Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Med/Spec > EMed Exam > Flashcards

EMed Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered chronic otitis externa?

A

> 6wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is another name for acute otitis externa?

A

Swimmer’s ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

other than the ear exam, what is an essential part of the PE for an ear complaint?

A

full cranial nerve assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which of the following is NOT a sensorineural cause of hearing loss? presbycusis, meinere’s, ototoxic medications, otosclerosis

A

otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where exactly is a hematoma of the pinna located?

A

between the perichondrium and cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how long is a chronic OE?

A

> 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the concern with OE untreated?

A

progression to malignant OE or mastoiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the results of an acute trauma to the middle ear?

A

perforation of TM
ossicular damage
hematoma of the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

toward which side does Weber lateralize with a TM perforation?

A

perforated side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is abrupt onset of ear pain consistent with?

A

barotrauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how long does it take hearing to return with a middle ear hematoma?

A

6-8 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most common symptom in adults with AOM?

A

tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

another name for labyrinthitis

A

vestibular neuronitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the triad of meniere’s disease?

A

unilateral hearing loss
tinnitus
vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where do most nose bleeds originate from?

A

anterior septum (Kiessellbach’s plexus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most common source of posterior nose bleeds?

A

sphenopalatine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the mL used to fill the balloons in the posterior balloon packing?

A

posterior balloon = 5ml

anterior balloon = 30 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is epiphora?

A

blockage of lacrimal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

complications of posterior packing

A

necrosis of nasal ala
infection
dysphagia
ET dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

another name for allergic rhinitis

A

hay fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name 3 differences (in sx) between sinusitis and rhinitis

A

purulent rhinorrhea in sinusitis - clear in rhinitis
postnasal drip in sinusitis - runny nose in rhinitis
facial pain in sinusitis - itchy red eyes in rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

acute vs chronic sinusitis in terms of duration

A

acute: < 4wks
chronic: >12 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are complications of a septal hematoma?

A

septal abscess
septal perforation
cartilage destruction with saddle nose deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

timeframe within which a septal hematoma can develop

A

within 72 hrs after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ellis classification of tooth fracture

A 
I = enamel alone 
II = dentin 
III = pulp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is pharyngitis

A

infection or irritation of the pharynx and/or tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which disease gives a hot potato voice?

A

peritonsillar abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the dx test for peritonsillar abscess?

A

neck CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the gold standard dx test for peritonsillar abscess

A

aspiration of pus from abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how much of the needle should be exposed when aspirating a peritonsillar abscess?

A

0.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where on the abscess should you aspirate?

A

superior pole first
(if negative) then middle
(if negative) then lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

why should the lateral aspect of the abscess be avoided?

A

carotid artery is 2.5cm posterolateral to tonsil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where do irregular foreign bodies usually lodge in adults?

A

lingual or palatine tonsils
valleculae
piriform sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where do smooth foreign bodies usually lodge in adults?

A

opening to the esophagus

cricopharynxgeus muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how are XR and US for foreign bodies used differently?

A

XR: inorganic things
US: more sensitive for organic matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

when does collagen reformation occur during the wound healing process?

A

5-7 days into healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how long does it take for proliferation of bacteria to cause an infection?

A

3-5 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

within what timeframe should a face wound be closed?

A

24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

within what timeframe should a UE wound be closed?

A

12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

within what timeframe should a LE wound be closed?

A

8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is done in the interim when delayed primary wound healing is employed?

A

1) clean and decried devitalized tissue
2) apply saline gauze and cover
3) reirrigate, debride, undermine and close wound after 72-96 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

name the types of wounds for which epi should not be used

A 
finger, nose, penis, toes
decreased blood flow areas
infected wounds
CV disease
propranolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how is bacitracin used in wound preparation?

A

matt down hair around wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why is peroxide bad for wounds?

A

inhibits wound healing

hypergranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when is wound irrigation performed in the preparation phase?

A

after anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how long is a digital tourniquet applied for?

A

up to 30min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the 4 non-absorbable sutures?

A

ethilon
prolene
silk
nurolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the 5 absorbable sutures?

A 
vicryl
vicryl rapide 
PDS
chromic gut
fast-absorbing gut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

which absorbable suture has the best tensile strength?

