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Cell Bio > Endocrinology - Repro > Flashcards

Endocrinology - Repro Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not included in the classical endocrine glands?
a) Adipose tissue
b) Ovaries
c) Thyroid
d) Pancreas

A

a) Adipose tissue - non-classical gland

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2
Q

True or False
Some neurotransmitters can be considered hormones when secreted by the hypothalamus

A

True
An example of this would be dopamine

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3
Q

Peptides secreted by cells into the ECF and can function as immunomodulating agents

A

Cytokines

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4
Q

Cytokine produced by adipocytes

A

Leptin

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5
Q

Interleukins released from T-Helper cells to act on immune cells. This is an example of what kind of chemical messenger?

A

Cytokine

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6
Q

Secreted into the vascular system by endocrine tissues due to neuronal stimulation

A

Neuroendocrine hormones

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7
Q

ADH and Epinephrine, which are synthesized by the hypothalamus, are what type of chemical messenger?

A

Neuroendocrine hormones

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8
Q

What hormones can influence function of target cells at another location in the body?

A

Neuroendocrine and endocrine hormones

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9
Q

Autocrine hormones are secreted by cells into the ECF and affect function of the same cells that produce them. Which of the following are examples of these hormones?
a) IL-6 in cancer cells
b) IL-1 in monocytes
c) Fibroblast growth factor
d) a and b
e) b and c

A

d) IL-6 in cancer cells and IL-1 in monocytes

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10
Q

Which if the following is a correct statement about fibroblast growth factors?
a) They are autocrine hormones
b) They are paracrine hormones
c) They include fibroblast growth hormones
d) a and c
e) b and c

A

e) b and c - they are paracrine hormones, fibroblast growth factors are an example

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11
Q

Which of the following comprise majority of hormones?
a) Amines
b) Lipids
c) Protein and peptide hormones
d) Neuroendocrine hormones

A

C) Protein and peptide hormones

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12
Q

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about protein and peptide hormones?
a) They have a short half life
b) Circulate unbound in the blood
c) They are hydrophobic
d) All of the above

A

c) They are HYDROPHILIC not hydrophobic

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13
Q

Amines are derived from what amino acid?
a) Tryptophan
b) Tyrosine
c) Thyroxine
d) None of the above

A

b) Tyrosine

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14
Q

Amines are typically hydrophilic but have some exceptions that require carrier proteins. What are the exceptions?
a) Catecholamines
b) Acetylcholine
c) Thyroid hormones
d) Epinephrine

A

C) Thyroid hormones - they are hydrophobic

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15
Q

What are the carrier proteins produced by the liver?

A

Thyroxine-binding globulin and albumin

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16
Q

True or False
The half life for all amines is relatively short

A

False - it depends on the hormone

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17
Q

Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
a) Adrenocortical hormones
b) Androgen
c) Estrogen and progesterone
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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18
Q

What intracellular features do cells that produce steroid hormones possess?

A

They have an abundance of lipid droplets containing cholesterol esters and mitochondria and smooth ER

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19
Q

Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is FALSE.
a) Sex-steroid forming cells have enzymes that allow formation of adrenocortical hormones
b) The adrenal cortex normally produces small amounts of sex steroids and larger amounts in certain conditions
c) The adrenal cortex contains the enzymes necessary for formation of adrenocortical and sex hormones
d) All of the above statements are true

A

a) Sex steroid forming cells do NOT have enzymes to allow for formation of adrenocortical hormones

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20
Q

Where are steroids stored within the cell?
a) ADH
b) Adrenal glands
c) Thyroid
d) There isn’t one

A

d) There isn’t one

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Steroid metabolic rates are constantly changing
b) The rate of hormone secretion is independent of rate of synthesis
c) Cholesterol ester is the precursor to steroids and can be considered the only storage form of steroids within these cells
d) All of the above are correct

A

C) Cholesterol ester is the precursor to steroids

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22
Q

True or false
Steroid hormones are secreted immediately after formation by simple diffusion across the cell membrane because of their hydrophilic structure

