Endocrine Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What (7) hormones does the anterior pituitary produce?

A

Growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, prolactin, melanocyte-stimulating hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What (2) hormones does the posterior pituitary produce?

A

Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General adverse effects of pituitary medications

A

Development of allergy, headache, weakness, diarrhea, HTN, weight gain, Elevated LFTs,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is antidiuretic hormone?

A

Hormone that enhances reabsorption of water in the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Desmopressin acetate and Vasopressin?

A

They are antidiuretic hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Desmopressin acetate the preferred treatment for?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is vasopressin the preferred treatment for?

A

Septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Side effects of antidiuretic hormones

A

Flushing, headache, nausea, water intoxication (basically electrolyte imbalance), HTN, nasal congestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of water intoxication

A

Drowsiness, listlessness, shortness of breath, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are Somatropin, Norditropin and Mecasermin?

A

They are all growth hormone medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are Octreotide acetate, Lanreotide, and Pegvisomant?

A

They are all growth hormone receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are thyroid hormones?

A

They are the hormones that control the metabolic rate of tissues and accelerate heat production and oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of medications do thyroid hormones enhance?

A

Oral anticoagulants, sympathomimetics, antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What kind of medications do thyroid hormones decrease the efficacy of

A

Insulin, oral hypoglycemics, digitalis preparations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Special consideration for giving thyroid meds?

A

Must give at least 4 hours apart from multivitamins, aluminium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, simethicone, calcium carbonate, Sevelamer, lanthanum, bile acid sequestrants, iron, sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Side effects of thyroid hormone

A

Nausea, decreased appetite, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, nervousness, insomnia, sweating, heat intolerance, tachycardia, HTN, headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do we take thyroid medications?

A

Same time every day, in the morning, an hour before eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroid?

A

fast heart rate, chest pain, palpitations, excessive sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are antithyroid medications?

A

These medications that inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Side effects of antithyroid medications

A

Nausea, diarrhea, drowsines, headache, fever, hypersensitivity, alopecia, hyperpigmentation, agranulocytosis, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are Methimazole, Propylthiouracil, Potassium iodide and strong iodine solution

A

They are anithyroid medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are levothyroxine sodium, liothyronine sodium and liotrix?

A

They are thyroid hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is iodism?

- What are the signs of this?

A

Too much iodine in the body, usually caused by prolonged use of strong iodine solution
- vomiting, abdominal pain, metallic/brassy taste in your mouth, rash, sore gums and salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do we take antithyroid meds with or without food?

A

We take them with food to avoid GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is thyroid storm?

- What are the symptoms?

A

It is an acute exaccerbation of hyperthyroidism.

- fever, flushed skin, confusion, behavioural changes, tachycardia, dysrhythmias, signs of heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a side effect specific to Methimazole?

A

Agranulocytosis: Severe form of leukopenia that can lead to sores and infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is parathyroid medication?

A

They are medications that regulate serum calcium levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism?

A

Syndrome that results in a high serum calcium level and bone demineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is hypoparathyroid?

A

Syndrome that results in a low serum calcium level, increasing muscle excitability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What cannot be administered with calcium salts?

A

Cannot administer digoxin, as it increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What cannot be administered with oral calcium salts?

A

Tetracycline hydrochloride as it redces the absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name the (6) oral calcium supplements

A

Calcium acetate, calcum carbonate, calcium citrate, calcium glubionate, calcium gluconate, tribasic calcium phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name the (2) Vitamin D supplements

A

Cholecalciferol and Ergocalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name the (8) Biphosphonates and Calcium regulators?

A

Alendronate sodium, Calcotonin salmon, etidronate disodium, ibandronate, pamidronate disodium, risedronate sodium, tiludronate sodium, zoledronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name the (4) general medicines to treat hypercalcemia

A

Cinacalcet hydrochloride, doxercalciferol, calcitonin, paricalcitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What vitamin enhances the absorption of calcium?

A

Vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Special considerations do we have to follow for taking calcium regulators?

A

Must take tablet whole, with water, at least 30 mins prior to eating and do not lie down for at least 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When do we give calcium supplements?

A

We dont give any other medications within one hour of taking calcium supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are mineralocorticoids?

A

Steroid hormones that enhance the reabsorption of sodium and chloride and promote the excretion of potassium and hydrogen from the renal tubules, thereby helping to maintain fluid and electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Fludrocortisone acetate?

