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Reproductive System > Embryology [Repro] > Flashcards

Embryology [Repro] Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the sonic hedgehog gene expressed?

A

Base of limbs in zone of polarizing activity

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2
Q

Where is the Wnt-7 gene expressed?

A

Apical ectodermal ridge (distal end of limb bud)

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3
Q

Where is the FGF gene expressed?

A

Apical ectodermal ridge (distal end of limb bud)

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4
Q

Sonic hedgehog gene is involved with patterning of which body axis?

A

Anterior-posterior

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5
Q

Wnt-7 gene is involved with patterning of which body axis?

A

Dorsal-ventral

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6
Q

What processes are directed by Hox genes?

A

Segmentation of embryo in cranial-caudal axis

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7
Q

What kinds of defects are caused by Hox mutations?

A

Appendages in wrong places

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8
Q

What is the effect of the FGF gene?

A

Stimulates mitosis of underlying mesoderm, lengthening of limbs

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9
Q

What defines “Day 0” of embryogenesis?

A

Fertilization of egg by sperm

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10
Q

The embryo implants and begins secreting hCG during […] of embryogenesis.

A

The embryo implants and begins secreting hCG during week 1 of embryogenesis.

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11
Q

The embryo develops into a bilaminar disk by […] of embryogenesis.

A

The embryo develops into a bilaminar disk by week two of embryogenesis.

[2 weeks = 2 layers]

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12
Q

The embryo develops into three layer during […] of embryogenesis.

A

The embryo develops into three layer during week three of embryogenesis.

[3 weeks = 3 layers]

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13
Q

The primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm, and neural plate form during week […] of embryogenesis.

A

The primitive streak, notochord, mesoderm, and neural plate form during week 3 of embryogenesis.

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14
Q

Organogenesis occurs during weeks […] of embryogenesis.

A

Organogenesis occurs during weeks 3-8 of embryogenesis.

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15
Q

Growing embryos are most susceptible to teratogens during […] of embryogenesis.

A

Growing embryos are most susceptible to teratogens during weeks 3-8 i.e. the embryonic period of embryogenesis.

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16
Q

The heart begins to beat during […] of embryogenesis.

A

The heart begins to beat during week 4 of embryogenesis.

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17
Q

The limb buds begin to form during […] of embryogenesis.

A

The limb buds begin to form during week 4 of embryogenesis.

[4 weeks = 4 limbs]

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18
Q

The fetal period begins at […] of embryogenesis.

A

The fetal period begins at week 8 of embryogenesis.

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19
Q

Fetal movement is first observed during week […] of embryogenesis.

A

Fetal movement is first observed during week 8 of embryogenesis.

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20
Q

Genitalia become visibly different by […] of embryogenesis.

A

Genitalia become visibly different by week 10 of embryogenesis.

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21
Q

The three germ layers are […].

A

The three germ layers are endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.

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22
Q

What process establishes the embryonal germ layers?

A

Gastrulation

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23
Q

Implantation usually occurs near […] of embryogenesis.

A

Implantation usually occurs near day 6 of embryogenesis.

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24
Q

The three divisions of the ectoderm are […].

A

The three divisions of the ectoderm are surface ectoderm, neuroectoderm, and neural crest.

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25
Q

The adenohypophysis derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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26
Q

The Rathke’s pouch derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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27
Q

The lens of the eye derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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28
Q

The epithelial linings of oral cavity derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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29
Q

The sensory organs of the ear derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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30
Q

The olfactory epithelium derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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31
Q

The epidermis derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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32
Q

The anal canal BELOW the pectinate line derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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33
Q

The parotid, sweat, and mammary glands derives from what germ layer?

A

Surface ectoderm

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34
Q

The neurohypophysis derives from what germ layer?

A

Neuroectoderm

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35
Q

The pineal gland derives from what germ layer?

A

Neuroectoderm

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36
Q

The retina derives from what germ layer?

A

Neuroectoderm

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37
Q

The optic nerve derives from what germ layer?

A

Neuroectoderm

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38
Q

The spinal cord derives from what germ layer?

A

Neuroectoderm

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39
Q

The dorsal root ganglia derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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40
Q

The cranial nerves derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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41
Q

The celiac ganglion derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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42
Q

The autonomic nervous system derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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43
Q

The melanocytes derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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44
Q

The chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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45
Q

The parafollicular cells (C-cells) of thyroid derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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46
Q

The pia mater derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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47
Q

The arachnoid mater derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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48
Q

The bones of the skull derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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49
Q

The odontoblasts derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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50
Q

The aorticopulmonary septum derives from what germ layer?

