under anesthesia • 1-3 mg administered slowly • If bradycardia is profound - atropine may be used
68
Metoprolol
``` Metoprolol – β1/β2-receptor affinity (30:1); membrane stabilizing activity (MSA); no ISA – Primarily liver metabolism – ½ as potent as propranolol – Short elimination half-life 3.5 hrs ```
69
Atenolol
β1/β2-receptor affinity (30:1); no MSA or ISA activity – Primarily excreted via kidneys; no first-pass metabolism – Elimination half-life 6.5 hrs, so once daily dosing
70
Pindolol
Nonselective β–blocker that has MSA and | ISA
71
Acebutolol
β1-selective with ISA
72
Esmolol
β1-selective; IV rapid onset and offset (<10 min.) – Rapid hydrolysis by non-specific esterases
73
Esmolol
Esmolol • B1 selective adrenergic antagonist with very short duration of action t1/2B 8-9 minutes • Esmolol has an ester linkage (nonspecific esterases – red blood cells) • Rapidly hydrolyzed • Onset (2 minutes) and cessation of B adrenergic blockade are rapid • Peak hemodynamic effect in 10 minutes • Esmolol has little, if any, ISA • Anesthesia uses: – Rapid, brief control of ↑ HR (i.e.: to prevent tachycardia from intubation stimulation) – Infusions can be quickly terminated if needed
74
POISE
Dont hold beta blockers, control rate <80 | beta blocker time out
75
Labetalol
``` Competitive antagonists at A1 and B receptors – Selective a and nonselective b blocker – Racemic mixture with 4 stereoisomers a1 blockade leads to arteriolar dilation b1 blockade leads to decrease in BP by blocking reflex sympathetic stimulation • 5x-10x more potent b blocker than a blocker (7:1) • Extensively metabolized in liver • Elimination half life of 5 hrs • Onset 2-5 minutes, peak 5-15 minutes, and DOA 2-4 hrs • 5-10 mg TTE every 10 minutes ```
76
Adverse Effects of Beta Blockers | 8
``` • Bronchoconstriction • Bradycardia, A-V block, cardiac arrest • Decreased cardiac output • Sudden withdrawal problems • Hypoglycemia problems • Diminished exercise performance • Possible changes in blood lipids • Potential CNS effects ```
77
use__________for bronchial asthma | drug
albuterol
78
use__________for cardiogenic shock | drug
dopamine/dobutamine
79
use__________for rhinitis | drug
phenylephrine
80
use__________for HTN | drug
prazosin
81
use__________for angina pectoris | drug
propranolol
82
use__________for supraventricular arrhythmias | drug
atenolol
83
use__________for BPH | drug
terazosin or prazosin
84
Therapeutic Uses of Beta Blockers 8
* Hypertension * Ischemic heart disease * Cardiac arrhythmias * Obstructive cardiomyopathy * Congestive heart failure * Open-angle glaucoma B1 * Migraine headache * Muscle tremor, performance anxiety propranolol
85
Indirect acting irreversible muscarinic?
echothiopate
86
indirect acting reversible muscarinic? | 3
edrophonium, neostigmine, physostigmine
87
Bethanechol
M3 muscarinic agonist Used post-op to treat urinary retention and abdominal distention – Treat neurogenic G.I. atony and megacolon (increase intestinal motility)
88
Pilocarpine
m3 muscarinic Pilocarpine - topical miotic, glaucoma (decrease intraocular pressure
89
Muscarinic Agonists | Clinical Uses
``` Reduces IOP by causing contraction of ciliary body • facilitates aqueous humor outflow • can be treated with cholinergic agonists or cholinesterase inhibitors ```
90
Atropine
CNS effects occur with high doses of atropine – effects from restlessness to somnolence – toxic doses cause more prominent symptoms • disorientation, hallucinations, and delirium – larger (toxic) doses cause depression, circulatory collapse
91
scopolamine
``` less likely to change heart depresses RAS – may cause delayed awakening from anesthesia – used for motion-sickness • blocks medullary impulses arising from vestibular overstimulation • transdermal (postauricular) provides sustained blood levels Scopolamine in therapeutic doses may be used for sedation – can be combined with an opioid – drowsiness, amnesia, and fatigue – Intravenous dosing (0.3-0.6 mg ```
92
Glycopyrrolate chem structure doesn't do what why
Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary amine – devoid of sedative effects – does not cross BBB
93
Muscarinic relatively contraindicated
in narrowangle glaucoma • causes flow obstruction • interferes with flow of aqueous humor
94
Scopolamine produces sedation
``` Scopolamine produces sedation by decreasing activity of the RAS (100x more than atropine) – Also effects other areas of brain resulting in amnesia • May have delayed awakening • Physostigmine is effective in reversing restlessness or somnolence from CNS effects of tertiary amine antimuscarinics ```
95
Scopolamine produces sedation by
``` Scopolamine produces sedation by decreasing activity of the RAS (100x more than atropine) – Also effects other areas of brain resulting in amnesia • May have delayed awakening • Physostigmine is effective in reversing restlessness or somnolence from CNS effects of tertiary amine antimuscarinics ```
96
Tiotropium - DOA
>24 hrs
97
Most potent antisialagogue in order order of potency
scopolamine glycopyrrolate atropine
98
Horner Syndrome
``` Stellate ganglion – Superior, middle, and cervicothoracic ganglia – Spinal segments T1-4/5 synapse here – Provide SNS innervation of ↑ ext., head, neck – So? – Horner syndrome • Ptosis • Miosis • Anhidrosis • Enophthalmos • Redness of face and conjunctiva ```
99
Dopamine
Precursor of NE • Effects are mediated through D1 receptors • Low doses primarily activate D1 receptors – Vascular postjunctional D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels – 0.5-3.0 mcg/kg/min • Moderate DA dosages act on B1 receptors – 3.0 - 10 mcg/kg/min Higher dosages 10 - 20 mcg/kg/min primarily act at a1 receptors – Leads to vascular vasoconstriction – Low dose increased renal blood flow and GFR – Moderate dose increases myocardial contractility and increase in CO – High dosages vasoconstriction • Benefit to renal perfusion may be lost – Dopamine is an important central neurotransmitter • Peripherally administered dopamine has no central side effects • Substrate for MAO & COMT – Half-life of about a minute
100
Ipatropium/tiotropium
quaternary compounds used to treat reactive airway disease – used as an inhalant – does not impair mucociliary elevator – toxicity not usually a problem since this compound is poorly absorbed from lungs into circulation
101
Echothipoate
irreversible indirect | glaucoma
102
Carvedilol is similar to ___________and good for
labetalol, chf