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Emergencies & Records > Emergencies & Records - Final Test Questions > Flashcards

Emergencies & Records - Final Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What colour is an oxygen tank?

A

Colour coded green

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2
Q

What is the function of an oxygen regulator?

A

Control gas flow / oxygen flow.
Reduces the high tank pressure from 2000 psi to a safe range of 50 psi

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3
Q

What is the function of oxygen tubing?

A

Connects the oxygen tank at the gauge regulator to the face mask.
Allows delivery of oxygen.

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4
Q

Name two types of oxygen delivery systems.

A

Non-rebreather mask (full mask with bag)
Nasal cannula (inserted into nostril only)
Simple mask (full mask only)

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5
Q
  1. Document the steps of oxygen administration that a dental assistant can perform.
A

-preparing and checking oxygen equipment,
-selecting mask size and placing the mask on the tubing,
-having the patient put on the mask and adjust the fit,
-tightening the tubing once the mask is comfortable for the patient, and
-assisting with observing, documenting and reporting the patient’s condition

THEY MAY NOT: set, start or adjust flows and or ratios of oxygen, or
place the face mask on a patient

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6
Q

Describe myocardial infarction (MI).

A

HEART ATTACK - Death of the myocardium results when the blood supply to the heart is significantly reduced or occluded.

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7
Q

List the signs and symptoms of MI.

A

-Chest pain ranging from mild to severe
-Pain in the left arm, the jaw, and the teeth
-Shortness of breath and sweating
-Nausea and vomiting
-Pressure, aching, or burning feeling of indigestion
-Generalized feeling of weakness

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8
Q

List the recommended steps to manage a patient experiencing a MI.

A

-Call for emergency assistance (9-1-1).
-Position the patient semi-upright comfortable position.
-Monitor vital signs
-Administer oxygen if needed.
-Ready aspirin and nitroglycerin from the emergency kit.
-Initiate basic life support (CPR) if the patient becomes unconscious.
-Document emergency

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9
Q

What is the cause of angina pectoris?

A

This medical emergency is associated with insufficient blood supply to the myocardium and is usually due to the narrowing of coronary arteries (atherosclerosis). Other causes include coronary vasospasms, thrombus or anemia (a condition in which there is an inadequate supply of hemoglobin to carry oxygen). Angina pectoris is usually aggravated by exercise, tension, cold weather, or a large meal.

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10
Q

What medication can relieve angina pectoris?

A

Nitroglycerin

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11
Q

List the recommended steps when managing a patient with angina pectoris.

A

Call for emergency assistance (9-1-1).
Position the patient semi-upright comfortable position.
Monitor vital signs
Ready nitroglycerin (tablets, spray, or topical cream) from emergency kit.
Administer oxygen if needed.
Document emergency

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12
Q

Describe postural hypotension.

A

Postural hypotension is a decrease in blood pressure. It occurs due to an abrupt change in position such as suddenly standing or sitting erect. It can also be caused by standing motionless in a fixed position and is common for the elderly and pregnant women. It can cause dizziness, syncope, blurred vision. If postural hypotension does occur treat as syncope.

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13
Q

What is syncope?

A

Is a transient loss of consciousness due to reduced blood flow to the brain

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14
Q

List possible cause of syncope.

A

Anxiety/panic attack, overheating, dehydration…

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15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of presyncope?

A

feeling warm or flushed
nausea
rapid heart rate
perspiration
pallor (pale skin colour)
lower blood pressure

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15
Q

What can a dental assistant do if a patient is feeling faint?

A

If the patient has not fainted yet but tells you they feel like fainting: Lie the patient down in the supine position and elevate their legs.

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16
Q

List the recommended steps to manage a patient experiencing syncope.

A

If fainting has occurred place the patient supine/subsupine position and elevate their legs slightly.
Complete head tilt/jaw thrust to open airway.
Loosen binding clothing.
Evaluate oxygen level. If below 94%, administer 100% oxygen.
Have ammonia inhalant (smelling salts) ready to be administered.
Monitor and record the patient’s vital signs.
If unresponsive, call for emergency assistance (911)
Document emergency

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17
Q

Describe the term seizure

A

An involuntary, sudden change in sensation, behaviour, muscle activity or level of consciousness resulting from overactive brain cells.

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17
Q

What is an allergy?

A

An allergic reaction is a sensitivity to an allergen. There are 4 main types of allergic reactions; type I, type II, type III, and type IV. For the purpose of our studies, we will familiarize ourselves with type III and type 1.

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17
Q

What is the difference between a mild allergic reaction and an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock is a severe life-threatening form of an allergic reaction. A common/mild allergic reaction consists of itching, skin redness (erythema) and hives (no respiratory reaction or shock).