A

Neural crest

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51
Q

The muscle derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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52
Q

The bone derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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53
Q

The connective tissue derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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54
Q

The serous linings of body cavities derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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55
Q

The spleen derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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56
Q

The cardiovascular structures derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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57
Q

The lymphatics derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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58
Q

The blood derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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59
Q

The wall of gut tube derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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60
Q

The wall of bladder derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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61
Q

The urethra derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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62
Q

The vagina derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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63
Q

The kidneys derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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64
Q

The adrenal cortex derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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65
Q

The dermis derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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66
Q

The gonads (ovaries and testes) derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

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67
Q

The nucleus pulposus derives from what germ layer?

A

Mesoderm (remnant of notochord)

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68
Q

The gut tube epithelium derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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69
Q

The lungs derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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70
Q

The liver derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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71
Q

The gallbladder derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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72
Q

The pancreas derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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73
Q

The eustachian tube derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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74
Q

The thymus derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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75
Q

The parathyroid derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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76
Q

The follicular cells of thyroid derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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77
Q

The luminal epithelial derivatives derives from what germ layer?

A

Endoderm

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78
Q

Define agenesis (organogenesis).

A

Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue

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79
Q

Define aplasia (organogenesis).

A

Absent organ despite present primordial tissue

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80
Q

Define deformation (organogenesis).

A

Extrinsic disruption; occurs after embryonic period

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81
Q

Define hypoplasia (organogenesis).

A

Incomplete organ development; primordial tissue present

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82
Q

Define malformation (organogenesis).

A

Intrinsic disruption; occcurs during embryonic period

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83
Q

Before week 3, teratogens tend to exert […] effects on the zygote.

A

Before week 3, teratogens tend to exert all-or-none effects on the zygote.

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84
Q

After week 8, teratogens tend to exert […] effects on the fetus.

A

After week 8, teratogens tend to exert growth and function effects on the fetus.

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85
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: renal damage

A

ACE inhibitors

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86
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: absence of digits (and multiple varied anomalies)

A

Alkylating agents

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87
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: CN 8 toxicity

A

Aminoglycosides

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88
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: neural tube defects, craniofacial defects, fingernail hypoplasia, developmental delay, IUGR

A

Carbamazepine

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89
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital Mullerian anomalies

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

90
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: neural tube defects

A

Folate antagonists

91
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: Ebstein’s anomaly

A

Lithium

92
Q

What is Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Atrialized right ventricle

93
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: fetal hydantoin syndrome

A

Phenytoin

94
Q

Diagnose: in newborn: microcephaly, dysmorphic craniofacial features, hypoplastic nails and distal phalanges, cardiac defects, IUGR, mental retardation

A

Fetal hydantoin syndrome

95
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: discolored teeth

A

Tetracyclines

96
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: limb defects (flipper limbs)

A

Thalidomide

97
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: neural tube defects (inhibition of maternal folate absorption)

A

Valproate

98
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: bone deformities, fetal hemmorhage, abortion, ophthalmologic abnormalities

A

Warfarin

99
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Alcohol

100
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: abnormal fetal development, placental abruption, fetal stimulant addiction

A

Cocaine

101
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADHD

A

Tobacco

102
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: congenital goiter

A

Iodide (lack)

103
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: congenital hypothyroidism

A

Iodide (excess)

104
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects

A

Maternal diabetes

105
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: spontaneous abortion, cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities

A

Vitamin A (excess)

106
Q

The following effects are characteristic of what teratogen: microcephaly, mental retardation

A

X-rays

107
Q

What is the etiology of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy

108
Q

Diagnose: mental retardation, pre- and post-natal developmental retardation, microcephaly, holoprosencephaly, facial abnormalities, limb dislocation, heart and lung fistula

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

109
Q

What is the leading cause of congenital malformations in the US?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

110
Q

Dizygotic twins arise from […] egg(s) and […] sperm.

A

Dizygotic twins arise from 2 egg(s) and 2 sperm.

111
Q

Monozygotic twins arise from […] egg and […] sperm.

A

Monozygotic twins arise from 1 egg and 1 sperm.

112
Q

What percent of twins are monozygotic?

A

20%

113
Q

What percent of twins are dizygotic?

A

80%

114
Q

How many chorions and amnions develop when a zygote splits between Day 0-4?