A

False
It is because of their LIPOphilic structure (rest of statement is true)

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23
Q

What allows hormones to be in low concentration in the blood but effective in producing tissue response?
a) Sensitivity and affinity of receptor
b) Specificity of receptor
c) Specificity and affinity of receptor
d) Affinity of receptor

A

C) Specificity and affinity

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24
Q

Decrease in plasma concentrations of the hormone
a) Internalization
b) Down regulation
c) Desensitization
d) Dissociation

A

d) Dissociation

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25
Q

Internalization of the receptor-hormone complex through endocytosis
a) Desensitization
b) Dissociation
c) Down regulation
d) None of the above

A

a) Desensitization

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26
Q

What are the two modes of termination of the action of a hormone?

A

Dissociation and Desensitization

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27
Q

Which of the following glands are regulated by the HPA?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Anterior Pituitary
c) Adrenal Cortex
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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28
Q

When regulating the endocrine system, the hypothalamus works in close connection with what?
a) Anterior pituitary
b) Thymus
c) Pituitary gland
d) Cerebellum

A

c) Pituitary gland

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29
Q

The hypothalamus secretes releasing and inhibitory hormones that control _________ pituitary secretion.

A

The hypothalamus secretes releasing and inhibitory hormones that control anterior pituitary secretion

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30
Q

What are the SIX hormones of the hypothalamus controlling anterior pituitary secretions?

A

TRH
CRH
GnRH
GHRH
GHIH/Somatostatin
PIH/Dopamine

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31
Q

Hypothalamic-Hypophysial Portal system carries hormones directly to the sinuses of the _____ _____ gland

A

Hypothalamic-Hypophysial Portal system carries hormones directly to the sinuses of the Anterior Pituitary gland

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32
Q

What is the microcirculation system of blood vessels at the base of the brain, connecting the hypothalamus with the anterior pituitary?

A

Hypothalamic-Hypophysial Portal system

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33
Q

What is the main function of the hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system?

A

To quickly transport and exchange hormones between the hypothalamus and AP gland

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34
Q

What feature of the portal system allows for rapid exchange between the hypothalamus and pituitary?
a) Fenestrated capillaries
b) High vascular permeability
c) Many small channels
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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35
Q

The anterior pituitary gland (Adenohypophysis) originates from what?

A

Rathke’s pouch

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36
Q

What is Rathke’s Pouch?

A

Embyronic invagination of the pharyngeal epithelium

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37
Q

What are the 5 major cell types of the Adenohypophysis?

A

Somatotropes
Corticotropes
Lactotropes
Thyrotropes
Gonadotropes

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38
Q

What cell type makes up the largest area of the pituitary?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

d) Somatotropes

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39
Q

What cell type of the adenohypophysis produce growth hormone?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

d) Somatotropes

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40
Q

What adenohypophysis cell type produces ACTH?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

b) Corticoptropes

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41
Q

What adenohypophysis cell produces prolactin?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

e) Lactotropes

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42
Q

What adenohypophysis cell produces TSH?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

a) Thyrotropes

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43
Q

What adenohypophysis cell produces LH and FSH?
a) Thyrotropes
b) Corticotropes
c) Gonadotropes
d) Somatotropes
e) Lactotropes

A

c) Gonadotropes

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44
Q

What peptide hormone of the AP affects metabolism of glucose, proteins and fats?
a) GH
b) ACTH (Corticotropin)
c) Thyrotropin
d) FSH and LH

A

b) ACTH (Corticotropin)

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45
Q

What hormones control most intracellular chemical reactions in the body?
a) Corticotropin
b) Growth hormones
c) Thyrotropin (TSH, T3/T4)
d) Gonadotropins

A

c) Thryotropins (TSH, T3/T4)

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46
Q

What hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary/Neurohypophysis?