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18
Q

List possible reasons a patient may experience a seizure.

A

Epilepsy *A chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent seizures with or without a loss of consciousness
High fever
Head injury
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (stroke)
Alcohol or drug withdrawal
Hypoxia
Hypoglycemia
Central nervous system infections
Brain Tumors

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19
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a generalized seizure?

A

There are various stages of a generalized seizure. Each individual that experiences seizures may not go through all of the stages. The following outlines the general signs and symptoms of a generalized seizure (grand mal):
Unconsciousness
* Increased body temperature
* Rapid heart rate
* Increased blood pressure

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20
Q

Define hypo and hyperglycemia.

A

Hypo = An abnormally low blood sugar level.The brain relies on a continuous supply of glucose. When levels drop below normal function, the brain will be affected.

Hyper= An abnormally high blood sugar level
In a diabetic patient, a serious condition known as diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) may result when glucose levels become excessively high and the body has too little insulin. This is a serious, potentially life-threatening complication associated with Type I diabetes.

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21
Q

List the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.

A

Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia develop suddenly and progress rapidly, usually within minutes.
* Mood changes
* Hunger
* Perspiration
* Increased anxiety
* Possible unconsciousness

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22
Q

List the recommended steps to manage a patient experiencing hypoglycemia.

A

If the patient is conscious, ask when he or she last ate, whether he or she has taken insulin, and whether he or she brought insulin along to the dental appointment.
Give oral glucose from emergency kit or a concentrated form of carbohydrate, such as a concentrated orange juice or soda pop. PURPOSE These substances will be absorbed rapidly into the bloodstream.
Call for emergency assistance (9-1-1) if necessary.
Provide basic life support (CPR) if the patient becomes unconscious.
Monitor vital signs.
Document emergency

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23
Q

Describe the term cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

A

A stroke is the interruption of the blood flow to the brain. If the interruption of the blood flow is long enough, damage to the brain may occur

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24
Q

List the signs and symptoms of a CVA.

A

Face drooping
Arm weakness
Speech difficulty

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25
Q

List the recommended steps to manage a patient experiencing a CVA.

A

Call for emergency assistance (9-1-1).
Place patient in a semi-sitting position with head elevated.
Monitor vital signs
Initiate basic life support (CPR) if the patient becomes unconscious.
Document emergency

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26
Q

How can dental offices prevent patients from experiencing an obstructed airway during a dental appointment?

A

Airway obstructions can be prevented by:
* Using a high volume evacuator (HVE).
* Using a rubber dam.
* Tying ligatures on a rubber dam clamp.
* Using a throat pack (gauze placed at the base of the throat) during sedation surgical procedures.
* Positioning the client upright to prevent airway obstructions when taking a dental impression.

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27
Q

What are the possible types of asthma?

A

Possible Causes

Extrinsic (Allergic):
Dust, pollen, or other irritants in the atmosphere
Often seasonal
Occurs most often in children and often clears up after adolescence

Intrinsic (Nonallergic):
Most common in adults
Not due to allergic reactions
Non-seasonal

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27
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of an asthma attack?

A
  • Coughing
  • Wheezing
  • Increased anxiety
  • Pallor
  • Cyanosis (bluish skin around the nails)
  • Increased pulse rate
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28
Q

List the recommended step in managing an asthma attack.

A

Asthma can be managed with attempts to improve oxygenation, relieve bronchospasms and improve ventilation.
Call for assistance.
Position the patient as comfortably as possible (upright is usually best).
Have patient self-medicate with an inhaler.
Administer oxygen as needed.
Monitor vital signs.
Document emergency response

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29
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

Hyperventilation is characterized by deep rapid breathing patterns (above 20 breaths a minute). It results from the overabundance of carbon dioxide in the body when a patient breathes too rapidly. This can be dangerous because it can cause alkalosis, affecting the homeostasis of a body.

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30
Q

List possible causes of hyperventilation.

A
  1. Psychological
    o Anxiety
    o Stress
  2. Medical
    o ASA overdose
    o Head injury
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31
Q

Name three ways that a drug can be identified.

A

-Chemical name – the atomic or molecular structure of the drug

-Generic Name – the shorthand version of the drug’s chemical name, structure, or formula; a name that any business firm may use

-Brand name/trade name – controlled by pharmaceutical company as a registered trade mark

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32
Q

Give an example of a drugs brand name and generic name.

A

Advil, Motrin, and Nuprin are brand names of the generic ibuprofen

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33
Q

How are drugs classified in Alberta, according to how they can be dispensed?

