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Paramedic School > EMT 221 > Flashcards

EMT 221 Flashcards

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1
Q

about how much of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to protein?

A

20%

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2
Q

if you are experiencing difficulty placing an Endotracheal tube into an older female patient you should

A

use magill forceps to help guide the tube

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3
Q

after the nose or mouth air passes into the

A

lungs

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4
Q

when initiating airway management on a patient the paramedic should

A

consider spinal precautions

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5
Q

to clear a pharynx of vomitus the paramedic should use a

A

tonsil tip catheter

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6
Q

the larynx sits immediately superior to the

A

trachea

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7
Q

which of the following would most likely cause severe upper airway edema

A

aggressive intubation

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8
Q

the average adult stomach can hold about

A

1.4 L

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9
Q

nasotracheal intubation is contraindicated if a patient has

A

head or nasal trauma

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10
Q

what would have the most dramatic effect on decreasing oxygenation of tissues?

A

blocked capillary flow in the lung

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11
Q

The phrenic nerve originates from which spinal nerves?

A

C3 - C4 - C5

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12
Q

What is an aspect of expiration?

A

Inactive during quiet respiration

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13
Q

What structure contains the chemoreceptors?

A

Arch of the aorta

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14
Q

When stretch receptors are stimulated by expansion of the lungs, information is conveyed to the medulla by which nerve?

A

Vagus

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15
Q

What structure contains the pneumotaxic center?

A

Pons

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16
Q

What is the major difference between the right mainstem bronchus and the left mainstem bronchus?

A

shorter

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17
Q

The intrathoracic pressure is normally _______.

A

Less than atmospheric pressure

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18
Q

Air normally moves into the lungs from the _______.

A

Pressure gradient created when the lungs expand

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19
Q

What is diffusion?

A

The movement of a gas from a higher pressure to a lower pressure across a semipermeable membrane

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20
Q

The normal movement of the diaphragm during inspiration _________.

A

Flattens the diaphragm

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21
Q

The ease with which the lungs expand during inspiration is known as what aspect?

A

Compliance

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22
Q

What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?

A

Lowers the surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse

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23
Q

Scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles are normally used during what occurrence?

A

As accessory muscles during labored breathing

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24
Q

Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding physiologic dead space?

A

Increased in patients with respiratory diseases such as emphysema

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25
Q

Tidal volume is the amount of air _______.

A

Inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath

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26
Q

Minute volume is the amount of air _______.

A

In the tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate

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27
Q

A patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space of 100 mL, and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute has a minute alveolar ventilation of ______L per minute.

A

4

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28
Q

A hiccup results from the stimulation of which structure?

A

diaphragm

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29
Q

What gas is most prevalent in the atmosphere?

A

nitrogen

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30
Q

Blood in the pulmonary vein is ______.

A

high in oxygen

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31
Q

Which reading is a normal PO2?

A

80 - 100 mm Hg

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32
Q

Which reading is a normal PCO2?

A

65 mm Hg

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33
Q

Most of the oxygen in blood is carried ________.

A

Attached to hemoglobin

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34
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the alveolar wall?

A

Interstitial fluid

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35
Q

What is the most important factor in determining the extent to which oxygen combines with hemoglobin?

A

Partial pressure of oxygen in the blood plasma

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36
Q

Which is likely to decrease carbon dioxide production?

A

Resting quietly

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37
Q

The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is carried ________.

A

As bicarbonate ion

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38
Q

What occurs as a result of hyperventilation?

A

Low carbon dioxide levels

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39
Q

What is the major determinant(s) in controlling respiration?

A

Partial pressure of carbon dioxide

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40
Q

A patient with chronic bronchitis is likely to rely on what mechanism to stimulate respiratory drive?

A

Hypoxia

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41
Q

A 45-year-old man chokes on a piece of steak during dinner; he is coughing forcefully. How should the paramedic continue?

A

Monitor the patient

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42
Q

What is the primary cause of airway obstruction in unconscious patients?

A

The tongue

43
Q

The end tidal CO2 detector of an intubated patient in cardiac arrest does not change color. After visually confirming the tube passing through the vocal cords, what should the paramedic suspect?

A

There may be low cardiac output

44
Q

A drop in systolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more during inspiration is known as which occurrence?

A

Pulsus paradoxus

45
Q

What is the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the capillary red blood cells and the tissue cells called?

A

Internal respiration

46
Q

Which respiratory pattern is characterized by an irregular pattern, rate and volume, with intermittent periods of apnea?

A

biots

47
Q

Which respiratory pattern is characterized by rapid,- regular respirations?

A

Central neurogenic hyperventilation

48
Q

What is the component of the oxygen delivery system in which 50 psi oxygen is reduced to 30 psi oxygen for safe patient delivery?

A

Therapy regulator

49
Q

What is the safe residual amount of oxygen a cylinder can contain when considered empty?

A

200 psi

50
Q

What is an advantage of liquid oxygen (LOX) over gaseous oxygen?

A

A larger volume of LOX can be stored in a smaller space

51
Q

The maximum acceptable flow rate for a nasal cannula is ___ L/min.

A

6

52
Q

A nasal cannula delivers ____% oxygen at a flow rate of 6 L/min in optimal conditions.

A

44

53
Q

The minimum oxygen flow rate for any face mask is ____ L/min.

A

4

54
Q

Oxygen concentrations of ____ can be delivered using a simple face mask at a flow rate of 6 - 10 L/min.

A

35% - 60%

55
Q

What is an advantage of a Venturi mask?

A

It can be used to deliver a precise concentration of oxygen

56
Q

What is the most reliable indication that adequate tidal volumes are being delivered during artificial ventilation?

