Emergency Procedures Flashcards

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1
Q

the 2 bloodborne diseases of most concern to a personal trainer

A

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis

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2
Q

a screening questionnaire that helps identify high-risk individuals for training

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

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3
Q

a federal law that ensures a victim’s privacy by putting him or her in control of who has access to personal health information

A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

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4
Q

the “ABCs” of primary emergency assessment

A

check vital indicators:

  • airways
  • breathing
  • circulation
  • severe bleeding
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5
Q

protocol when a victim is unresponsive

A

1) call EMS or have someone go and call for help
2) assume consent (implied consent) and check the ABCs
3) if no sign of trauma, perform a head-tilt chin-lift to open up the airway
4) check respiration by having an ear close to the mouth and listen for air movement for 5-10 seconds
5) if no breath is felt or heard or chest doesn’t visibly rise, give two breaths into the victim’s mouth
6) check for pulse (circulation) by gently pressing two fingers on the carotid artery (besides the trachea and in front of the neck) in 10 seconds or less
7) if no pulse, perform CPR, starting with chest compressions

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6
Q

T/F: A secondary assessment is performed once a person is conscious and speaking, or is unconscious but with stable ABCs.

A

True

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7
Q

secondary assessment checks

A

1) deformities
2) abrasions
3) tenderness
4) swelling
5) check for medical alert jewelry
6) take vital signs (pulse and blood pressure)
7) ask about signs/symptoms, allergies, and medications

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8
Q

Chain of Survival (4 steps to increase likelihood of survival)

A

1) early access
2) early CPR
3) early defibrillation
4) early advanced care

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9
Q

average time it takes for EMS to arrive

A

10 minutes

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10
Q

T/F: Any CPR is better than none for the victim of cardiac arrest.

A

True

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11
Q

T/F: CPR alone can change an abnormal heart rhythm.

A

False

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12
Q

spasmodic quivering of the heart that is too fast to allow the heart chambers to adequately fill and empty, so little or no blood is pushed out to the body or lungs

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF)

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13
Q

most common rhythm during cardiac arrest

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF)

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14
Q

ideally when an AED should be used

A

within first 3-5 minutes (as soon as it becomes available)

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15
Q

survival rate when shock is administered within first minute of cardiac arrest

A

90%

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16
Q

What restarts when an AED shock is delivered?

A

sinoatrial node (SA)

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17
Q

T/F: An AED should not be used on a child under 1 year old.

A

True

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18
Q

T/F: Child pads (of an AED) should be used on children between the ages of 1 and 8.

A

True

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19
Q

Times when an AED should never be used

A

1) child under 1 year old
2) person is conscious
3) person is breathing
4) person has a pulse

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20
Q

T/F: The federal law for AED use (Cardiac Arrest Survival Act) does not override state policies, but fills in the gaps for those states without Good Samaritan protection laws.

A

True

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21
Q

difficult and labored breathing

A

dyspnea

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22
Q

causes of dyspnea

A

1) blow to the chest
2) emotional stress
3) asthma
4) airway obstruction
5) heart problems

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23
Q

dyspnea scale (4 levels)

A

+1 - mild, noticeable to the exerciser but not the observer
+2 - mild, some difficulty that is noticeable to the observer
+3 - moderate difficulty, client can continue to exercise
+4 - severe difficulty, client must stop exercising

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24
Q

average respiratory rate for adults

A

12-20 breaths/min

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25
Q

example of an early sign of dyspnea

A

pale, diaphoretic (sweaty) skin

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26
Q

example of a late sign of dyspnea

A

cyanosis around the lips, nose, fingernails, and inner lining of the eyes

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27
Q

“tripod” position for a conscious person with dyspnea

A

sitting up, leaning forward, and using the hands for support

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28
Q

Heimlich maneuver protocol

A

1) stand behind victim
2) wrap both arms around victim’s waist
3) make a fist with one hand, thumb side just above the belly button and the other hand grabs the fist
4) perform several upward thrusts to compress the diaphragm and force the object out of the victim’s airway

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29
Q

chronic inflammation of the airway with symptoms such as wheezing, shortness of breath, tightness in the chest, and coughing

A

asthma

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30
Q

percentage of maximal workload that can induce exercise-induced asthma (EIA) and exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB)

A

80% or more

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31
Q

T/F: Unlike sudden cardiac death, which is an electrical abnormality that disrupts the heart rhythm, a heart attack is due to an obstruction in a coronary vessel that prevents part of the heart muscle from getting proper blood flow and oxygen.