A

Patent medicines/OTC drugs – no prescription needed

Prescription drugs/ethical drugs – licensed medicines, regulated by legislation, and require a prescription (there are non-controlled & controlled-can cause a dependence)

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34
Q

Identify the two acts that control the use and handling of drugs in Canada.

A

Canada’s Food and Drug Act
Canada’s Controlled Drugs and Substances Act

For AB :
Alberta’s Pharmacy and Drug Act

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34
Q

How long is a dental office legally required to keep an adult patient’s chart?

A

10 years following the last date of service to the patient

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35
Q

A patient is 27 years old, they were last seen in office June 4, 2004. When can the chart be destroyed?

A

June 3, 2014

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36
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding blood pressure and protocols at SAIT?

A

160-199/95-100, recheck BP, continue with routine treatment (DO NOT CONTINUE WITH TREATMENT)

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37
Q

The characteristics of a pulse are..

A

rate, rythym, quality

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38
Q

A generic name of a drug:

A

is the name given by manufacture before it becomes official, should be used when referring to a speific pharmaceutical agent

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39
Q

Common antibiotics used in a dental office are:

A

erythromycin and penicillin

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40
Q

An anticoagulant is a drug used:

A

to prevent blood clots
is commonly used for patients with cardiovascular diseases

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41
Q

Heart arrhythmias can be defined as:

A

abnormal pattern of the hearts rythum

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42
Q

Which of the following best describes a diastolic blood pressure reading?

A

When the ventricle is at rest and the heart is filling with blood

SYSTOLIC - BIG NUMBER - PRESSURE OUT
DIASTOLIC IS LAST NUMBER (usually lower) - everything comes in

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43
Q

Emphysema is:

A

Respiratory condition - primary caused by smoking and pollutants

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44
Q

Aspirin in a dental emergency kit can be used for:

A

a suspected myocardial infarction

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45
Q

Glucose in a dental office can be used for:

A

concious hypoglycemia - increasing blood sugars

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46
Q

Hypoglycemia is defined as:

A

abnormally low blood sugar levels

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47
Q

A stroke..

A

can cause injury or death of brain tissue
can be caused by hemmorrhage due to rupture of trauma of a blood vessel
can be caused by a blood clot

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48
Q

Signs and symptoms of a seizure may include..

A

loss of consciousness and hallucinations

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49
Q

hepatitis causes inflammation of .

A

the liver

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50
Q

an example of an opoid drug is

A

codeine

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51
Q

when creating legal chart entries, which statement is correct:

A

write neatly & clarly in permanent ink

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52
Q

It is okay to use your own made up terminology and abbreviations in chart entries - true or false?

A

FALSE

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53
Q

What is NOT apart of the privacy laws relating to dentristry in AB?

A

Freedom on Information and Speech Act

FOIP, HIA, PIPA .. IS!

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54
Q

Which statement is true regarding blood pressure

A

systolic - highest number, recorded when heart is contracted

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55
Q

True or False: A person can request a copy of their personal health records at any time

A

True

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56
Q

Normal Range of resipiration in an adult is…

A

12-20 bpm

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57
Q

3 ways to obtain temperature in a dental office are..

A

orally, tympanic (ear), under arm, forehead

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58
Q

At what psi level should an oxygen take be replaced?

A

500 PSI

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59
Q

When must a complete health history be completed by a patient?

A

At first appointment and every 4 years aftewards

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60
Q

What colour tank is nitrous oxide stored in?

A

Blue

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61
Q

The portion of the oxygen eqipment that allows the dentist to determine the amount of oxygen delivered is..

A

flow valve

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62
Q

True or False: At SAIT, the dental assistant can place a red start on the front patient chart indicating a medical alert

A

FALSE - the Dentist must do this

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63
Q

How long should a patient wait after a heart attack before having dental treatment?

A

6 months

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64
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding why an accurate health history is essential prior to dental treatment?

A

Aids in determining the patient’s social status

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65
Q

Who does FOIP apply to and what is its purpose?

A

Public bodies & their employees
-legislates the collection, use, and disclosure of personal info (not health info)

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66
Q

Who does HIA apply to and what is the pupose?

A

Applies to custodians and their affiliates and the health information held by custodians (Alberta)

legislates the collection, use and disclosure of health info

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67
Q

Who does PIPEDA apply to and what is its purose?

A

sets national stands for privacy practices in the private sector (Federal)

protecting personal information

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68
Q

Who does PIPA apply to and what is its purpose?

A

appies to provincially regulated private sector organizations (Alberta)

-governs the means by which private sector organizations handle personal information

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69
Q

Who does HPA apply to and what is its purpose?