A

Adequate chest rise is observed

57
Q

When delivering mouth-to-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen, what should occur?

A

Provide a minimum flow rate of 10 to 12 L/min

58
Q

The greatest difficulty in using a bag-mask device for ventilation is maintaining which aspect?

A

Adequate mask seal

59
Q

What concentration of oxygen does a bag-mask device with a reservoir and an adequate oxygen source (at least 15 L/min) deliver?

A

100%

60
Q

A bag-mask device for neonates, infants and children should include which aspect?

A

Have a minimum volume of 450 mL

61
Q

Before a second attempt at intubation, a patient should be well ventilated with 100% oxygen for ____ to ____ seconds.

A

15, 30

62
Q

In which position is the head and neck placed when using the sniffing position?

A

Flex the neck and extend the head

63
Q

What is the maximum depth that a catheter should be inserted when suctioning a tracheotomy or stoma?

A

3 to 5 inches

64
Q

To apply cricoid pressure, place firm pressure against which structure?

A

Cricoid cartilage

65
Q

Automatic transport ventilators are typically contraindicated in which type of patients?

A

Under 5 years of age

66
Q

A catheter that is flexible and designed to suction smaller portions of the airway or through an endotracheal tube is known as a _____ catheter.

A

Whistle-tip

67
Q

In ideal circumstances, suctioning of an adult patient should not exceed ___ seconds.

A

10

68
Q

Suctioning (application of negative pressure) should be activated during:

A

Extraction of the suction catheter

69
Q

Placement of a nasogastric or orogastric tube is confirmed by which assessment aspect?

A

Auscultating over the epigastrium while injecting 30 to 50 mL of air

70
Q

The nasopharyngeal airway should be measured from which point?

A

The tip of the nose to the earlobe

71
Q

While inserting the nasal airway, the beveled tip should be directed toward which point?

A

Septum of the nose

72
Q

Oropharyngeal airways are designed to perform which maneuver?

A

Prevent the tongue from obstructing the glottis

73
Q

The endotracheal (ET) tube size refers to the ____ in millimeters.

A

Internal diameter

74
Q

Cuffed ET tubes may be appropriate for children in what age group?

A

< 8 years old

75
Q

When using a straight blade to intubate an adult patient, the tip of the blade should be placed in which location?

A

Directly on the epiglottis

76
Q

Advocates of the curved blade claim which statement?

A

Provides more room for passage of the ET tube

77
Q

When intubating an adult patient with a curved blade, the tip of the blade should be placed in which spot?

A

In the vallecula, at the base of the tongue

78
Q

Which intubation technique may be performed without the use of specialized equipment?

A

Digital

79
Q

The distal cuff of the ET tube should hold ____ mL of air.

A

5-10

80
Q

Nasotracheal intubation would be the airway procedure of choice for which patient condition?

A

COPD

81
Q

Phenylephrine spray is used during nasotracheal intubation to achieve which goal?

A

Constrict the blood vessels

82
Q

Which is true of nasotracheal intubation?

A

Use a tube 1 to 1.5 sizes smaller than that used for orotracheal intubation

83
Q

The laryngeal mask airway ________.

A

Generally protects against aspiration

84
Q

What is a disadvantage of the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

A

Not all patients can be adequately ventilated with an LMA

85
Q

The appropriate size i-gel for insertion in a patient who weighs 16 kg is:

A

2.0 gray

86
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication for placement of a King LT-D Airway?

A

A patient with GCS 7

87
Q

What does capnography measure?

A

Carbon dioxide levels in exhaled air

88
Q

If an endotracheal tube has been correctly placed, bulb esophageal detector devices will _____.

A

Re-inflate more easily

89
Q

What does pulse oximetry measure?

A

Amount of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen

90
Q

What is the correct anatomical landmark for a needle cricothyrotomy?

A

Cricothyroid membrane

91
Q

What is the endotracheal tube size range used for cricothyrotomy?

A

6.0 to 7.0

92
Q

Which is an anatomical difference in a child’s airway as compared to that of an adult?

A

The epiglottis is omega-shaped in a child

93
Q

The approximation of the correct depth of insertion in centimeters for a 10-year-old child is ____ cm.

A

17

94
Q

Lung sounds are heard after intubation only over the right lung of an adult patient. The endotracheal tube is at 27 cm at the teeth.

What is the most likely explanation for the findings in the intubation scenario?

A

Right mainstem intubation

95
Q

Lung sounds are heard after intubation only over the right lung of an adult patient. The endotracheal tube is at 27 cm at the teeth.

A

Deflate the cuff and withdraw the tube 1 to 2 cm

96
Q

When intubating using a lighted stylet, you see a dim, indistinct light in the throat. The paramedic has most likely intubated which structure?

A

Esophagus

97
Q

You are treating a COPD patient and you note the following: BP 170/100 mm HG, P 50; ventilation assisted at 1 breath every 5 seconds; SaO2 not obtainable; etCO2 4 mm Hg after performing endotracheal intubation. What action should the paramedic take?

A

Decrease the rate of ventilation to 1 breath every 6 seconds

98
Q

How do the drugs used in neuromuscular blockade cause paralysis?

A

Blocking the neuromuscular junction

99
Q

What is the definition of depolarizing agents?

A

Substitute themselves for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction

100
Q

Depolarizing agents have a ____ as compared to polarizing agents.

A

Quicker onset and shorter duration

101
Q

An example of a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug is which drug?

A

Succinylcholine

102
Q

Which of the following is not one of the six Ps of RSI?

A

Procedure

103
Q

After the administration of succinylcholine, a patient is usually relaxed enough for intubation after _____.

A

45 seconds

Paramedic School (8 decks)

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