A

ADH/Vasopressin and Oxytocin

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47
Q

What is composed by magnocellular neurons?
a) Adenohypophysis
b) Neurohypophysis
c) Anterior pituitary
d) Hypothalamus

A

b) Neurohypophysis

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48
Q

Where are the hormones of the neurohypophysis produced and where are they transported?

A

Produced in the hypothalamus and transported in the axoplasm of the pituitary

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49
Q

Hypothalamic neurons synthesize _________ and ______

A

Oxytocin and ADH

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50
Q

Oxytocin and ADH are transported along the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract to the _______ _______

A

Posterior pituitary

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51
Q

Oxytocin and ADH are stored in ________ _______ in the posterior pituitary

A

Axon Terminals

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52
Q

Oxytocin and ADH are released into the blood when _______ neurons fire

A

Hypothalamic

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53
Q

Where are ADH and Oxytocin produced?

A

Cell body

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54
Q

What protein transports ADH and Oxytocin from the cell body through the axon?

A

Neurophysin

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55
Q

When does processing of the precursor to the mature peptide take place?

A

As the secretory granules move down the axon

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56
Q

What does ADH target?

A

Kidneys

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57
Q

What does Oxytocin target in males?

A

Smooth muscle in ductus deferens and prostate gland

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58
Q

What does oxytocin target in females?

A

Uterine smooth muscle and mammary glands

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59
Q

What does MSH target?

A

Melanocytes

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60
Q

What does FSH and LH target in females?

A

Ovaries

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61
Q

What does FSH and LH target in males?

A

Testes

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62
Q

What does PRL target?

A

Mammary glands

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63
Q

What does GH target?

A

Liver, bone, muscle

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64
Q

What does TSH target?

A

Thyroid glands

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65
Q

What does ACTH target?

A

Suprarenal gland/medulla/cortex

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66
Q

What part of the hypothalamus will have direct release of hormones?

A

Neurohypophysis

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67
Q

What hormone helps control water excretion into the urine?

A

ADH/Vasopressin

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68
Q

True or False
In the early stages of embyro development, there is no increase in cell mass during the first several divisions

A

True

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69
Q

During what stage of early embryo development does differentiation occur?
a) Zygote
b) 16-cell embryo
c) Morula
d) Blastocyst
e) None of the above

70
Q

What embryonic tissue gives rise to the placenta?
a) Trophoblast
b) Chorion
c) Allantois
d) Allantochorion
e) None of the above

A

A) Trophoblast

71
Q

What gives rise to the digestive system, lungs and endocrine system?
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) All of the above

A

a) Endoderm

72
Q

What gives rise to the reproductive system, cardiovascular system and muscle/skeleton?
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) All of the above

A

b) Mesoderm

73
Q

What gives rise to the nervous system, skin and hair?
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) All of the above

A

c) Ectoderm

74
Q

What hormone is responsible for defemenizing the hypothalamus?
a) Testosterone
b) Estradiol
c) AMH
d) Dihydrotestosterone
e) None of the above

A

b) Estradiol

75
Q

What hormone is essential for sex-differentiation?
a) AMH
b) Testosterone
c) Dihydrotestosterone
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

76
Q

What hormone eliminates the surge center?
a) Testosterone
b) Estradiol
c) Estrogen
d) All of the above

A

b) Estradiol

77
Q

All oocytes are arrested as primary oocytes (____) at ________
a) 2n; mitosis - prophase I
b) 2n; meiosis - prophase I
c) 2n; meiosis - prophase II
d) n; meiosis - metaphase II

A

b) 2n; meiosis - prophase I

78
Q

In females, meiosis II is completed only after what?
a) Fertilization
b) Ovulation
c) Menstruation
d) Menopause

A

a) Fertilization

79
Q

Spermatids are ____ and can be found after _____

A

Spermatids are n and can be found after meiosis II

80
Q

During what stage of early emrbyo development does differentiation occur?
a) Zygote
b) 16 cell embryo
c) Morula
d) Blastocyst

81
Q

All oocytes are arrested at _________ until puberty (ovulation).