A

Governs 32 of the health professions in Alberta

Under the HPA, health professions are organized into regulatory bodies called colleges. These colleges are delegated powers and authorities for self-governance

70
Q

Blood Pressure

A

Normal - Less than 120/80

Elevated 120-129/less than 80 (check after 5 mins, continue)

Hypertension Stage 1 - 139/80-89 (check after 5 mins, continue)

Hypertension Stage 2 - 140-179/90-119 (check after 5 mins, continue but - refer to Dr. for prompt consult)

Hypertensive Crisis - Greater than 180/120 (immediate dr. consult needed, do not continue with treatent - if higher than 210/120 - call 911)

71
Q

Normal Pulse Rates

A

Children - 70-100 bpm

Adults - 60-100 bpm

72
Q

Normal Respiration Rates

A

Children 6-12 yr - 18-30 bpm

Children 12-18yr - 12-16 bpm

Adults - 12-20 bpm

73
Q

Normal Temperature?

A

Adult - 36.4-37.3 C
Child - 36.6-37.3 C

74
Q

Protocol for Medical Alerts?

A
  1. Only the supervising dentist/hygienist can designate a patient record/chart as a medical alert.
  2. If a student suspects a possible MA, she is to red star the condition on the Patient History note page.
  3. The supervising dentist/hygienist will note the medical alert by placing a red start next to the medical alert on the medical and dental history form and by writing medical alert on the upper right corner of the patients chart in red pen.
  4. a red tab will also be placed on the chart, three slots from the tag colour coded to indicate the patient’s first letter of their last name.
  5. Medical Alert designation must reflect a potential medical emergency during the procedure or must have an impact on dental treatment.
  6. The medical alert will be recorded in the patient’s electronic file.
75
Q

Is allergies a medical alert?

A

All anaphylactic allergies will be a medical alert

Any allergy to a prescription or over the counter medication will be considered a medical alert

All severities of an allergy to latex will be a medical alert

Allergies to components of dental products will be a medical alert (i.e.: colophony, red dye, gluten, and tree nuts.) The examples provided do not provided an exhaustive list.

MILK, Animals, hay fever is NOT a MA.

76
Q

Is Asthma a medical alert?

A

Due to frequent fluctuations and changes in the disease, and the potential risk of an acute asthma attack, asthma will always be designated as an medical alert.

If the patient has their inhaler, it will be placed on the operatory counter for accessibility.

If requested by the supervising dentist/dental hygienist, the student will retrieve a Bronchodilator inhaler from the medical kit.

77
Q

Is high blood pressure a medical alert?

A

Patient’s with a history of high blood pressure and/or a blood pressure over 140/90 will be designated as a medical alert

78
Q

Do heart diseases require a medical alert?

A

Heart attack and congestive heart disease will be deemed a medical alert due to the risk of a medical emergency,

Other heart conditions will be considered a medical alert based on patient responses and will be determined by the supervising dentist or dental hygienist.

79
Q

Does Diabetes, Stroke, Emphysema and Epilepsy require a Medical Alert?

A

Due to an increased risk of a medical emergency and special needs of patients with a history of the above conditions they will be considered a medical alert.

80
Q

Do Bleeding Disorders require a medical alert?

A

Due to the special needs of patients with bleeding disorders and the complications that may arise from treatment, patients with a bleeding disorder will be considered a medical alert.

81
Q

Do patients requiring antibiotic prophylaxis need a medical alert?

A

Any patient who requires antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental care will be considered a medical alert

82
Q

Do Thyroid conditions require a medical alert?

A

Due to the risk of medical emergency with patients with thyroid conditions will be considered a medical alert

83
Q

Give an example of a patient condition that requires special precautions prior to dental care and would be considered a medical alert in the SAIT Dental Clinic.

A

Conditions that requires antibiotic premedication (artificial heart valve, previous history of infective endocarditis, congenital heart defects, cardiac transplant that develops a valve problem, possible joint replacement if the patient s immunocompromised and other immunocompromised patients)

High blood pressure (restriction of vasoconstrictors)

84
Q

What is cardiac arrythmia?

A

Irregular heartbeat

85
Q

What is a cardiac pacemaker?

A

A cardiac pacemaker is an electronic stimulator used to send a specified electrical current to the myocardium to monitor heart rate irregularities, and tiny electrical pulses are emitted to correct the heart rate

86
Q

What type of dental devices may interfere with a patient’s cardiac pacemaker?

A

Devices emitting electromagnetic waves may impact the function of pacemakers.

Use of ultrasonic and piezo power scalers for patients with pacemakers has previously been discouraged due to concerns regarding electromagnetic interference and its disruption to pacemakers.

87
Q

Does a patient with a pacemaker require antibiotic premedication prior to dental treatment?

