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Paramedic School > EMT 222 > Flashcards

EMT 222 Flashcards

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1
Q

The time of the patient’s last ______helps determine the appropriateness of surgery.

A

Oral intake

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a scene size up?

A

Determine what resources are needed

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3
Q

What is the paramedic’s first priority?

A

Personal safety

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4
Q

The secondary assessment consists of physical examination techniques, measurement of vital signs, an assessment of body systems, and what other element?

A

skillful use of examination equipment

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5
Q

What does the letter Q represent in the mnemonic memory device, OPQRST?

A

quality

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6
Q

What is the primary survey’s main objective?

A

identify and manage life threats

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7
Q

What is the first action to take place during scene size up?

A

scene safety

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8
Q

What exam technique is considered a form of invasion and should be initiated with respect?

A

palpation

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9
Q

You respond to a complaint of abdominal pain. Which mnemonic memory device can help you better understand the patient’s chief complaint?

A

OPQRST

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10
Q

What should a paramedic do if a patient displays hostile or aggressive behavior?

A

Retreat from scene

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11
Q

The paramedic determines that a patient in respiratory failure requires an advanced airway. During which phase should this determination take place?

A

primary survey

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12
Q

During what aspect of patient care should vital signs be obtained?

A

general survey

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13
Q

Which of the following questions is the most open-ended?

A

“what is the pain like”

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14
Q

How should paramedics deal with downed power lines?

A

Wait until trained professionals arrive

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15
Q

Paramedics approach a patient lying supine on the pavement after being ejected during a motor vehicle collision and note cyanosis. What is the next step on the primary survey?

A

Verify level of consciousness

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16
Q

What does poor skin turgor indicate?

A

dehydration

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17
Q

When asking a patient about medication use, what should the paramedic include?

A

Prescription and over-the-counter medications as well as herbs and homeopathic medications

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18
Q

Who is responsible for controlling traffic, managing bystanders and containing any violence at the scene?

A

Law enforcement

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19
Q

The paramedic should be on the scene of a critical trauma patient for no more than ____ minutes.

A

10

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20
Q

Paramedics have discovered that a patient has aphasia. What would the paramedic be assessing to discover such an abnormal finding?

A

Speech and language

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21
Q

The budget of a typical EMS system is primarily dependent on

A

reimbursement

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22
Q

Which of the following is subjective data?

A

a complaint of chest pressure

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23
Q

Which of the following statements contains both objective and subjective information?

A

“The patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache.”

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24
Q

Which of the following is the least important reason for accurately documenting a patient care encounter?

A

to help with promotion

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25
Q

Which of the following pertains more to a police report than to a patient care report?

A

Pertinent ballistics data

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26
Q

Tracked information from the patient care report may be required for:

A

police records

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27
Q

What needs to be documented when revising a patient care report?

A

The reason for the revision

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28
Q

Which is the last step in the CHART method?

A

patient transport

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29
Q

When choosing details to include in a patient care report, a paramedic should:

A

provide accurate, complete details

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30
Q

Which statement regarding revisions or corrections to a patient care report is correct?

A

Only the person who wrote the original report can revise or correct it.

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31
Q

EMS radio systems are designed to allow the use of one channel by multiple users at the same time through the inclusion of:

A

the continuous tone-controlled squelch system

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32
Q

EMS in the NATO alphabet is:

A

Echo Mike Sierra

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33
Q

If you were designing an EMS communication system for a very hilly county in your state, what radio band would be the best?

A

Very high frequency high band

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34
Q

A cell is

A

an area covered by one communication antenna

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35
Q

If all the dispatchers at a particular location are taking emergency calls, a well-designed EMS dispatch center’s phones will:

A

forward the call to an alternate dispatch center

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36
Q

In a city of 1,000,000 residents, EMS calls would be handled by public safety answering points while fire calls would be handled by:

A

a second public safety answering point

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37
Q

Dispatch training should meet the standers set by:

A

the NHTSA

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38
Q

When speaking with a patient:

A

do everything possible to maintain confidentiality

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39
Q

What kind of time scale can be obtained for data in most EMS systems today?