A

All oocytes are arrested at prophase I until puberty (ovulation)

82
Q

The secondary oocyte is arrested in ___________ at which stage ovulation occurs.

A

The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II at which stage ovulation occurs.

83
Q

Formation of spermatid from spermatogonia

A

Spermatocytogenesis

84
Q

Morphological change of spermatid into spermatozoa

A

Spermiogenesis

85
Q

What type of hormone are androgens?
a) Steroid
b) Eicosanoid
c) Amine
d) Protein/peptide

A

a) steroid

86
Q

Steroid hormones would bind to ______ receptors while protein hormones would bind to ______ receptors

A

Steroid hormones would bind to intracellular receptors while protein hormones would bind to cell membrane receptors

87
Q

The luteal phase of the estrous cycle is influenced by the presence of __________

A

Progesterone

88
Q

What follicular layer produces estrogen and inhibin?

A

Granulosa cells

89
Q

Which hormone directly initiates luteolysis?

90
Q

Which follicle has an oocyte surrounded by a single layer of cuboidal cells?

A

Primary follicle

91
Q

What follicle has an oocyte surrounded by a single layer of squamous cells?

A

Primordial follicle

92
Q

Which follicle has fluid accumulating within the cavity forming the antrum?

A

Antral follicle

93
Q

What layer is the connective tissue?
a) Theca externa
b) Theca interna
c) Granulosa cells

A

a) Theca externa

94
Q

What layer produces androgens under LH stimulation?
a) Theca externa
b) Theca interna
c) Granulosa cells

A

b) Theca interna

95
Q

What layer produces estrogen, inhibin, and follicular fluid in response to FSH?
a) Theca externa
b) Theca interna
c) Granulosa cells

A

c) Granulosa cells

96
Q

True or False
The preantral phase is dependent on FSH and LH

A

False it is independent of FSH and LH

97
Q

True or False
The Antral Phase requires gonadotropins FSH and LH

98
Q

Where does fertilization and cleavage occur?

99
Q

What structure changes in order to block polyspermy?
a) Cumulus cells
b) Acrosome
c) Zona Pellucida
d) Nuclear envelope

A

c) Zona Pellucida

100
Q

When oocytes get arrested in prophase I they are:
a) 2N 2C
b) 1N 2c
c) 2N 4C
d) 1N 1C

101
Q

When mammals are born, what stage of oogenesis are they in?
a) Mitosis I
b) Meiosis I
c) Mitosis II
d) Prophase I

A

b) Meiosis I

102
Q

Meiosis I results in a _____ oocte ( n and 2C) and a _____ _____

A

Meiosis I results in a Secondary oocyte (1n and 2C) and a Polar body

103
Q

During ovulation, the oocyte and cumulus mass are moved into the _________ of uterine tubes by fimbria.

A

During ovulation, the oocyte and cumilar mass are moved into the infundibulum of uterine tubes by fimbria

104
Q

Why are male mammals able to continually produce sperm throughout their life?

A

They are born with spermatogonium that can undergo multiple mitosis

105
Q

How long does it take sperm to fully develop and at what body temperature do they need?

A

60 days or so, temp must be 34C/93F

106
Q

When does the first haploid cell occur in spermatogenesis?

A

At the formation of the Secondary spermatocytes

107
Q

What is the last cell after cell division in spermatogenesis? These cells then undergo morphological changes into spermatozoa.

108
Q

What is the undifferentiated male germ cell?

A

Spermatogonium

109
Q

What is the primary source of testosterone in males?

A

Leydig Cells

110
Q

What does totipotent mean?

A

Capable of giving rise to a complete embryo

111
Q

Polarized cells in the blastocyst that will form the embryo

A

Inner Cell Mass

112
Q

The external embryonic tissue and develops the chorion (placenta)

A

Trophoblast

113
Q

What portion of the placenta is attached to the uterus?