A

The American Heart Association issued a statement that there is no scientific evidence for the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for those with cardiac implantable electronic devices.

Although evidence suggests the patient with a pacemaker is at low risk for infective endocarditis, consult with the cardiologist to verify whether they choose to use prophylactic antibiotics for dental and dental hygiene procedures

88
Q

What is asthma?

A

Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease consisting of recurrent episodes of dyspnea, coughing, and wheezing, leading to bronchial inflammation and muscle contraction

89
Q

What questions should be asked to a patient with asthma?

A

Asthma triggers?

Frequency and severity of symptoms/attacks?

Treatment/medications (including frequency of use)?

Current symptoms?

Does the patient have their inhaler present at the appointment?

90
Q

What is sickle amenia?

A

SCD is a hereditary form of hemolytic anemia, resulting from a defective hemoglobin molecule. Those with sickle cell trait demonstrate few symptoms unless placed under severe stress

91
Q

Questions to ask a patient with HIV?

A

When was the blood test completed that revealed positive result?

When were you diagnosed?

What type of hepatitis do you have.

Have you been prescribed any medications for the condition?

Have you experienced any complications/symptoms from the condition that may affect your dental treatment

92
Q

What is congenital heart disease?

A

Anomalies of the anatomic structure of the heart or major blood vessels that occur while the heart is developing
Caused by genetic and/or environmental factors

93
Q

What is Rheumatic Fever?

A

is a complication following rheumatic fever that may result in permanent heart damage

94
Q

What is Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A

damage to the mitral valves, the closure of the value is imperfect and oxygenated blood can backflow or regurgitate

95
Q

Questions to ask a patient with Hypertension

A

Do you know if you have high blood pressure?

When was your blood pressure last evaluated by a medical doctor?

What is your blood pressure reading? Is it controlled?

Are you taking high blood pressure medication

96
Q

What are the considerations for a patient with hypertension?

A

May require the use of a local anesthetic with less or no vasoconstrictor so that the patient’s blood pressure does not increase anymore.
May require stress reduction strategies during dental treatment.
o Schedule early morning appointments

Keep short appointments
o The patient may require sedation

97
Q

What is Ischemic Heart Disease?

A

This is a common degenerative disease that arises from a reduction or stoppage of blood supply to the myocardium (the heart muscle). As a result, there is decreased blood flow through the blood vessels and increased pressure on the walls of the blood vessels (peripheral resistance)

98
Q

What is Angina Pectoris?

A

chest pain caused by a reduction of blood flow to the heart

99
Q

How long should Dental treatment be postponed after a Myocardial infaction (heart attack)?

A

6 months

if dental treatment is absolutely necessary, modifications to treatment must be made to decrease stress on the patient

100
Q

What is Congestive Heart Failure?

A

an abnormality in cardiac function that causes an inability or failure of the heart to pump blood at a rate necessary to meet the oxygen needs of the body
It is not a disease but rather a symptom of an underlying cardiovascular problem such as valvular deformity, coronary atherosclerotic heart disease or hypertensive disease.

101
Q

What is Cardiac Arrhythmias?

A

an interruption of heart impulses that cause a delay or block resulting in an abnormal heart rhythm or arrhythmia
pacemakers are devices implanted beneath the skin of the upper chest or abdomen with pacing wires extending into the myocardium. It is most commonly used to correct arrhythmias

102
Q

How long to wait for dental treatment after heart surgery/transplant?

A

Dental treatment should be avoided for the first 6 months after heart surgery/transplant as the condition is not stable

103
Q

What is tuberculosis?

A

Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by aerobic bacterium (mycobacterium tuberculosis) that causes lesions in a number or organs including:
Lungs
Bone of the mandible
Dorsum of the tongue; the lips, mucosa, gingiva

104
Q

Can a patient with TB recieve dental treatment?

A

If a patient has active TB dental treatment must be postponed as the patient will need to be quarantined.

105
Q

What is Emphysema?

A

Emphysema is a pulmonary disorder that obstructs airflow. Alveolar walls are destroyed causing the distention of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles. The primary cause is exposure to tobacco and pollutants.

106
Q

What is Hemophilia?

A

Hemophilia is a congenital genetic (usually only affecting males) blood coagulation disorder. The most common form of this disorder is characterized by a prolonged coagulation time and a tendency to bleed.

107
Q

What is Anemia?

A

Anemia is the reduced volume of red blood cells or the quantity of hemoglobin in the blood. It is not a disorder but a symptom of a disorder.

108
Q

Questions to ask a patient with HIV?

A

When was this diagnosed?

What medications are you taking for HIV?

Are you expierencing any current symptoms?

109
Q

What is infectious monoucleosis?

