Emergence & PACU/ICU Transport Flashcards

1
Q

complications associated with emergence

A
Airway obstruction
Agitation
Delirium
Pain
Nausea/vomiting
Hypothermia
Shivering
Autonomic lability
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2
Q

when do you start planning emergence?

A

as soon as the patient is asleep

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3
Q

what are 5 main factors to consider when emerging a patient

A
reversed?
breathing spontaneously?
comfortable?
are they gonna vomit?
can they be safely extubated?
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4
Q

what are 3 factors that directly influence emergence time?

A
Agent Solubility (directly)
Agent Concentration (directly)
Duration of Anesthesia (directly)
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5
Q

Emergence of inhalational anesthesia depends chiefly on what?

A

pulmonary elimination

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6
Q

____________ blunt the ventilatory responses to both hypercarbia and hypoxemia.

A

IV or inhalational anesthetics

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7
Q

PaCO2 where spontaneous ventilation is initiated

A

Apneic threshold

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8
Q

Maintain FiO2 >_____ during hypoventilation

A

> 0.85

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9
Q

how long do most non-depolarizing blockers work?

A

15-45 mins

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10
Q

a condition where too much CO2 becomes an anesthetic

A

Hypercarbic narcosis

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11
Q

succinylcholine depolarizes the end-plate _______ receptor

A

nicotinic

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12
Q

why does succ have a short duration?

A

short duration due to pseudocholinesterase metabolism of Succs. It works to depolarize the motor end-plate and then diffuses away and is metabolized

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13
Q

which NMB can cause sinus bradycardia?

A

Succ

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14
Q

how to non-depolarizing NMB work?

A

Competitively inhibit end plate nicotinic cholinergic receptor

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15
Q

name 4 possible locations for the nerve stimulator

A

Ulnar nerve
Facial nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
External peroneal nerve

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16
Q

which twitch monitor location most closely reflects blockade at diaphragm?

A

facial nerve

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17
Q

TOF = 4 stimulations @ ___ Hz

A

2

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18
Q

Tetany = __-___ Hz for 5 sec

A

50-100

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19
Q
4/4 = \_\_%
3/4 = \_\_%
2/4 = \_\_%
1/4 = \_\_%
0/4 = \_\_%
A
4/4 = 75%
3/4 = 85%
2/4 = 90%
1/4 = 95%
0/4 = 99%
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20
Q

what class of drug do you reverse NMB with?

A

anticholinesterase

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21
Q

side effects of anticholinesterase

22
Q

what class of drug is used to counter-act the BLUDS?

A

anti-muscarinic

23
Q

max dose of neostigmine?

peak onset?

A

0.07mg/kg

5-10 mins

24
Q

how do you assess the adequacy of ventilation during emergence?

A
  • ETCO2
  • SpO2 (>90%)
  • Tidal Volume (>250ml)
25
3 major candidates for a NAW or OAW
Obesity OSA Hx snoring
26
what is the major factor in arousal of OSA patients?
hypoxia
27
Factors that increase incidence of PONV
``` Hx* including motion sickness Female gender Hypotension Non-smoker Postoperative pain/narcotic use Type of Surgery: (Eye, ENT, Abdominal, GI/GU) Anesthetic Rx Gastric distention Swallowed heme ```
28
Surgical sites that have increased risk of PONV.
``` Intra-abdominal Laparoscopic Orthopedic Gynecological ENT Breast Plastic Neurosurgical ```
29
what class of drug is Zofran?
Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
30
30mg Toradol = ___mg Morphine
10
31
what class of drug is toradol?
NSAID
32
Dilaudid = ____ relative potency morphine | How long does it last?
8x | 4-8 hrs
33
``` Fentanyl = _____ relative potency to morphine Duration _____hour(s) ```
100x | 0.5-1 hrs
34
Titrate narcotics to RR _____ BPM
Titrate to RR 10-16 BPM
35
factors for extubation
``` Airway protective reflexes intact Clinical stability Intact neurological function Adequate pulmonary function Normal body temp (T 35-37 C) Normal neuromuscular function Normal coagulation ```
36
what is a major contraindication for droperidol?
parkinson's
37
at what stage(s) is it safe to extubate?
1. awake 3. surgical (NOT 2. excitatory or 4. depression)
38
what are some immediate hazards of extubation?
laryngospasm vomiting bronchospasm
39
purpose of deep extubation
Minimize tracheal stimulation | Minimize coughing/bucking
40
Contraindications of deep extubation
Difficult mask airway Difficult intubation Aspiration risk Airway edema
41
criteria for deep extubation
``` MAC 1.3 NMB completely reversed Spont ventilation at regular rate/rhythm No airway reflexes 100% O2 Lidocaine (0.5 mg/kg) ```
42
NEVER extubate a patient deep without _______ in place
an oral airway
43
what do you do immediately following extubation?
``` Suction the pharynx one more time Place mask on the patient Keep your right hand on the bag Test for airway patency Help them breathe for a while if they are not doing an adequate job on their own. ```
44
ASA Standard 1 PACU
All patients who have received general, regional, or monitored anesthesia care shall receive appropriate post-anesthesia management
45
ASA Standard 2 PACU
A patient transported to the PACU shall be accompanied by a member of the anesthesia care team who is knowledgeable about the patient’s condition. The patient shall be continually evaluated and treated during transport with monitoring and support appropriate to the patient’s condition
46
What must be continually evaluated during pt transport?
Ventilation Oxygenation Circulation
47
all pts must be transported with what?
O2
48
what equipment must you have when transporting an ICU patient?
``` Cardiac Monitor or defibrillator Airway management equipment Oxygen Source with 30 minute reserve Standard Resuscitation drugs Medication ```
49
what must be continuously monitored for ICU patients?
EKG | SpO2
50
what is included in the PACU report
``` Pt name, Allergies, preop vitals ASA class, Medical Hx Procedure, Surgeon, Anesthesia Type Anesthesia Pre-meds, narcotics, paralytics, Rx Fluids, lines Orders ```