A

2 chorions, 2 amnions

115
Q

How many chorions and amnions develop when a zygote splits between Day 4-8?

A

1 chorion, 2 amnions

116
Q

How many chorions and amnions develop when a zygote splits between Day 8-12?

A

1 chorion, 1 amnion

117
Q

How many chorions and amnions develop when a zygote splits after Day 12?

A

1 chorion, 1 amnion, conjoined twins

118
Q

What is the purpose of the placenta?

A

Primary site of nutrient and gas exchange between fetus and mother

119
Q

List the fetal components of the placenta.

A

Cytotrophoblast, syncytiotrophoblast

120
Q

List the materal components of the placenta.

A

Dedicua basalis

121
Q

The cytotrophoblast forms the […] layer of the chorionic villi.

A

The cytotrophoblast forms the inner layer of the chorionic villi.

122
Q

The syncytiotrophoblast forms the […] layer of the chorionic villi.

A

The syncytiotrophoblast forms the outer layer of the chorionic villi.

123
Q

What part of the placenta secretes hCG?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

124
Q

hCG is structurally similar to what maternal hormone?

A

LH

125
Q

Identify 1

A

chorionic villi

126
Q

Identify 2

A

uterine artery and vein

127
Q

Identify 3

A

maternal blood in intervillus space

128
Q

Identify 4

A

uterus

129
Q

Identify 5

A

placenta

130
Q

Identify 6

A

umbilical artery

131
Q

Identify 7

A

umbilical vein

132
Q

Identify 8

A

amnion

133
Q

Identify 9

A

chorion

134
Q

Identify 11

A

amniotic fluid

135
Q

There are […] umbilical arteries and […] umbilican veins in a normal umbilical cord.

A

There are 2 umbilical arteries and 1 umbilican veins in a normal umbilical cord.

136
Q

The umbilical vein drains into the […] via the […].

A

The umbilical vein drains into the IVC via the ductus venosus.

137
Q

The umbilical arteries carry […] blood from the […] arteries to the […].

A

The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetal internal illiac arteries to the placenta.

138
Q

The umbilical vein carries […] blood from the […] to the […].

A

The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus.

139
Q

Umbilical arteries and veins are derived from the […].

A

Umbilical arteries and veins are derived from the allantois.

140
Q

Diagnose: urine discharge from umbilicus

A

Patent urachus

141
Q

What are the characteristic signs and symptoms of vesicourachal diverticulum?

A

Outpouching of bladder into umbilicus

142
Q

Diagnose: meconium discharge from umbilicus

A

Vitelline fistula

143
Q

What is the etiology of Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Failure of vitelline duct to close

144
Q

Diagnose: in newborn: melena, periumbilical pain, ulcer

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

145
Q

What is the etiology of vesicourachal diverticulum?

A

Failure of urachus to obliterate

146
Q

What is the etiology of patent urachus?

A

Failure of urachus to obliterate

147
Q

What is the etiology of vitelline fistula?

A

Failure of vitelline duct to close

148
Q

The 1st aortic arch forms the […] artery.

A

The 1st aortic arch forms the maxillary artery.

[1st arch is maximal]

149
Q

The 2nd aortic arch forms the […] artery.

A

The 2nd aortic arch forms the stapedial and hyoid artery.

[Second = Stapedial]

150
Q

The 3rd aortic arch forms the […] artery.

A

The 3rd aortic arch forms the common and internal carotid artery.

151
Q

The 4th aortic arch forms the […] artery.

A

The 4th aortic arch forms the adult aortic arch and subclavian artery.

[4th arch (4 limbs) = systemic]

152
Q

The 6th aortic arch forms the […] artery and […].

A

The 6th aortic arch forms the pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosus.

153
Q

The 5th aortic arch forms the […] artery.

A

The 5th aortic arch forms the nothing - it degenerates artery.

154
Q

The branchial (or pharyngeal) apparatus is composed of […].

A

The branchial (or pharyngeal) apparatus is composed of clefts, arches, and pouches.

155
Q

The branchial clefts derives from what germ layer?

A

ectoderm

156
Q

The branchial arches derives from what germ layer?

A

mesoderm, neural crest ectoderm

157
Q

The branchial pouches derives from what germ layer?

A

endoderm

158
Q

The external auditory meatus derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st cleft

159
Q

What is the etiology of persistent cervical sinus?

A

Abnormal persistence of branchial cleft cyst

160
Q

What are the characteristic signs and symptoms of persistent cervical sinus?