A

near real time

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40
Q

A communications system allows an EMS agency to exchange:

A

needed information

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41
Q

African American patients who are homosexuals are more likely to have:

A

STD

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42
Q

Who is most immediately helped by feedback in therapeutic communication?

A

sender

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43
Q

What can encourage patients to end a refusal to talk?

A

approval cooperation

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44
Q

Which of the following behaviors falls outside of defense mechanisms?

A

confrontation

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45
Q

When working in a neighborhood high in LGBTQ individuals, you may deal with more cases of:

A

attempted suicide

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46
Q

To help in interacting with patients, a paramedic should wear:

A

a clean, professional uniform to gain respect

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47
Q

When a patient deflects the questions asked by a paramedic, the paramedic should:

A

use the deflection to gently redirect to the cause

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48
Q

If you are working with an uncooperative patient, you may have to accept:

A

that not all information may be able to be obtained

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49
Q

What has occurred when a paramedic describes a technique in Spanish to a non-English-speaking patient?

A

encoding

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50
Q

If a patient becomes alarmed when a paramedic moves close to the patient to apply a bandage there may be issues with:

A

culturally defined personal space

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51
Q

To obtain more information about possible sexual abuse, the paramedic should be:

A

nonjudgmental

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52
Q

Giving positive feedback to encourage the patient during history taking is called:

A

facilitation

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53
Q

Orthopnea indicates that the chief concern is related to the:

A

cardiovascular system

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54
Q

Surgery may need to be delayed if a patient reports an intake of food less than BLANK hours before emergency department admission.

A

2

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55
Q

Which of the following is a personal habit rather than an environmental condition?

A

diet

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56
Q

The paramedic should carefully assess the chest when a patient complains of:

A

hemoptysis

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57
Q

A 70 y/o woman with a history of angina needs emergency help. Which of the following will provide the most information to paramedics about her heart condition?

A

patient history

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58
Q

In triage, which patient would receive care first?

A

critical

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59
Q

If you have to “read between the lines” while working on a patient history, what technique are you using?

A

interpretation

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60
Q

When assessing a 40 y/o woman complaining of abdominal pain, you should inquire about:

A

her LMP

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61
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes scene size-up?

A

It includes personal safety of emergency response personnel?

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62
Q

An example of an environmental hazard that may affect scene safety is:

A

icy conditions

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63
Q

Which of the following may be inferred from an unresponsive patient who lacks a palpable femoral pulse?

A

Cardiopulmonary arrest

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64
Q

If a condition poses a threat to bystanders, what should be done?

A

The bystanders should be moved to a safer area

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65
Q

What is the most important question to be answered when evaluating an emergency scene?

A

Is the scene safe for personnel to enter?

66
Q

If a patient is armed and there is a possible safety issue, what should the paramedic do?

A

retreat until law enforcement secures the weapon

67
Q

If a scene is not safe, what should the EMS crew do?

A

Remain in a safe staging area and request additional resources

68
Q

In what age range is the capillary refill test most reliable?

A

Under 12 years

69
Q

In a Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patients with severe dyspnea, what percentage of participants showed nasal flaring?

A

47%

70
Q

In the Spanish study of the relationship between nasal flaring and acidosis in patients with severe dyspnea, how much more likely was nasal flaring associated with acidosis compared to any other sign of respiratory distress?

A

10 times

71
Q

The 12 cranial nerves can be categorized as sensory, somatomotor, proprioceptive, and BLANK?

A

parasympathetic

72
Q

How is a child’s general appearance best assessed?

A

from a distance

73
Q

Which of the following physical examination findings can be evaluated through palpation?

A

Crepitus

74
Q

For adults older than 59 years, blood pressure typically exceeds BLANK mm Hg before treatment is started

A

150/90

75
Q

Which of the following conditions may cause priapism?

A

leukemia

76
Q

A chest wall deformity characterized by an indention of the lower sternum above the xiphoid process is know as:

A

funnel chest

77
Q

During auscultation of the heart, the “dub” sound is caused by:

A

closure of the pulmonic valve

78
Q

What type of skin lesion is seen in rosacea?

