EMS Manual & Treatment Protocol

Question 1

Which of the following is one of the inclusion criteria for the Department’s cardiac arrest protocol?

Answer 1

The patient has abnormal breathing.

Question 2

What about ventricular assist devices (VADs) is CORRECT?

Answer 2

The two most common causes of VAD pump failure are disconnection of the power source and failure of the driveline.

Question 3

Adult patients exhibiting signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) should be screened using the VAN tool. What does the N in VAN stand for?

Answer 3

Neglect

Question 4

According to the D.C. Fire and EMS Department Emergency Medical Services Manual and Pre-Hospital Treatment Protocols, an adult whose blood glucose level is below _____ mg/dL is considered hypoglycemic and should be treated.

Answer 4

70

Question 5

A prolapsed cord occurs when the umbilical cord presents itself outside of the uterus while the fetus is still inside. When this occurs during an OB-GYN emergency, the provider should place the mother in which of the following positions?

Answer 5

Supine with knees widely separated.

Question 6

According to the D.C. Fire and EMS Department Emergency Medical Services Manual and Pre-Hospital Treatment Protocols, what is one of the characteristics of abused children/elders?

Answer 6

The individual may cry without any expectation of receiving help.

Question 7

A provider is treating a patient on whom the police have used an electronic control device (ECD). A dart from the ECD is embedded in the patient’s hand. Should the provider remove the dart?

Answer 7

No, because providers should not remove darts if they are embedded in sensitive areas, including patients’ hands.

Question 8

What patients is MOST appropriate for air medical transport?

Answer 8

A patient involved in a high-speed motor vehicle crash with a complicated extrication.

Question 9

If a patient’s airway is obstructed, providers may suction it as needed. The suctioning time limit for a child is _____ seconds.

Answer 9

10

Question 10

When treating a cardiac arrest patient, if return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) has not been achieved after _____ minutes of resuscitation, personnel should consider termination of resuscitative efforts.

Answer 10

30

Question 11

Resuscitating a newborn involves determining the one-minute and five-minute APGAR score. What does the “G” in APGAR stand for?

Answer 11

Grimace

Question 12

Adult patients exhibiting signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) should be screened using the VAN tool. What does the “A” in VAN stand for?

Answer 12

Aphasia

Question 13

If a patient experiencing seizures is greater than _____ years of age and has a blood glucose level of less than _____ mg/dL, displays signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, is conscious enough to swallow and can maintain his/her own airway, providers may administer oral glucose 24-50 gm SL or one single-dose tube.

Answer 13

8; 70

Question 14

Which of the following members is complying with DCFEMS protocols regarding patients exhibiting excited delirium?

Answer 14

A member initiates rapid cooling by applying ice packs to a hyperthermic patient.

Question 15

If a patient’s burns cover less than 10% of his/her body surface area, the provider should cover the burns with Waterjel emergency burn dressing or, if not available _____.

Answer 15

sterile dressings soaked in a saline solution

Question 16

What statements about spinal motion restriction (SMR) is CORRECT?

Answer 16

SMR, when indicated, should be applied to the entire spine.

Question 17

In order to be pronounced “person dead on arrival” (PDOA), a patient shall fulfill all of the primary criteria and at least one of the secondary criteria. Which of the following is one of the primary criteria for PDOA?

Answer 17

Being apneic.

Question 18

For what patients would a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) adjunct be MOST appropriate?

Answer 18

A patient with an intact gag reflex.

Question 19

When performing CPR on a cardiac arrest patient, interruptions in chest compressions shall be as short as possible and no greater than _____ seconds.

Answer 19

10

Question 20

According to the D.C. Fire and EMS Department Emergency Medical Services Manual and Pre-Hospital Treatment Protocols, what is a MAIN cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) in patients?

Answer 20

Hypoxia.

Question 21

A provider responds to a patient who reports non-traumatic chest pain that is suspected to be cardiac in etiology. May the provider assist the patient in taking nitroglycerin SL 0.4 mg?

Answer 21

Yes, but the provider may assist with only one dose.

Question 22

If a patient presents with respiratory distress with suspected bronchospasm/wheezing, which of the following substances should be administered FIRST?

Answer 22

Albuterol

Question 23

What patients suffering a behavioral crisis would be MOST suitable for the Comprehensive Psychiatric Emergency Program (CPEP)?

Answer 23

A patient whose transport should be completed by law enforcement.

Question 24

When treating a patient with hyperthermia, providers should place the patient in a position of comfort. If signs of hypoperfusion exist, providers should take what actions NEXT?

Answer 24

Place the patient in the shock position.

Question 25

Which of the following members is complying with DCFEMS protocols regarding patients who have been bitten or stung?

Answer 25

A member removes constricting clothing from the affected extremity.

Question 26

Regarding single multi-system traumas, patients less than _____ years of age should be transported to Children’s National Medical Center (CNMC).

Answer 26

15

Question 27

What should apply regarding turning patients over to basic life support (BLS) care from advanced life support (ALS) care?

Answer 27

No patients will be turn over to BLS care once ALS interventions (medications, airway) have been initiated.
An exception can be made to this rule in a mass casualty or disaster scenario.

Question 28

During primary patient assessment, EMS providers should assess mental status of a patient using___.

Answer 28

AVPU

Question 29

An adult sexual assault patient with minor trauma will be transported to ____.

Answer 29

Washington hospital center. H13

Question 30

DCFEMS personnel have encountered a patient experiencing behavior that presents a danger to himself and others due to a behavioral psychological emergency. What shall apply regarding transport of this patient?

Answer 30

If the patient restraint is necessary to prevent harm to the patient and others, provide soft four point restrains or handcuffs (law enforcement) and transport patient in supine position.

Question 31

A patient exhibiting what type of criteria for that determining a patient should be pronounced dead on arrival (PDOA) could actually be considered PDOA by DCFEMS?

Answer 31

No signs of life, apneic, pulseless and valid DNR order is present.

Question 32

What is correct regarding the pronouncement of death for a PDOA patient?

Answer 32

The current DCFEMS medical director must be listed on the EPCR as the pronouncing physician.
The time the EMS provider confirmed that the patient was dead should be listed as the time of death.

Question 33

DCFEMS personnel responding to a call where they encounter a case of suspected elder abuse, What action shall personnel take?

Answer 33

All DCFEMS personnel are required to report cases of suspected elder abuse to the police agency responsible for the area in which the call occurred or the DC Child and family Services Agency.

Question 34

DCFEMS providers have responded to the scene where law enforcement officers have used an electric control device (ECD) to control an actively resisting patient. What procedure shall personnel follow?

Answer 34

Fully document the care rendered even when the pt is not transported by DCFEMS, never remove prongs.

Question 35

DCFEMS personnel have responded to a major incident operation with many patients. If the pt is categorized as “yellow” this mean ____.

Answer 35

This pt must be evaluated and treated quickly due to the risk of deterioration but may not need immediate transport.

Question 36

The antidote kits are to be used in incidents of exposure to a nerve agent or organophosphate material. What shall apply regrading such antidotes?

Answer 36

Suspicion or the simple presence of a nerve agent is not sufficient reason to administer these medications. Use of antidotes will not protect responders from anticipated exposures.