A

Mononucleosis is an acute, febrile, infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus that is predominant in children and young adults. The disease begins with a gradual or abrupt onset.

Signs and symptoms include:
Oral signs and symptoms are often the first clinical symptoms:
Petechiae
Sore throat (Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common)
Acute gingivitis and acute stomatitis
Jaundice
Ulcerations of oral tissues
Headache, chills, cough, angina
Enlarged lymph nodes, beginning with cervical lymph nodes
A skin rash can occur on occasion.

110
Q

Dental considerations for Hyperthyroidism?

A

Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism can cause a sensitivity to epinephrine and other anesthetics.

111
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Multiple sclerosis is a disabling disease of the central nervous system. It is characterized by widespread patches of demyelination (the outer covering of nerve fibers) followed by scarring. Signs and Symptoms may include: blurred and double vision, extreme fatigue, loss of balance and problems with coordination, stiffness of muscles, speech problems, bladder and bowel problems, short term memory problems, partial or complete paralysis

112
Q

What is Rheymatoid Arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic immunologic systemic disease-causing inflammation of the joints brought on by an unknown cause. It is often accompanied by pain, stiffness, or limitation of movement in the affected joint.

113
Q

The following procedures and events do NOT need prophylaxis:

A

routine anesthetic through noninfected tissue
dental radiographs
placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances
adjustment of orthodontic appliances
placement of orthodontic brackets
shedding of deciduous teeth
bleeding from trauma to the lips or mucosa

114
Q

What are 3 ways that a drug can be identified?

A

I. Chemical name, which is the chemical formula of the drug;
II. Generic name, which may be used by any company; and
III. Brand name, or trade name, which is a registered trademark exclusively controlled by a company

115
Q

Example of a drugs brand name and generic name?

A

Generic name: Acetaminophen
Brand name: Tylenol

116
Q

How are drugs classified in Alberta, according to how they can be dispensed?

A

Drugs are classified into schedules according to the way an individual can purchase them:

-Schedule 1 drugs can be sold by prescription only.

-Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are drugs that can be
obtained without a prescription but do have regulations on where and how they can be sold;

-unscheduled drugs can be sold without professional supervision

117
Q

Identify the two acts that control the use and handling of drugs in Canada

A

Canada’s Food and Drug Act
Controlled Drugs and Substances Act (CDSA)

118
Q

Can a dental assistant give a patient a medication?

A

No, only a dentist or RDH with additional training in Alberta can prescribe medication. An RDA cannot give a patient a prescription medication. Dental assistants may give non-prescription medications (i.e., over-the-counter, noncontrolled substances) to patients under the direction and supervision of a dentist provided the dentist has:
* reviewed the patient’s chart.
* confirmed with the patient there are no known allergies or contraindications to the
specific medication; and,
* provided the dental assistant with explicit instructions on dosage

119
Q

Can a dental assistant call in a prescription to a pharmacy?

A

An RDA cannot call in a prescription to a pharmacy

120
Q

What is an analgesic?

A

Analgesic medications are prescribed for the relief of acute pain, postoperative
pain, and/or chronic pain. This type of drug lessens the sensory function of the brain by blocking pain receptors

121
Q

What is a non-opiod analgesic?

A

The nonopioid group of analgesics includes the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol), ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin), and aspirin. This group is indicated for mild to moderate pain, which can include pain of dental origin, or for postoperative dental pain. It also may be prescribed for chronic oral-facial pain caused by an inflamed temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

122
Q

What is an opioid analgesic?

A

The opioid analgesics are prescribed for moderate to moderately severe pain. The most common type of drug prescribed is codeine. This type of drug is always prescribed as a combination preparation, meaning that codeine would be given in combination with aspirin, acetaminophen, or ibuprofen

123
Q

When a drug enters the body, it undergoes 4 stages of action. List the four stages in order of
occurrence.

A
  1. Absorption - drug is absorbed from the site of entry. The speed of absorption varies depending on the way it is adminstered. The slowest route is by mouth.
  2. Distribution - Once a drug has entered the bloodstream, its chemical compound attaches to
    proteins within the blood. It is then circulated throughout the body to be released and take
    effect where it is meant to act.
  3. Metabolism - Once the chemical compound is released, the drug becomes metabolized and is then excreted through the liver or kidneys.
  4. Excretion - The drug leaves the body by way of kidneys, liver, saliva, breast milk, and sweat
124
Q

What is the main reason for dentists to prescribe antibiotic prophylaxis before dental treatment?

A

Prevention of infective endocarditis.