114
Q

In the allantochorion, what portion faces the uterus?

A

Chorionic portion

115
Q

In the allantochorion, what portion faces the embryo?

116
Q

The reproductive system develops at the same time as the _____ system

A

Renal system

117
Q

The female hypothalamus contains 2 functional areas for secretion of GnRH. What are they?

A

Tonic (ARC) and Surge (POA) centers

118
Q

A committed follicle has 4 possible outcomes. What are they?

A

Remain quiescent
Die
Begin development and atresia later
Develop and ovulate

119
Q

Which of the following hormones are usually synthesized as an inactive molecule in the ER?
a) Protein Hormone
b) Amine hormone
c) Steroid hormone
d) All of the above

A

a) Protein hormone

120
Q

FSH is an example of what type of hormone?
a) Amine
b) Steroid
c) Protein/peptide/glycoprotein

A

c) Protein/Peptide/Glycoprotein

121
Q

Which of the following hormones would bind to a nuclear receptor?
a) Thyroxine
b) Insulin
c) Dopamine
d) ACTH

A

a) Thyroxine

122
Q

The hypothalamus secretes all of the following except
a) TRH
b) TSH
c) CRH
d) GnRH

123
Q

The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system is responsible for which of the following:
a) Carry hormones from both pituitary glands to the hypothalamus
b) Carry hormones from hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland
c) Carry hormones from the hypothalamus to the AP gland
d) Carry hormones from the hypothalamus to both pituitary glands

A

c) Carry hormones from the hypothalamus to the AP gland

124
Q

Which hormone controls the rate of water excretion into the urine and which pituitary gland releases it?
a) Vasopressin and AP gland
b) Somatostatin and Posterior Pituitary
c) Vasopressin and Posterior pituitary
d) Somatostatin and AP gland

A

c) Vasopressin and Posterior pituitary gland

125
Q

Which of the following is NOT a target of the hormones released from the AP gland?
a) Mammary glands
b) Collecting ducts of the kidney
c) Bones
d) Ovaries

A

b) Collecting ducts of the kidney

126
Q

True or False
The Neurohypophysis refers to the posterior pituitary gland

127
Q

True or False
The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin

128
Q

True or False
The target hormone can cause negative and positive feedback on both the hypophysis and the hypothalamus

129
Q

Which extraembryonic membrane is responsible for collecting secretions from the embryo?
a) Yolk sac
b) Allantois
c) Amnion
d) Chorion

A

b) Allantois

130
Q

Which species uses estradiol as the mechanism for maternal recognition of pregnancy
a) Porcine
b) Equine
c) Bovine
d) Canine

A

a) Porcine

131
Q

Primary oocytes have what chromosome count
a) 2N 2C
b) N 2C
c) 2N 4C
d) N 4C

132
Q

True or False
Primary germ cells differentiate into oogonia which then multiply by mitosis

133
Q

Which of the following cells produce testosterone?
a) Leydig
b) Sertoli
c) Spermatogonium
d) Granulosa

134
Q

Which of the following refers to the luteal phase of the female estrous cycle?
a) Estrus
b) Anestrus
c) Diestrus
d) None of the above

A

c) Diestrus

135
Q

During diestrus which of the following does NOT occur?
a) Progesterone causes positive feedback on pituitary for production of LH
b) FSH and LH act on corpus luteum
c) Estrogen causes positive feedback on pituitary for FSH production
d) Estrogen causes negative feedback on pituitary for LH production

A

a) Progesterone causes positive feedback on pituitary for production of LH

136
Q

During the Estrus cycle, which of the following occurs?
a) FSH causes negative feedback on the follicle
b) Estrogen production from follicle causes positive feedback for FSH
c) Inhibin production from the follicle causes positive feedback for FSH
d) Estrogen production from follicle causes positive feedback for LH