A

It is a mineralocorticoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Adverse effects of mineralocorticoids

A

Sodium and water retention, edema, HTN, hypokalmia, hypocalcemia, osteoporosis, weight gain, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

With what must we take Mineralocorticoids?

A

With food or milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What do Glucocorticoids do?

3

A

Affects glucose, protein and bone metabolism.
Alter the normal immune response and suppress inflammation.
Produce antiinflammatory, antiallergic and antistress effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Adverse effects of glucocorticoids

A

Adrenal insufficiency, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, sodium, edema, mood swings, moon face, buffalo hump, hirsutism, acne, fragile skin, GI irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does dexamethasone decrease the effect of?

A

Orally administered anticoagulants and antidiabetic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do barbituates, phenytoin and rifambin decrease the effect of?

A

Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When should we take glucocorticoids?

A

Best to take in the early morning with food or milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the signs of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Moon face, puffy eyelids, edema in the feet, increased bruising, dizziness, bleeding, menstrual irregularities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are Androgens?

A

Medications used to replace deficit hormones or to treat hormone-sensitive disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What alternate effects do Androgens have?

A

Increase effects of anticoagulants, decrease serum glucose, increase risk of hepatic damage, avoided with prostate and breast cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Adverse effects of Androgens

A

Maculine secondary sex characteristics, bladder irritation, UTIs, breast tenderness, gynecomastia, priaprism, virilism, edema, changes in libido

52
Q

Name the (8) glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone, Cortisone acetate, Dexamethasone, Hydrocortisone, Methylprednisolone, Prednisolone, Triamcinolone

53
Q

Name the (10) androgens

A

Methyltestosterone, Testosterone pellets, Testosterone transdermal, Testosterone cypionate, Testosterone enanthate, Testosterone proprionate, Testosterone undecanoate, Testosterone buccal patch, Testosterone topical gel, Testosterone nasal gel

54
Q

When should we take androgens?

A

Anytime with a meal or a snack

55
Q

What do we assess for liver dysfunction?

A

Right upper quadrant abdominal pain, malaise, fever, jaundice, pruritis.

56
Q

What are Estrogens?

A

Steroids that stimulate female reproductive tissue

57
Q

What are Progestins?

A

Steroids that specifically stimulate the uterine lining

58
Q

What are Estrogens and Progestins used for?

A

Stimulate the endogenous hormones to restore hormonal balance or to treat hormone sensitive tumors

59
Q

What are contraindicated with Estrogens

A

Clients with breast cancer, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, history of thromboembolism, pregnancy, lactation,

60
Q

Contraindications of estrogen

A

HTN, gallbladder disease, liver and kidney dysfunction

61
Q

Contraindications of Progestin

A

History of thromboembolic disorders, breast or hepatic disease

62
Q

Side effects of Progestins and Estrogens

A

Breast tenderness, menstrual changes, nausea, malaise, depression, weight gain, edema, atherosclerosis, HTN, MI, thromboembolism

63
Q

What are contraceptives?

A

Medications that contain a combination of estrogen and progestin or progestin alone

64
Q

What specifically do contraceptives suppress?

A

Suppress ovulation, change cervical mucus making it difficult to make sperm enter

65
Q

Contraindications of contraceptives

A

Avoid use with hepatotoxic meds, bromocriptine mesylate, anticoagulants, and tricyclic antidepressants

66
Q

What decreases the effectiveness of antibiotics?

A

Contraceptives

67
Q

Adverse effects of contraceptives

A

Breakthrough bleeding, excessive cervical mucus formation, breast tenderness, HTN, nausea and vomiting.

68
Q

How long can it take for contraceptives to take effect?

A

May take up to a week for full effectiveness

69
Q

How should the contraceptive patch be worn?

A

Worn for 3 weeks and then removed for 1-week. Using a new location each time.

70
Q

What should be done if the contraceptive patch falls off?

A

If it is off under 24hrs then just stick it (or a new one) back on. If it is off over 24hrs then you must re-start a whole 4 week cycle.

71
Q

How should the vaginal ring be worn?

A

Inserted and left for 3 weeks and removed for 1 week.

72
Q

How long to contraceptives implants and depot shots last?