125
Q

What conditions require premedication/antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

-Artificial heart valves
* A history of infective endocarditis (an infection of the lining inside the heart or the heart valves)
* A cardiac (heart) transplant that develops a heart valve problem
* A congenital (present from birth) heart condition
* Unrepaired or incompletely repaired cyanotic congenital heart disease, including those with
palliative shunts and conduits
* A completely repaired congenital heart defect with prosthetic material or device, whether placed by surgery or by catheter intervention, during the first 6 months after the procedure
* Any repaired congenital heart defect with residual defect at the site or adjacent to the site of a prosthetic patch or a prosthetic device
* Antibiotic prophylaxis is not routinely prescribed for patients with joint replacements
* Other immunocompromised patients.

126
Q

What are 3 types of Antibiotics that can be prescribed for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
  1. Amoxicillin or ampicillin or cefazolin or ceftriaxone
  2. Cephalexin or Clindamycin or Azithromycin or Clarithromycin
  3. Cefazolin or Clindamycin
127
Q

If a medication is administered sublingually, where in the body is this given.
What route of administration is this considered?

A

Under the tongue

route of administration is enteral

128
Q

How is a transdermal drug absorbed?

A

Through a patch that continuously releases a controlled quantity of a medication through the skin

129
Q

What is the difference between an antifungal and antiviral drug?

A

Antifungal medications are used to fungal infections, antivirals are used to treat viral infections and antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.

130
Q

What type of medication would a dentist prescribe if a patient was very nervous about having a tooth extracted?

A

Antianxiety medication

131
Q

Which medical abbreviation means “as desired or as needed”?

A

prn

132
Q

What medical abbreviation means “twice a day”?

A

b.i.d.

133
Q

What medical abbreviation means “at bedtime”?

A

h.s.

134
Q

What medical abbreviation means “nothing by mouth”?

A

NPO

135
Q

What medical abbreviation means “after meals”?

A

p.c.

136
Q

Which medical abbreviations means “every morning”?

A

q. a.m.

137
Q

What medical abbreviation means “before meals”?

A

a.c.

138
Q

What medical abbreviation means “four times a day”?

A

q.i.d.

139
Q

What is the order of a Patient Chart at SAIT?

A

Medical/Dental History Questionnaire
Medical/Dental Update Form (reverse chronological order in the chart)
Consent
Schedule A

Preventive Procedures Forms:
Dent 262 Clinical Observations (pink)
Odontogram and biofilm control record (blue)
Dent 262 DA Plan for Treatment (Green)
Impression Clinical observations (pink)
Dental Radiography Clinical Observations (purple)

Services Rendered
Referral Form
Sterilization Form

White forms = Mandatory
Coloured forms = specific treatment

140
Q

What is Rho-Nitro Pump spray – nitroglycerine used for?

A

Treatment of Angina; spray under tongue for a patient with known heart condition/concerns and experiencing chest pains

141
Q

What is Apo-Salvent/Salbutamol – Albuterol inhaler used for?

A

Used as a bronchodilator for asthma symptoms. Used to prevent bronchospasm

142
Q

What is Atropine Sulfate USP – 0.4mg/ml injection used for?

A

Used for bradycardia (low heart beat) leading to cardiac arrest, adminstered IM or IV.

143
Q

What is Insta-Glucose – (30g) of glucose gel used for?

A

Used for fast-acting glucose for a hypoglycemic or a diabetic patient needing a boost of blood glucose levels

144
Q

What is Diphenhydramine HCL – 50mg/ml injection used for?

A

Used for allergic (not servere/anaphylactic) reaction - administered IM or IV.

145
Q

What is Epinephrine USP – (1mg/ml) 1:1000 epinephrine used for?

A

Used for a severe or anaphylactic allergic reaction, administered Subcutaneous (SC), IM or IV. (Predominantly used for an Asthmatic)

146
Q

What are Magill forceps for?

A

Choking retriever

147
Q

What is Aspirin (Low Dose) - Acetylsalicylic Acid (ASA - 81mg) used for?

A

Used to slow blood-clotting. Taken if a patient experiences angina or a potential myocardial infarction.

148
Q

What are Schedule 1 Drugs?

A

Can be sold with a prescription only

149
Q

What are Schedule 2 Drugs?

A

They do not require a prescription, but they do require professional intervention with a qualified healthcare professional (BEHIND THE COUNTER)

150
Q

What are Schedule 3 drugs?

A

Suitible for self-selection by may pose risks for certain groups of people and should be sold where a qualified health care professional is available to provide advice when required.

151
Q

What are Unscheduled drugs?

A

Can be sold without professional supervision.

152
Q

What is a local-action drug?

A

Applied directly to site of use

153
Q

What is a systemic-action drug?