A

Telengiectasia

79
Q

Turgor refers to:

A

the elasticity of the skin

80
Q

Dysarthria can be described as:

A

poorly articulated speech

81
Q

During which stage of crew resource management must team leaders acknowledge the emotions that come with a challenge to their orders?

A

decision

82
Q

Which of the following statements about effective assessment is accurate?

A

Some field situations may limit the thoroughness of the examination

83
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of protocols, standing orders, and patient care algorithms?

A

They do not address multiple disease etiologies or multiple treatments modalities

84
Q

Which of the following describes pattern recognition in EMS assessment?

A

A situation in which the history and physical examination match a recognized pattern of illness

85
Q

Which of the following actions is included in the evaluation component of critical thinking?

A

revision of field impression

86
Q

The ability to quickly focus thinking to get the desired results depending on the situation is known as:

A

critical thinking

87
Q

Which of the following is an element that should be included in the challenge portion of the PACE procedure?

A

A statement of the occurrence that is believed to be a threat

88
Q

Which of the following is an example of a distracting injury?

A

Dislocated shoulder

89
Q

Which of the following may increase patient compliance?

A

acting and appearing professional and competent

90
Q

The quality of data interpretation relies on:

A

the paramedic’s intuition

91
Q

electronic program used in prehospital setting to record all patient care activities and circumstances related to response

A

electronic patient care report

92
Q

portion of that PCR that allows a provider to describe events during a call not captured in prepopulated boxes

A

narriative

93
Q

information based on observable facts such as clinical signs

A

objective information

94
Q

findings that warrant no medical care or intervention but that provide evidence of the thoroughness of the Pt exam and the history of event

A

pertinent negative findings

95
Q

information based on opinions expressed by patient or other or info based on subjected feeling of the patient such as clinical symptoms

A

subjective information

96
Q

pt primary complaint reason for EMS call

A

chief complaint

97
Q

paramedics primary concern related to patient conditions

A

chief concern

98
Q

contextual continuous and evolving process in which data are gathered interpreted and evaluated so as to select an evidence based choice of action

A

clinical decision making

99
Q

use of the results of questions to think about associated problems and system changes related to pt condition

A

clinical reasoning

100
Q

pt current state of health

A

current health status

101
Q

weighing the probability of one disease verses that of another possibility accounting for the pt illness

A

differential diagnosis

102
Q

questions that determine why the patient is seeking medical care or advice

A

opening questions

103
Q

pt medical background which may offer insight into pt current problem

A

past medical history

104
Q

chief complain identification of present illness is supported by full clear chronologic account of the symptoms

A

present illness

105
Q

an immediate assessment of the enviornment and the patient chief complaint used to determine whether the patient is ill or injured and the NOI and MOI

A

general impression

106
Q

nature of the force exerted on the body that produced physical injury

A

mechanism of injury

107
Q

principal characteristics and causes of an illness

A

nature of illness

108
Q

combo of scene size up and initial patient eval used to establish scene safety to recognize and manage life threatening conditions

A

primary assessment

109
Q

critical component of the primary assessment that focuses of the initial evaluation of a patient to recognize and manage life threatening conditions

A

primary survey

110
Q

patients who need immediate care and transport

A

priority patients

111
Q

life saving measures preformed immediately such as airway control ventilatory assistance control of bleeding and cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A

resuscitative measure

112
Q

area away from emergency scene that provides safety

A

safe staging area

113
Q

assessment of the scene to promote scene safety of the paramedic crew patient and bystanders

A

scene size up

114
Q

condition characterized by unequil pupil size

A

anisocoria

115
Q

loss of ability to understand or express speech

A

aphasia

116
Q

failure of muscle coordination

A

ataxia

117
Q

minimum level of blood pressure measured between contractions of the heart

A

diastolic BP

118
Q

difficult and poorly articulated speech resulting from poor control over the muscles of speech

A

dysarthria

119
Q

abnormality in the speaking voice such as hoarseness

A

dysphonia

120
Q

bleeding from the nose

A

epistaxis

121
Q

abnormal heart sounds caused by altered blood flow into a chamber or through a valve

A

heart murmurs

122
Q

test to evaluate stance and balance preformed by having the patient stand erect with eyes closed feet together and arms at the sides