A

PDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

which non-absorbable suture has the best tensile strength?

A

prolene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is a subcuticular running used for?

A

allows suture to remain for longer period of time

not used for acute wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how long should non-facial wounds be covered for in order to foster maximal epithelialization and minimal decontamination post repair?

A

24-48 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which is more likely to get infected - puncture or laceration?

A

puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

are abx used for uncomplicated wounds?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what should be covered with abx in a foot injury?

A

pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how long should face sutures remain in for?

A

3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how long should scalp sutures remain in for?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how long should UE/torso sutures remain in for?

A

7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how long should LE sutures remain in for?

A

8-12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the ppx for bite wounds?

A

Augmentin 3-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

name the 3 phases of rabies infection?

A

prodromal phase
neurological phase
paralytic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the bedrock of early ACS tx?

A

antiplatelet therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what HTN meds can be used in pregnancy?

A

labetolol, nifedipine, methyldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

who should not receive clopidogrel?

A

severe CAD requiring CABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

aortic aneurysm measurement for dx

A

> 4cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what valve disorder can present with LVH?

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the most common valve disease in the world?

A

degenerative mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is secondary mitral regurgitation?

A

valve is fine

ventricle or papillary muscles are distorted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are the BIG 3 of aortic dissection?

A

mediastinal widening
pulse variance or BP differential
abrupt shearing/tearing pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what infection can cause aortic aneurysm?

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

other than MI what can cause elevation of cardiac enzymes?

A

myocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what predicts the severity of pericardial tamponade - rate of accumulation or the volume of accumulation?

A

rate of accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are some causes of subacute (slow accumulation of fluid) pericardial tamponade?

A

ESRD/uremia

neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what does an EKG show in pericardial tamponade?

A

decr voltage

electrical alternans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is a common initial presentation of hypertensive emergency?

A

flash pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is another term for neurocardiogenic syncope?

A

vasovagal syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what EKG abnormality can be seen in vasovagal syncope?

A

vagally mediated afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is cardiogenic syncope associated with in terms of presyncopal episode situation?

A

physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are 2 important things to assess on the physical exam for someone with a syncopal episode?

A

murmur and orthostatic vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the overall tx goals for someone with wet and cold HF sx?

A

decongestion and inotropic support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what treatments are best for inotropic support?

A

dopamine, dobutamine, milrinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

when is the best time to get a US for suspected cholecystitis?

A

not just after the patient ate (better if gallbladder full)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the most sensitive hx question for acute appendicitis?

A

anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what can patients eat when they have mesenteric ischemia?

A

soup - absorbed through the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

“pain out of proportion of exam”

A

mesenteric ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in SBO, what is a change from crampy to constant pain suggestive of?

A

intestinal strangulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what do high pitched bowel sounds suggest?

A

SBO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

biliary tract disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what improves acute pancreatitis pain?

A

supine positioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are the scores used for acute pancreatitis?

A

Ranson
Apache II
Glasgow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what does the Ranson score predict?

A

mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is “coffee ground emesis” most commonly associated with?

A

upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is black tarry stools associated with?

A

upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are 4 things that can cause a false positive on hem occult?

A

PPI, vit C, red meat, jello

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is BRBPR (bright red blood per rectum) suggestive of?

A

lower GI bleed

96
Q

when a patient is spitting up saliva, what does it suggest if you suspect a foreign body?

A

complete obstruction

97
Q

what is the second MC reason for needing a liver transplant?

A

acetaminophen OD

98
Q

bag of worms

A

varicocele

99
Q

which side is a varicocele more likely to happen on?

A

left

100
Q

what size does a stone need to be in order to pass on your own?

A

<5mm

101
Q

when does tissue damage begin with priapism?

A

4 hrs

102
Q

what is typically the cause (organism wise) of Fournier’s gangrene?

A

aerobes and anaerobes

103
Q

name some signs of respiratory distress

A 
accessory muscle use
RR>30
pulse ox <90%
cyanosis
can't speak 
agitation 
lethargy
104
Q

what is the classic triad of a PE?

A

hemoptysis
dyspnea
chest pain

105
Q

what are the top 3 most common sx of a PE?