A

can affect the whole body by way of circulatory system

154
Q

Drugs Commonly Prescribed in Dentistry

A
  1. Analgesics (Non-Opioid, Opioid)
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Antifungal Agents
  4. Antivital agents
  5. Antianxiety agents
155
Q

Drugs Commonly Prescribed in Medicine

A
  1. Cardiovascular drugs - statins, diuretics, anticoagulants, antiplatelets, beta-blockers, vasodilators, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors
  2. Respiratory Drugs - anti-inflammatories, bronchodilators
  3. Gastrointestinal drugs - acid-reflux, anti-diarrheal, ulcerative colitis/crohn drugs
  4. Neurologic drugs - anti-convulsant, antimyasthenic, antiparkinsonism, antispastic
  5. Psychoactive drugs - antianxiety, antidepressant, antimanic/bipolar, antipsychotic
  6. Endocrine/hormonal drugs - thyroxin
156
Q

What are the common routes of drug administration?

A
  1. Enteral - placed directly in GI tract (oral, sublingual, buccal, rectal)
  2. Parenteral - bypass the GI tract (inhalation, topical, subgingival, intravenous, intramusclar, intradermal)
157
Q

Sign VS. Symptom - the difference?

A

Symptoms - Subjective experiences that only the patient can feel, such as pain, fatigue, or nausea. Symptoms are the patient’s complaints, and can prompt them to seek medical attention.

Signs - Objective findings that can be observed or measured by others, such as a rash, swelling, or abnormal blood test results. Signs help healthcare providers confirm a diagnosis and determine the severity of a condition.

158
Q

Which of the following best describes a possible cause of Infective Endocarditis:

A

bacteria entering the bloodstream

159
Q

Which of the following best describes when a complete SAIT
dental clinic health history must completed by a patient?

A

Before every initial appointment and every four years

160
Q

Which of the following best describes why a complete and accurate
health history is essential prior to dental treatment:

A
  1. Assists in providing an accurate diagnosis and treatment plan for the
    patient.
  2. Reveals conditions that necessitate precautions or modifications
    during treatment.
  3. May be needed to provide evidence in legal matters.
161
Q

Which of the following best describes the situation of a
patient who is showing signs of weak and an ineffective
cough, and cyanosis of lips and earlobe:

A

Partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange

162
Q

Which of the following best describes Type II Diabetes?

A
  • Occurs when the insulin secretion may be low, normal,or even higher than normal, but the patient exhibits aninsulin resistance that impairs the use of insulin.
  • Low blood glucose levels are present in the body
163
Q

Which of the following is true regarding an external chart
audit?

A

Medical alert tabs are red and on the third space on the left side of the chart.

164
Q

What is SAIT’s dental clinic protocol if your patient’s blood
pressure reading was 118/120 mmHg?

A

Recheck in 5 minutes, medical consultation would be
recommended immediately if still 118/120 mmHg.

165
Q

Which of the following describes the purpose of the Freedom of Information and Protection Act?

A

Provide individuals the right to request access to information in the custody or control of public bodies.

166
Q

Which of the following best describes a dental patient with
hypertension?

A

Blood pressure reading of 140/95 mmHg.

167
Q

Which of the following best describes what the force of blood is pushing against when referring to blood pressure?

A

artery walls

168
Q

Which of the following best describes a patient who is
experiencing hyperglycemia?

A

Some symptoms include polyuria, warm skin, and
tachycardia.

169
Q

Which of the following best describes how a dental professional should treat a conscious hypoglycemic patient in a dental chair while waiting for help?

A

Give the patient glucose from the emergency kit

170
Q

Your blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Which number indicates systolic pressure?

A

120 mmHg

171
Q

Nitroglycerin is considered what type of medication:

A

vasodilator

172
Q

What is the best way to possibly prevent medical emergencies for patients during dental treatment?

A
  • Thorough review of the patients medical/dental history form
  • Take and assess vital signs
173
Q

What does sublingual route of drug administration mean?

A

under the tongue

174
Q

What would be administered to a dental patient who is experiencing a mild allergic episode?

A

Benadryl
Diphenhydramine

175
Q

What is the name of the most common artery used to take a patient’s pulse rate in the dental office?

A

radial

176
Q

What is the name of the portion of the oxygen equipmen that allows the operator to determine the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient?

A

Flow valve

177
Q

When reviewing a patient health history questionnaire, you
identify that the patient has circles “yes” to having an allergy.
List 3 questions you would ask the patient to complete your
investigation of this positive response.

A
  • What is the allergy to?
  • How did your body react?
  • How severe is the reaction?
  • When was your last reaction?
  • Did you require medication/ hospitalization?
178
Q
A

Emergencies & Records (19 decks)

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