A

True

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32
Q

chest pressure or a squeezing feeling that may be mistaken for heartburn or indigestion

A

angina pectoris

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33
Q

T/F: Most heart attack warning signs are not sudden and intense - most have a gradual onset that the person experiencing the symptoms does not realize what is happening.

A

True

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34
Q

What is the best way to react if someone is suffering from a possible heart attack?

A

call 9-1-1

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35
Q

protocol for immediate treatment for someone experiencing possible syncope

A

have the person sit or lay down, drink plenty of fluids, and possible medication

36
Q

5 warning signs for stroke

A

1) Walk: off-balance walk?
2) Talk: slurred speech or droopy face?
3) Reach: weak or numb side?
4) See: partial or full vision loss?
5) Feel: severe headache?

37
Q

FDA-approved clot-busting medication that can reduce severity and speed recovery from a stroke if administered within the first 3 hours of the onset of symptoms

A

tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

38
Q

symptoms of this mimic a stroke but only causes temporary disability and last between 10-15 min and 1 hour

A

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

39
Q

amount of carbs one should consume at the first suspicion of hypoglycemia

A

20-30 grams

40
Q

T/F: A person can resume exercise 15 minutes after hypoglycemic symptoms are gone.

A

True

41
Q

best time to exercise to avoid hypoglycemia

A

morning, 1-3 hours post meal consumption

42
Q

the end products of fat metabolism that signify the body is using fat for energy rather than glucose because of a lack of insulin

A

ketone bodies

43
Q

medications that can place stress on the body’s thermoregulatory system

A

1) diuretics
2) antidepressants
3) antihistamines

44
Q

temporary swelling of the extremities, usually in people not acclimated to elevated temperatures

A

heat edema

45
Q

spasms that affect the arms, legs, and abdominals due to a loss of fluid and electrolytes, thereby causing cell size to decrease and affecting cell metabolism

A

heat cramps

46
Q

treatment for heat cramps

A

1) rest
2) direct pressure and release
3) gentle massage
4) replacing fluids and electrolytes
5) passive stretching

47
Q

T/F: Activity can be resumed 1-2 days after heat cramp symptoms have resolved.

A

True

48
Q

this can occur immediately after exercise due to blood pooling in the legs and not enough blood reaching the brain

A

heat syncope

49
Q

3 markers that decrease as a result of heat syncope

A

1) stroke volume
2) cardiac output
3) blood pressure

50
Q

factors that can help clients avoid heat illness

A

1) exercise during cooler times of the day (e.g., morning or evening)
2) more frequent water breaks
3) avoid exercise in extremely hot and humid conditions [wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) above 82 degrees]
4) for first 10-14 days (amount of time it takes to get acclimated to the heat) reduce intensity and take more breaks
5) drink plenty of fluids before, during, and after exercise
6) dress appropriately
7) be alert to early warning signs like fatigue and cramping

51
Q

3 components of weather that the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) combines and is presented in heat index tables

A

1) temperature
2) humidity
3) radiant heat

52
Q

apparent temperature where heat cramps or heat exhaustion is possible

A

90-105 F (32-41 C)

53
Q

apparent temperature where heat cramps or heat exhaustion is likely; heat stroke is possible

A

106-130 F (41-54 C)

54
Q

apparent temperature where heat stroke is highly likely

A

131-151 F (54-66 C)

55
Q

T/F: If someone is experiencing hypothermia, it is best to lay them down to prevent orthostatic hypotension (drop in blood pressure).