A

From 3 months to 5 years

73
Q

What are fertility medications?

A

Medications that act to stimulate follicle development and ovulation in functioning ovaries and are combined ith human chorionic gonadotropin to maintain the follicles once ovulation has occured.

74
Q

Contraindications of fertility medications

A

In the presence of primary ovary dysfunction, thyroid or adrenal dysfunction, ovarian cysts, pregnancy, or idiopathic uterine bleeding.

75
Q

Side effects of fertility medications

A

Risk of multiple births, ovarian overstimulation, headache, irritability, bloating, nausea, uterine bleeding, ovarian enlargement, gynecomastia, fever

76
Q

Signs of ovarian hyperstimulation

A

Abdominal pain, distention, ascites, pleural effusion

77
Q

Name the (7) fertility medications

A

Chorionic gonadotropin, Clomiphene citrate, Follitropin alfa, Follitropin beta, Menotropins, Urofollitropin, Cetrorelix

78
Q

What is insulin?

A

A hormone that increases glucose transport into the cells and promotes conversion of glucose to glycogen, decreasing serum glucose levels

79
Q

What are Oral antidiabetic agents?

A

Medications that stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin, increase the sensitivity of peripheral receptors to produce insulin, decrease hepatic glucose output, delay intestinal absorption of glucose, enhance the activity of incretins and promote glucose loss through the kidney

80
Q

What kind of oral antidiabetic agents can be used by type 1 diabetics?

A

Only the sodium glucose co transporter 2 inhibitors can be used by type 1 diabetics

81
Q

What do we have to watch for with antidiabetic medication use?

A

We have to be aware that they can cause hypoglycemia abd that some medications may also mask the symptoms of this

82
Q

Adverse effects of Sulfonylureas

- What happens if you take this with alcohol?

A

GI symptoms, dermatological reactions and hypoglycemia.
If combined with alcohol may cause a disulfiram-type reaction (flushing, tachycardia, nausea, thirst, vertigo hypotension).

83
Q

Name the (3) Sulfonylureas

A

Glimepiride, Glipzide, Glyburide

84
Q

When might additional insulin be needed for those on oral antidiabetic agents?

A

During times of increased stress, surgery or infection

85
Q

When should Metformin be withheld?

A

When the patient is going to have a procedure with contrast. Usually, hold the 1 dose before and for 48 hours after.

86
Q

How does insulin act?

A

Acts primarily on the liver, muscle and adipose tissue by attaching to receptors on cellular membranes and facilitating the passage of glucose, potassium, and magnesium

87
Q

Who is prescribed insulin?

A

Type1 diabetics and type 2 diabetics whose blood glucose is nt adequately controlled by oral antidiabetic agents

88
Q

Where are the main insulin injection sites?

- which site has the most even absorption

A

Abdomen, arms, thighs and hips

- The abdomen may absorb more evenly and quickly than the other sites

89
Q

How would a patient use the systematic rotation method of insulin injection?

A

This means that if the patient uses only one anatomical area for insulin injection they shouldnt be injecting into exactly the same spot for 2-3 weeks. (Just make sure that they are using different spots in the same anatomical region).

90
Q

What concentration is insulin in?

A

All insulins are concentrated 100units/ml.

Humulin R does come in a special concentrated 500 units/ml formulation.

91
Q

What is the gauge and length of an inuslin needle?

A

The syringes are usually 27-29 gauge and 0.5inch long

92
Q

What is the most common biguanide medication?

- What is it’s action

A

Metformin is a Biguanide medication

- This decreases glucose production by the liver and increases tissue response to insulin

93
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Second-generation sulfonylureas?

A

Promotes insulin secretion by the pancreas, may also increase tissue response to insulin

94
Q

Name the (2) Meglitinides

A

Nateglinide and Repaglinide

95
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Meglitinides

A

They promote insulin secretion by the pancreas

96
Q

Name the (2) Thiazolidinediones

A

Pioglitazone and Rosiglitazone

97
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Thiazolidinediones

A

Decrease insulin resistance, by increasing glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue and decrease glucose production by the liver.

98
Q

Name the (2) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Acarbase and Miglitol

99
Q

Mechanism of action for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

Delay carbohydrates digestion and absorption, thereby decreasing the postprandial rise in blood glucose

100
Q

Name the (4) DPP-4 inhibitors aka Gliptins

A

Alogliptin, Linagliptin, Saxagliptin, Sitagliptin

101
Q

Mechanism of action for Gliptins

A

Enhance the activity of incretins and thereby increase insulin release, reduce glucagon release and decrease hepatic glucose production.