A

d) Estrogen production from follicle causes positive feedback for LH

137
Q

The zona pellucida forms during which follicular development stage?
a) Primordial follicle
b) Primary follicle
c) Secondary follicle
d) Antral follicle

A

c) Secondary follicle

138
Q

Which cells of the antral follicle are responsible for producing estrogen and inhibin?
a) Theca externa
b) Theca interna
c) Granulosa cells
d) All of the above

A

c) Granulosa cells

139
Q

True or False
Theca interna cells are responsive to LH stimulation

140
Q

Which of the following cells differentiate into luteal cells?
a) Theca interna
b) Granulosa cells
c) Theca interna and Granulosa cells
d) None of the above

A

c) theca interna and granulosa

141
Q

Primary germ cells originate near ________ ______ and migrate to developing ovary (genital ridge)

142
Q

When does ovulation occur?

A

During second Meiotic division

143
Q

In dogs, when is ovulation?

A

Prophase 1 (before completion of meiosis I, before release of 1st polar body)

144
Q

Where does maturation of oocyte occur in dogs?

145
Q

Sperm gain ability to fertilize during _________ ________

A

Epididymal transit

146
Q

How long does it take sperm to move from site of deposition to the uterine tube?

A

Minutes to hours

147
Q

Sperm reservoir and acts as a conduit to transport sperm from the uterus to the ampulla and embryos from the site of fertilization into the uterine lumen

148
Q

Funnel shaped portion nearest the ovary

A

Infundibulum

149
Q

What is acrosomal reaction?

A

A calcium dependent reaction that allows sperm penetraton into the oocyte, occurring upon contact of sperm with zona pellucida

150
Q

True or False
Only acrosome-intact sperm bind to zona pellucida

151
Q

What is the specific binding site for sperm on the zona pellucida?

152
Q

What is required before sperm can fuse with oocytes?

A

Completion of acrosome reaction

153
Q

After sperm penetration into the oocyte, the oocyte completes meiosis and expels the second polar body. What happens to the remaining haploid/maternal chromosomes?

A

They are enclosed in the pronucleus

154
Q

Where does early cleavage occur?

A

Uterine tubes

155
Q

How long does it take the zygote to reach the uterus in cows, horses and dogs (respectively)

A

cows - 4 days
horses - 6 days
dogs - 8 days

156
Q

At what stage does the zygote reach the uterus in cows and sheep?

A

16 cell/compact morula stage

157
Q

At what stage does the zygote reach the uterus in mares and dogs?

A

Morula/early bastocyst

158
Q

In what species do only fertilized zygotes get transported through the uterine tubes (oviductal papilla)

159
Q

The blastocyst hatches out from the zona pellucida, which is the beginning of implantation. When does this happen for most species? Horses?

A

7-10 days in most species
9-10 days in horses

160
Q

Why is the rounded embryo shape maintained in horses?

A

They have a capsule surrounding the ZP

161
Q

What happens to PGF2a in the anti-luteolytic stage of maternal recognition?

A

Diversion and Inhibition of PGF2a secretion

162
Q

What is maintained in the Luteotropic stage of maternal recognition?

A

Corpus luteum

163
Q

True or False
The pregnant and nonpregnant cycle is similar for the first 14-16 days

164
Q

In what species does maternal recognition involve the trophoectoderm producing interferon tau?

165
Q

What is true of interferon tau?
a) Inhibits oxytocin receptor
b) Inhibits PGF2a
c) Stimulates endometrial glands
d) all of the above

A

d) All of the above

166
Q

In what species does maternal recognition involve estrogen, in which the blastocyst produces estradiol?

167
Q

When is movement of equine embryo maximal?

A

Days 10-12

168
Q

Equine embryo migrates through both uterine horns and body several times a day. How many horn changes can occur?

A

Up to 18 per day

169
Q

Movement of embryo in equine is mediated by what structure?

170
Q

If movement is prevented in equine embryo what happens?

A

Results in pregnancy loss

Cell Bio (8 decks)

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