A

CP
SOB
anxiety

106
Q

what are the top 3 most common signs of PE?

A

tachypnea
rales
fever

107
Q

what is the wells criteria used for?

A

objectifies risk of PE

108
Q

what is the PERC score used for?

A

to determine if other dx testing is necessary

109
Q

what are the sign of a PE on CXR?

A 
westermarks
hampton hump effusion 
elevated hemidiaphragm
atelectasis
pleural opacity
110
Q

how much VQ scans be interpreted? why?

A

in conjunction with clinical suspicion

b/c results are in probabilities no +/-

111
Q

what is the less common PE finding on EKG?

A

S1Q3T3

112
Q

other than tachycardia and S1Q3T3, what might an EKG show if PE present?

A

right sided heart strain evidenced by RBBB or incomplete heart block

113
Q

what is a common complication of COPD (think pH)?

A

respiratory acidosis

114
Q

what should always be ordered for a COPD patient presenting to the ED?

A

CXR

115
Q

what is the most valuable tool to evaluate medication response or decline in COPD?

A

PFTs or peak flow

116
Q

what are signs of COPD on CXR?

A

flat diaphragm

hyperinflation

117
Q

why is oxygenating a COPD patient tricky?

A

need to balance need for O2 with producing hypercapnia

respiratory acidosis - relies on hypoxia for respiratory drive

118
Q

when should intubation be considered in a COPD patient?

A

respiratory fatigue
respiratory distress
AMS
agitation

119
Q

what is likely the etiology behind a PTX in setting of PNA?

A

PCP
TB
staph aureus

120
Q

what are the findings with an aspirated foreign body?

A 
stridor 
wheezing (if in bronchial tree)
121
Q

when should you attempt the heimlich maneuver?

A

no spontaneous breathing

122
Q

what is the last ditch effort when attempting to remove an aspirated foreign body?

A

push FB into mainstem bronchus with an ambo bag or ET tube

123
Q

what does a silent chest indicate in asthma exacerbation?

A

severe obstruction

124
Q

T/F: pulse ox is useful in predicting asthma outcomes

A

false

125
Q

what will ABGs show in an acute asthma exacerbation?

A

PaCO2 > 40mmHg and/or

PaO2 < 60mmHg

126
Q

when can a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation go home?

A

if peak flow >70% of personal best

127
Q

what are the bug that cause atypical PNA?

A

legionella
chlamydia
mycoplasma

128
Q

which PNA can present with water diarrhea?

A

legionella

129
Q

where does klebsiella typically cause an infiltrate?

A

upper lobe

130
Q

what PNA can cause hyponatremia?

A

legionella

131
Q

what is the most common cause of PNA in CF?

A

p. aeruginosa

132
Q

which PNA can cause bloody sputum?

A

klebsiella

133
Q

which bug is usually the cause of PNA in IVDU

A

staph aureus

134
Q

which bug can cause a patchy infiltrate on CXR in PNA patient?

A

PCP

135
Q

how long does it take aspiration PNA to develop?

A

within 1 hour of aspiration

136
Q

where is the most common place for aspiration PNA to develop?

A

right lower lobe

137
Q

what are the PORT score and PSI?

A

tools to determine mortality risk and disposition of PNA patients

138
Q

what are the most common causes of pleural effusion?

A

CHF
bacterial PNA
malignancy
PE

139
Q

4 PE findings that could suggest a pleural effusion

A

dullness to percussion
egophany
pleural friction rub
diminished/absent BS

140
Q

what 2 things can cause a white out looking CXR?

A

large pleural effusion

ARDS

141
Q

urgent vs emergent

A

urgent: within 24 hrs
emergent: within 1-4 hrs

142
Q

what happens with orbital cellulitis that doesn’t happen with periorbital cellulitis?

A

pain with eye movement

143
Q

what can cause orbital cellulitis?

A

infectious sinusitis

dental//facial trauma or infection

144
Q

what are the MC bugs that cause orbital cellulitis?

A

staph and strep

145
Q

what does a disconjugate gaze suggest?

A

eye muscle involvement

146
Q

what is the MC cause of viral conjunctivitis?