102
Q

Name the (3) Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

A

Canagliflozin, Dapagliflozin, and Empagliflozin

103
Q

Mechanism of action for sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors

A

Increase glucose excretion via the urine by inhibiting sodium-glucose co-transporter in the kidney tubules, decreasing glucose levels and inducing weight loss via caloric loss through urine

104
Q

Name the dopamine agonist antidiabetic medication

- What is it’s mechanism of action

A

Bromocriptine

- Activates dopamine receptors in the central nervous system. How it actually regulates blood glucose is unknown

105
Q

Name the (3) Incretin Mimetics

A

Exenatide, Liraglutide and Albiglutide

106
Q

Mechanism of action for Incretin Mimetics

A

Lowers blood glucose by slowing gastric emptying, stimulating glucose-dependent insulin release, suppressing postprandial glucagon release and reducing appetite

107
Q

Name the Amylin Mimetic

- What is the mechanism of action

A

Pramlintide

- Delays gastric emptying and suppresses glucagon secretion, decreasing the postprandial rise in glucose

108
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for Insulin Lispro

A

Onset: 15-30 mins
Peak: 30 mins - 2.5 hrs
Duration: 3-6 hrs

109
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for Insulin Aspart

A

Onset: 10-20 mins
Peak: 1-3hrs
Duration: 3-5hrs

110
Q

What is onset, peak and duration for Insulin Glulisine

A

Onset: 10-15 mins
Peak: 1-1.5hrs
Duration: 3-5hrs

111
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for Regular Insulin

A

Onset: 30-60 mins
Peak: 1-5 hours
Duration: 6-10 hours

112
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for NPH Insulin

A

Onset: 60-120 mins
Peak: 6-14hrs
Duration: 16-24 hrs

113
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for Insulin Glargine

A

Onset: 70 mins
Peak: none
Duration: 18-24hrs

114
Q

What is the onset, peak and duration for Insulin Detemir

A

Onset: 60-120 mins
Peak: 12-24hrs
Duration: varies

115
Q

Before administering cloudy or NPH insulin what must you do?

A

We must roll the bottle between out hands to mix the suspension (do not shake as this causes bubbles)

116
Q

What is the rule for drawing up two insulins in one syringe?

A

We MUST draw up the shortest acting insulin first.

Put air in both vials, draw up short, draw up long

117
Q

How long within mixing two insulins must we administer them?

A

We have to administer the mixed insulin within 5-15 mins otherwise the short-acting binds to the long reducing its action

118
Q

What are Glucagon-like peptide receptor agonists (aka Incretin Mimetics)

A

They cause the same effects as the incretin hormone in the body. Restore first phase insulin response, lower the production of glucagon after meals, slowing gastric emptying, reduce fasting and postprandial blood glucose levels and reduce caloric intake, resulting in weight loss.

119
Q

Who uses glucagon-like peptide receptor agonists

A

Type 2 diabetics who are not taking insulin

120
Q

How are Exenatide, Liraglutide and Albiglutide administered?

A

Exenatide: injected BID within 60 mins before breakfast and dinner. (do not give after meals, if missed wait until next dose.
Liraglutide: Injected once daily regardless of meals
Albiglutide: Injected once weekly

121
Q

Special consideration for non-insulin injectable medications

A

Should give other oral medications an hour before injection as it causes delayed gastric emptying.

122
Q

What is an Amylin Mimetic?

A

Synthetic form of Amylin, a hormone secreted by the pancreas

123
Q

How is Pramlintide given?

A

Injected before meals to lower blood glucose after the meal, leading to less fluctuation during the day and better long-term glucose control.

124
Q

Special considerations for Pramlintide

A

Must give other oral medications 1 hour before or 2 hours after the injection as it causes delayed gastric emptying.

125
Q

What is glucagon?

A

Hormone secreted by the alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans that increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis in the liver.

126
Q

What is Glucagon used for?

- How quickly does it begin to work?

A

Treats insulin-induced hypoglycemia when the patient is unable to ingest liquids.
- It begins to raise blood glucose within 5-20 mins