A

True

56
Q

T/F: It is not recommended to massage or heat with a heating pad, stove or fire, a frostbitten area, as this can cause a throbbing pain and swelling in the affected areas.

A

True

57
Q

description of different layers of clothing to prevent overexposure to cold weather/elements

A
  • Inner layer: wick away moisture (lightweight, synthetic fabric like polyester or polypropylene)
  • Middle layer: insulation (fleece, wool)
  • Outer layer: protective coating but still allow moisture to evaporate (e.g., mesh in areas like the armpits)
58
Q

most common and well-known type of seizure

A

tonic clonic seizure / grand mal seizure

59
Q

emergency procedures for tonic clonic (grand mal) seizure

A

1) clear the area
2) place towel under the head
3) never restrain the victim or place anything in the mouth
4) have someone phone EMS

60
Q

several types of breaks that occur in the skin

A

1) abrasion
2) incision
3) laceration
4) avulsion
5) puncture

61
Q

a scraping of tissue from a fall against a rough surface, usually in one direction

A

abrasion

62
Q

a clean cut to the skin from a tensile force, likely from a sharp edge

A

incision

63
Q

a jagged tear of the skin caused by both shear and tensile forces

A

laceration

64
Q

a severe laceration, with skin torn away from the tissue below

A

avulsion

65
Q

a penetration of the skin by an object

A

puncture

66
Q

occurs when a compressive blow to the skin damages capillaries below the surface

A

bruise

67
Q

T/F: Tendons and ligaments are formed primarily from collagen tissue.

A

True

68
Q

T/F: It is not recommended to immobilize an injured joint for long as this may cause atrophy and strength loss

A

True

69
Q

examples of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

A

aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen

70
Q

a disruption or break in bone continuity

A

fracture

71
Q

area of the body where stress fractures commonly occur

A

tibia

72
Q

signs of possible bone fracture

A

1) audible snap
2) abnormal motion or position of the injured limb
3) inability to bear weight on the limb
4) swelling
5) deformity
6) discoloration
7) pain or tenderness to the touch

73
Q

protocol for fractures

A

1) keep victim quiet and don’t allow them to move or put weight on injured area
2) remove or cut away clothing that covers the injured area
3) cover an open fracture with a sterile gauze and activate EMS system, keeping the victim lying down
4) leave the protruding ends of bone where they are; if the victim must be transported then splint the limb to immobilize it

74
Q

these other symptoms need to be considered on top of loss of consciousness in order to determine a possible concussion

A

1) vacant stare
2) delayed verbal or motor responses
3) increased sensitivity to light or sound
4) irritability
5) depression
6) poor coordination
7) fatigue
8) sleep disturbances
9) loss of sense of taste or smell

75
Q

T/F: If there is no loss of consciousness then the concussion can be determined as minor.

A

False

No concussion is ever minor

76
Q

also known as hypoperfusion; occurs when blood is not adequately distributed in the body and tissues do not receive the oxygen and nutrients needed for proper function and survival

A

shock

77
Q

4 major types of shock

A

1) hypovolemic
2) obstructive
3) distributive
4) cardiogenic

78
Q

occurs when fluid (e.g. blood) is lost as a result of severe dehydration or from severe internal or external bleeding

A

hypovolemic shock

79
Q

occurs when a blood clot or other mechanical obstruction does not allow blood to reach the heart

A

obstructive shock

80
Q

occurs when vessels are dilated and not allowing normal blood distribution; can occur from an allergy like a bee sting or food allergy

A

distributive shock

81
Q

the inadequate function of the heart resulting from heart attack or coronary artery disease

A

cardiogenic shock

82
Q

T/F: Hepatitis B and C are transmitted more easily than HIV.

A

True

83
Q

When is HIV considered to be AIDS?

A

an infected person’s CD4 count is less than 200

84
Q

the region of the spine that is most prone to catastrophic injury

A

cervical spine

85
Q

a critical indicator that someone is suffering from heat stroke and in need of emergency treatment

A

altered mental status