A

adenovirus

147
Q

another name for viral conjunctivitis

A

pink eye

148
Q

what is a common cause of conjunctivitis in contact wearers?

A

pseudomonas

149
Q

what disease causes a strip of punctate lesions on the cornea? why?

A

keratitis

UV light punching little holes

150
Q

what is keratitis?

A

corneal inflammation (w/ or w/o ulceration)

151
Q

what causes a dendritic appearance on fluorescein stain?

A

herpes keratitis

152
Q

what are 3 sx of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

nausea, HA, photophobia

153
Q

what is a hyphema

A

pooled blood in the anterior chamber

154
Q

what exact separation does retinal detachment involve?

A

neurosensory retina from pigmented retina

155
Q

what causes a pale retina and cherry red fovea?

A

CRA occlusion

156
Q

hypopyon

A

pus in the anterior chamber

purulent hyphema

157
Q

other than missing meds, what can cause DKA?

A

infection
injury/trauma
EtOH, drugs
GI bleed

158
Q

why does Kussmaul breathing occur?

A

trying to compensate for acidosis

159
Q

what starts of the cascade of events in DKA?

A

decreased insulin

160
Q

if you get a VBG instead of an ABG what is the difference?

A

VBG will be lower than ABG

161
Q

why must fluid status not be corrected too quickly?

A

cerebral edema

162
Q

in what case would you give fluids rapidly in DKA?

A

shock

163
Q

what does acidosis do to K?

A

drives it out of the cell

164
Q

what are s/sx of hypokalemia?

A

cramps
fatigue
fatal arrhythmia

165
Q

what should be checked prior to potassium repletion?

A

urine output

166
Q

what helps quantify severity in DKA?

A

anion gap

167
Q

what is the main problem in HHS?

A

dehydration from gradual diuresis

168
Q

what is the rate at which serum osmolality should decrease when correcting DKA or HHS?

A

at most 3mOsm/kg/hr (d/t cerebral edema)

169
Q

how is hypoglycemia in alcohol handled differently?

A

give glucose with thymine

170
Q

what can cause someone to have inappropriate humor?

A

myxedema wit

171
Q

why should thyroid hormone not be corrected too quickly in myxedema crisis?

A

risk of MI or atrial arrhythmias

172
Q

what medication should a thyroid storm patient not receive?

A

aspirin (converts T4 to T3)

173
Q

name the 3 PE signs in Addison’s disease

A

bronzing
hyporeflexia
orthostatic HoTN

174
Q

what is the most common presentation of an addisonian crisis?

A

shock refractory to fluids and pressors

175
Q

what electrolyte disturbances does an Addisonian crisis cause?

A

hyponatremia

hyperkalemia

176
Q

what may an EKG show in an Addisonian crisis?

A

peaked T waves

low voltage

177
Q

classic triad of pheo sx

A

Perspiration
Headache
Tachycardia

178
Q

what will not present on PE for a patient with catecholamine crisis?

A

flushing

179
Q

what is a common central cause of DI?

A

trauma

180
Q

what is the most common cause of vaginitis

A

candida

181
Q

what is the difference in pH between bacterial vaginosis and candida vaginitis?

A

bacterial: > 4.5
candidal: < 4.5

182
Q

what causes a strawberry cervix on PE?

A

trichomonas vaginitis

183
Q

what is the MC bacterial cause of genital STD?

A

chlamydia

184
Q

what is Reiter syndrome?

A 
urethritis/cervicitis
conjunctivitis
rash 
arthiritis 
*can occur after chlamydia*
185
Q

are men usually sx or asx with gonorrhea?

A

80-90% sx

186
Q

besides chlamydia and gonorrhea what are are common causes of PID?

A

anaerobes

187
Q

what is the hallmark sign of PID?

A

CMT

188
Q

in terms of partners of patients with PID, who should be treated?

A

those within 60 days of dx

if none - tx last partner

189
Q

how long do you expect it to take for sx to get better in PID after tx?

A

3 days

190
Q

when should you retest for GC/C?

A

3 mon (12 if not possible)

191
Q

what are the 2 types of functional ovarian cysts?

A

follicle cysts

corpus luteal cysts

192
Q

how does a simple cyst differ from a complex cyst?