A

romberg test

123
Q

the blood pressure measured during the period of ventricular contractions

A

systolic BP

124
Q

the volume of air inspired or expired in a single resting breath

A

tidal volume

125
Q

SOAP

A

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

126
Q

DACHARTE

A

dispatch
arrival
chief complaint
history
assessment
rx treatment
transport
exceptions

127
Q

visual assessment of the patient and surroundings

A

inspection

128
Q

the hands and fingers to gather information by touch

A

palpation

129
Q

used to evaluate the presence of air or fluid in body tissues

A

percussion

130
Q

use of stethoscope used to assess body sounds made by the movement of various fluids or gasses in the patients organs or tissues

A

auscultation

131
Q

over most of the lung fields and are the major normal breath sounds

A

Vesicular breath sounds

132
Q

are heard over the major bronchi and in the posterior chest between the scapula louder and harsher than vesicular breath sounds

A

bronchovesicular breath sounds

133
Q

Bronchial breath sounds

A

heard only over the trachea and are the highest pitch. Coarse harsh loud with short inspiratory phase and long expiratory

134
Q

high pitched discontinuous sound heard during the end of inspiration like hair being rubbed between fingers.

A

crackle

135
Q

is also known as sibilant wheeze. High pitched musical noises that usually are louder during expiration

A

wheeze

136
Q

known as sonnorous wheezes continuous low pitched rumbling sounds usually heard on expiration

A

ronchi

137
Q

usually on inspiratory crowing type sound that can he beard without aid of a sethoscope

A

stritor

138
Q

low pitched dry rubbing or grating sounds

A

Pleural friction rub

139
Q

use of communication techniques in a planned professional manner to 1. foster a positive relationship with the patient and 2. facilitate a shared understanding of information between the patient and paramedic.

A

therapeutic

140
Q

establish boundaries with hostile patientents and patients who are sexually aggressive

A

boundaries

141
Q

communicating with children, older adults, hard of hearing, visually impaired, under the influence of drugs and alcohol, LGBTQ, cultural

A

adjustments

142
Q

Base station radios

A

fixed positions

143
Q

mobile transceivers

A

vehicle or aircraft

144
Q

portable transceivers

A

handheld or hand carried

145
Q

increases the effective communications range of handheld portable radio mobile radio or base station radio by transmitting received radio signals

A

repeaters

146
Q

cell phones

A

have more channels

147
Q

sophisticated computer-controlled radio system

A

Trunked radio systems

148
Q

digital phones, telemetry, fax, paging, alerting systems

A

digital modes

149
Q

computer technology example

A

AED

150
Q

name a few examples of how to communicate on the radio

A

Think before you speak
Key the microphone for 2-3 seconds before speaking
Speak close range into the mic
Speak slowly and clearly
Speak at a normal pitch and not with emotion
Be brief and concise break up long messages
Avoid codes, dialect, or slang
Advise the reciever when the transmission has been completed
Confirm the receiving party has received the message
Always be professional, polite, and calm

151
Q

give a few examples you ask about in history taking

A

Chief complaint
HPI
OPQRST
Past medical history
Medications
Last oral intake
Family history
LMP
Last BM
Events leading up to the emergency

152
Q

SOAP

A

subjective data, objective data, assessment data, plan of patient management

153
Q

chronological

A

in order of the call

154
Q

cheated

A

chief complaint or concern, history, exam, assessment, treatment, evaluation, disposition

155
Q

chart

A

chief complaint or concern, history, assessment, RX treatment, transport

156
Q

dacharte

A

dispatch, arrival, chief complaint, history, Assessment, rx treatment on scene, transport, exceptions

157
Q

what is seen in scene size up

A

Ensure scene safety
Determine MOI/NOI
Standard precautions
# of patients
Consider specialized resources

158
Q

the paramedic’s initial assessment of the setting and the patient’s chief complaint. It is formed based on the information from the scene size up, the primary assessment, and possibly the secondary assessment.

A

general impression

159
Q

The ability to see a situation from a viewpoint of the person experiencing it

A

empathy

160
Q

The expression of one’s feelings about another person’s problems

A

sympathy

Paramedic School (8 decks)

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