A

Cyst in lateral neck

161
Q

The Meckel’s cartilage derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

162
Q

The mandible derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

163
Q

The malleus derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

164
Q

The manibular ligament derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

165
Q

The muscles of mastication derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

166
Q

The mylohoid derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

167
Q

The tensor tympani derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

168
Q

The tensor veli palantini derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

169
Q

The CN 5.2, 5.3 derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

170
Q

What is the etiology of Treacher Collins syndrome?

A

1st arch neural crest fails to migrate

171
Q

What are the characteristic signs and symptoms of Treacher Collins syndrome?

A

mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities

172
Q

The Reichert’s cartilage derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

173
Q

The stapes derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

174
Q

The incus derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

175
Q

The styloid process derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

176
Q

The stylohyoid ligament derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

177
Q

The lesser horn of hyoid derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

178
Q

The muscles of facial expression derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

179
Q

The stapedius derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

180
Q

The stylohyoid derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

181
Q

The CN 7 derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd arch

182
Q

The greater horn of hyoid derives from what branchial precursor?

A

3rd arch

183
Q

The stylopharyngeus derives from what branchial precursor?

A

3rd arch

184
Q

What is the etiology of congenital pharyngo-cutaneous fistula?

A

Persistence of 3rd branchial cleft and pouch

185
Q

Diagnose: fistula between tonsillar area, cleft in neck

A

Congenital pharyngo-cutaneous fistula

186
Q

The thyroid catrilage derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th-6th arches

187
Q

The cricoid cartilage derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th-6th arches

188
Q

The arytenoid cartilages derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th-6th arches

189
Q

The corniculate derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th-6th arches

190
Q

The cuneform derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th-6th arches

191
Q

The pharyngeal constrictor muscles derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th arch

192
Q

The cricothyroid muscle derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th arch

193
Q

The levator veli palantini derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th arch

194
Q

The intrinsic muscles of larynx (except cricothyroid) derives from what branchial precursor?

A

6th arch

195
Q

The CN 10 - superior laryngel branch derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th arch

196
Q

The CN 10 - recurrent laryngeal branch derives from what branchial precursor?

A

6th arch

197
Q

The anterior 2/3 of tongue derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st arch

198
Q

The posterior 1/3 of tongue derives from what branchial precursor?

A

3rd and 4th arches

199
Q

The middle ear cavity derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st pouch

200
Q

The eustachian tube derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st pouch

201
Q

The mastoid air cells derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st pouch

202
Q

The endoderm lined structures of the ear derives from what branchial precursor?

A

1st pouch

203
Q

The epithelial lining of palantine tonsil derives from what branchial precursor?

A

2nd pouch

204
Q

The thymus derives from what branchial precursor?

A

3rd pouch

205
Q

The inferior parathyroids derives from what branchial precursor?

A

3rd pouch

206
Q

The superior parathyroids derives from what branchial precursor?

A

4th pouch

207
Q

What is the etiology of cleft lip?

A

Failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal processes (primary palate)

208
Q

What is the etiology of cleft palate?

A

Failure of fusion of lateral palantine processes, nasal septum, and median palantine processes (secondary palate)

209
Q

What is the etiology of bicornate uterus?

A

Incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts

210
Q

What are the characteristic signs and symptoms of bicornate uterus?

A

Urinary tract abnormalities and miscarriages

211
Q

Diagnose: male internal genitalia, ambiguous external genitalia until puberty

A

5α-reductase deficiency

212
Q

What is the etiology of hypospadias?

A

Failure of closure of urethral folds

213
Q

What is the physical defect in hypospadias?

A

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on ventral side of penis

214
Q

What are some possible complications of hypospadias?

A

UTIs

215
Q

What is the etiology of epispadias?

A

Faulty positioning of genital tubercle

216
Q

What is the physical defect in epispadias?

A

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on dorsal aspect of penis

217
Q

What are some possible complications of epispadias?

A

Exstrophy of the bladder

218
Q

What is the inheritance pattern in 5α-reductase deficiency?

A

AR

219
Q

What is the pathogenesis of 5α-reductase deficiency?

A

Inability to convert testosterone to DHT

220
Q

What are the characteristic lab findings in 5α-reductase deficiency?

A

Normal: testosterone, estrogen

Increased: LH (or normal)

221
Q

What volume defines oligohydramnios?

A

> 0.5 L amnionic fluid

Reproductive System (4 decks)

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