A

simple: just fluid
complex: fluid & solid

193
Q

what is a Mittelschmerz?

A

ovulation pain due to physiological cyst rupture

194
Q

where does ovarian torsion occur more commonly?

A

right ovary

195
Q

what are causes of AUB?

A

endometriosis
fibroids
uterine cancer

196
Q

what is postmenopausal bleeding indicative of?

A

uterine cancer

197
Q

what is the most common GYN cancer?

A

uterine cancer

198
Q

what 2 complications of pregnancy can cause bleeding after 20 weeks?

A

abrupto placentae

placenta previa

199
Q

what causes bleeding during early pregnancy?

A

ectopic pregnancy

spontaneous abortions

200
Q

where is the most common place for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

fallopian tube

201
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for an ectopic?

A

PID

202
Q

at what point should you see a yolk sac on US?

A

6 weeks

203
Q

at what point should you see fetal cardiac activity on TV US?

A

6-6.5 weeks

204
Q

what is the serum bhcg level that you should see a yolk sac?

A

2000

205
Q

what time frame is considered a spontaneous abortion?

A

< 20 weeks

206
Q

what does it mean if a woman’s bhcg doesn’t come down like expected after ectopic management?

A

trophoblastic tissue remains

207
Q

what is a placental abruption?

A

partial or complete separation of placenta before delivery

208
Q

T or F: the amount of blood in a placental abruption correlates to the extent of hemorrhage

A

F

209
Q

what is placenta previa?

A

implantation of the placenta over the os

210
Q

what is given to a mother 23-34 weeks along with placenta previa? why?

A

steroids

to mature fetal lungs

211
Q

how does Plan B act?

A

stop release of egg from ovary

212
Q

what is the minimum age for emergency contraception?

A

> 17y/o

213
Q

what are the 2 types of generalized seizures?

A

tonic-clonic

non-convulsive (absence)

214
Q

what is the main difference between generalized and partial seizures?

A

LOC

215
Q

what is the difference between a simple and a complex partial seizure?

A

simple: isolated motor sx (+/- Jacksonian march)
complex: pt has aura followed by impaired responsiveness

216
Q

what is usually the etiology behind GBS?

A

infection

217
Q

what are the 2 key features required for GBS?

A

progressive weakness of limbs

areflexia

218
Q

why do PCA strokes often go undiagnosed?

A

do not involve a motor portion of the brain so sx not obvious

219
Q

what is affected with MCA stroke?

A

face and arm/hand

+/- aphasia if dominant hemisphere

220
Q

what is affected with ACA stroke?

A

contralateral leg

221
Q

what is affected with PCA stroke?

A

vision, light touch and pinprick sensation decr

222
Q

if the left temporal region of the brain is affected, what might a patient have?

A

aphasia

223
Q

what does a vertebrobasilar artery stroke manifest like?

A

cranial nerve deficits on one side

limb weakness on other side of the body

224
Q

what are the 2 types of hemorrhagic stroke?

A

ICH

SAH

225
Q

what are the 2 MC causes of a SAH?

A

ruptured aneurysm

AVM

226
Q

what is a sentinel bleed?

A

warning bleed causing headache before SAH

227
Q

“fresh blood on CT, not in a common vascular distribution’

A

SAH

228
Q

if you do a CT for a suspected SAH and it’s normal, what do you do next?

A

LP - xanthochromia

229
Q

what 3 types of people get a subdural hematoma?

A

elderly
anticoagulated
alcoholics

230
Q

why are elderly more prone to a subdural hematoma?

A

cerebral atrophy (stress on bridging veins)

231
Q

hallmark of subdural hematoma on CT

A

crescent shaped bleed

232
Q

which vessel is implicated in an epidural hematoma?

A

middle meningeal

233
Q

what is an epidural hematoma usually associated with?

A

skull fx

234
Q

what is the classic finding on CT for an epidural hematoma?

A

lens or balloon shaped mass

235
Q

what is the prime cause of mortality in epidural hematoma?

A

brain herniation from mass effect

236
Q

what are 2 unique signs of an epidural hematoma?

A

hemotympanum

CSF otorrhea or rhinorrhea

Clin Med/Spec (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions