Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chemical Technician (Analytical Chemistry) > Electron and Ion Spectrometer > Flashcards

Electron and Ion Spectrometer Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Periodic Table flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q
  1. Surface is usually more than _____ atomic layer deep
    and is a region of ________ atomic potentials.
    a) One, uniform
    b) One, non-uniform
    c) Two, uniform
    d) Two, non-uniform
A

b) One, non-uniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Surface analysis can provide information that classic
    methods like microscopic cannot.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. In surface spectrometer, which of the following beam is analysed?
    a) Reflected beam
    b) Absorbed beam
    c) Refracted beam
    d) Incident beam
A

a) Reflected beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of electron
    spectroscopy?
    a) MIKES
    b) Auger spectroscopy
    c) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
    d) Ion scattering spectroscopy
A

b) Auger spectroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following methods utilizes the emission of low energy electrons in a process?
    a) Auger electron spectroscopy
    b) Electron impact spectroscopy
    c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
    d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
A

a) Auger electron spectroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Surface analysis cannot provide any chemical
    information directly.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following is also known as X-ray
    photoelectron spectroscopy?
    a) Auger electron spectroscopy
    b) Electron impact spectroscopy
    c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
    d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
A

c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the abbreviation of ESCA?
    a) Electron scattering chemical analysis
    b) Emission spectroscopy combination analysis
    c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
    d) Electron spectrum chemically analysed
A

c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following methods use soft X-rays to eject electrons from inner shell orbitals?
    a) Auger electron spectroscopy
    b) Electron impact spectroscopy
    c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
    d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
A

c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron energies is
    dependent on _________ of the atom, which makes XPS
    useful to identify the oxide state.
    a) Mass
    b) Charge
    c) Chemical environment
    d) Volume
A

c) Chemical environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Electron spectroscopy is based on the ionization
    phenomenon.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following is the abbreviation of SIMS?
    a) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
    b) Spectrum ionization mass spectroscopy
    c) Scattering ions mass spectroscopy
    d) Spectral ionization mass spectroscopy
A

a) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Ion etching techniques provides the depth profiling from the surface.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth about ________ armstrong in metals.
    a) 5-20
    b) 15-40
    c) 40-100
    d) 100-200
A

a) 5-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth about ________ armstrong in oxide.
    a) 5-20
    b) 15-40
    c) 40-100
    d) 100-200
A

b) 15-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Discrete electrons cannot be observed in electron
    ionization of an atom due to which of the following
    reasons?
    a) Environmental disturbances
    b) Same mass
    c) Same charge
    d) Electron- electron interaction
A

d) Electron- electron interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectron is
    dependent upon the energy of which of the following?
    a) Ions around
    b) Photons around
    c) Material
    d) Impinging photon
A

d) Impinging photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth about ________ armstrong in polymers.
    a) 5-20
    b) 15-40
    c) 40-100
    d) 100-200
A

c) 40-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. ESCA can identify elements in the periodic table above which of the following?
    a) Carbon
    b) Boron
    c) Helium
    d) Potassium
A

c) Helium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. In the spectrum, two main peaks at _________ and
    ________ are observed.
    a) 284.6, 532.5
    b) 248.6, 523.5
    c) 264.8, 535.2
    d) 246.8, 553.2
A

a) 284.6, 532.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. ESCA focusses on which of the following information?
    a) Mass of the electron
    b) Charge of the electron
    c) Binding energy of the electron
    d) Mass of atoms
A

c) Binding energy of the electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. 284.6 eV matches which of the following specific atom
    type?
    a) Carbon
    b) Oxygen
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Argon
A

a) Carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. 532.5 eV matches which of the following specific atom
    type?
    a) Carbon
    b) Oxygen
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Argon
A

b) Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. By studying which of the following can we determine if the surface corresponds to C-O or C=O chemical form?
    a) Mass of the electron
    b) Energy of the carbon peak
    c) Binding energy
    d) Charge of electron
A

b) Energy of the carbon peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The characterisation of auger spectroscopy can be
    achieved up to which of the following depths?
    a) 1 nm
    b) 2 nm
    c) 4 nm
    d) 8 nm
A

a) 1 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Auger electron spectroscopy can be used for surface
    chemical analysis in a way similar to which of the
    following?
    a) ESCA
    b) SIMS
    c) ISS
    d) Ion spectroscopy
A

a) ESCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. AES is limited when it comes to very high resolution
    studies.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Qualitative chemical analysis is very often performed using which of the following?
    a) ESCA
    b) SIMS
    c) AES
    d) Ion spectroscopy
A

c) AES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Electron ionization can produce which of the following?
    a) ESCA electron
    b) Auger electron
    c) Ion
    d) Photon
A

b) Auger electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Electron ionisation can produce ESCA electrons.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. In Auger process, an electron drops to fill which of the following?
    a) 1s hole
    b) 1p hole
    c) 2s hole
    d) 2p hole
A

a) 1s hole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is an Auger transition starting
    from a hole in 1s levels which would be filled up from the 2p level?
    a) KLM transition
    b) KLL transition
    c) LMN transition
    d) LLM transition
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Auger electron spectroscopy involves the irradiation of the surface to be analysed with a beam of electrons of energy in the _________ range.
    a) 1-2 KeV
    b) 2-4 KeV
    c) 4-8 KeV
    d) 1-8 KeV
A

a) 1-2 KeV

22
Q
  1. In ESCA process, the photon ejects which of the
    following?
    a) 1s electron
    b) 1p electron
    c) 2s electron
    d) 2p electron
A

b) 1p electron

23
Q
  1. In Auger spectroscopy, beam currents are typically
    _____ in a beam of diameter 0.5mm.
    a) 5-10 µA
    b) 5-20 µA
    c) 5-30 µA
    d) 5-50 µA
A

d) 5-50 µA

24
Q
  1. Which of the following is the detection limit of Auger Electron Spectroscopy?
    a) 0.1% monolayer
    b) 0.5% monolayer
    c) 1% monolayer
    d) 2% monolayer
A

b) 0.5% monolayer

25
Q
  1. Which of the following denotes the sample destruction that occurs in Auger electron spectroscopy?
    a) None in 95% of sample
    b) None in 99% of sample
    c) None in 100% of sample
    d) Frequent
A

d) Frequent

26
Q
  1. How is the specificity of Auger electron spectroscopy?
    a) Very bad
    b) Bad
    c) Good
    d) Very good
A

c) Good

27
Q
  1. AES is more sensitive than XPS because of which of the following factors?
    a) Binding energies of electrons
    b) Kinetic energies of electrons
    c) Mass of electrons
    d) Mass to charge ratio of electrons
A

b) Kinetic energies of electrons

28
Q
  1. A basic X-ray source includes which of the following
    components?
    a) Large target anode
    b) Large target cathode
    c) Small target anode
    d) Small target cathode
A

a) Large target anode

29
Q
  1. The anode is held at __________ positive potential and
    the filament is held at ____________ potential.
    a) High, ground
    b) Ground, high
    c) Low, high
    d) High, low
A

a) High, ground

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is one of the most commonly
    used anode material?
    a) Carbon
    b) Tungsten
    c) Magnesium
    d) Cesium
A

c) Magnesium

31
Q
  1. Which is the most intense line in the X-ray spectrum?
    a) Kα1
    b) Kα2
    c) Kα12
    d) Kα22
A

c) Kα12

31
Q
  1. Which of the following must be used with the X-ray
    source to have high energy resolution?
    a) Chopper
    b) Vacuum chamber
    c) Accelerator
    d) Monochromator
A

d) Monochromator

32
Q
  1. Magnetic deflection energy analysers are effective than electrostatic types.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

33
Q
  1. Double-pass cylindrical mirror energy analyser has how many mirrors?
    a) One
    b) Two
    c) Three
    d) Four
A

b) Two

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most commonly used
    detector in ESCA and AES?
    a) Electron multiplier
    b) Dynodes
    c) Photovoltaic cell
    d) Photomultiplier
A

a) Electron multiplier

35
Q
  1. In spherical sector analyser, __________ is detected and plotted as a function of energy.
    a) Mass
    b) Charge
    c) Number of electrons striking the detector
    d) Mass to charge ratio
A

c) Number of electrons striking the detector

36
Q
  1. The output of the multiplier is fed to which of the
    following immediately?
    a) Pulse amplifier discriminator
    b) DAC
    c) ADC
    d) Multichannel analyser
A

a) Pulse amplifier discriminator

36
Q
  1. Electron detector has a _______ doped glass tube with a secondary semiconducting coating.
    a) Quartz
    b) Silica
    c) Lead
    d) Cesium
A

c) Lead

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is the ideal vacuum for electron spectrometers?
    a) 10-6 torr
    b) 10-7 torr
    c) 10-8 torr
    d) 10-9 torr
A

a) 10-6 torr

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most commonly used
    magnetic shielding?
    a) Helmholtz coils
    b) Ferro-magnetic shielding
    c) Faraday shield
    d) Magnetometer probe
A

b) Ferro-magnetic shielding

37
Q
  1. Charging effect can be suppressed by supplying flood of electrons having which of the following?
    a) Uniform low energy
    b) Uniform low mass
    c) Uniform high energy
    d) Uniform high mass
A

a) Uniform low energy

38
Q
  1. Synchroton radiation has several advantages over
    conventional radiation.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

39
Q
  1. In Ion spectroscopy, the primary ion is usually which of the following?
    a) Inert gas ion
    b) Halogen ion
    c) Oxygen group gas ion
    d) Hydrogen
A

a) Inert gas ion

40
Q
  1. The kinetic energy of the primary ion should be in which of the following range?
    a) 0.1-4 keV
    b) 0.2-1 keV
    c) 0.4-2 keV
    d) 0.3-5 keV
A

d) 0.3-5 keV

41
Q
  1. If the primary ion is elastically scattered, the kinetic
    energy of the reflected primary ion will depend on which of the following?
    a) Charge of the primary ion
    b) Charge of the surface ion
    c) Mass of the surface ion
    d) Number of surface ions
A

c) Mass of the surface ion

42
Q
  1. Which of the following causes the phenomena of
    sputtering?
    a) Primary ion gets embedded in the solid
    b) Primary ion is elastically scattered
    c) Primary ion is reflected
    d) Primary ion is refracted
A

a) Primary ion gets embedded in the solid

43
Q
  1. The fragments formed during sputtering can be either neutral atoms or ions. The ions can only be positive.
    a) True
    b) False
A

b) False

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is the energy range of ISS?
    a) 1 keV
    b) 2 keV
    c) 4 keV
    d) 8 keV
A

a) 1 keV

45
Q
  1. Both ISS and SIMS have depth profiling capability.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is the spectral range of SIMS?
    a) 0-10 amu
    b) 0-100 amu
    c) 0-500 amu
    d) 0-1000 amu
A

c) 0-500 amu

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is denotes the absolute
    quantitative analysis of SIMS?
    a) 30%
    b) 70%
    c) 50%
    d) Not possible
A

d) Not possible

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is the amount of matrix effect that occurs in SIMS?
    a) Very low
    b) Low
    c) Some
    d) Severe
A

d) Severe

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is the x-y resolution of ISS?
    a) 1 µ
    b) 10 µ
    c) 100 µ
    d) 1000 µ
A

c) 100 µ

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the x-y resolution of SIMS?
    a) 1 µ
    b) 10 µ
    c) 100 µ
    d) 1000 µ
A

a) 1 µ

50
Q
  1. Only those electrons which are in a selected small solid angle are received in the ________ electrostatic analyser.
    a) 100o
    b) 127o
    c) 180o
    d) 263o
A

b) 127o

51
Q
  1. In ion spectroscopy, the positive ions are focussed on the sample at which of the following angles?
    a) 20o
    b) 30o
    c) 45o
    d) 90o
A

c) 45o

52
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used as the detector in ion spectroscopy?
    a) Faraday cup collector
    b) Channel electron multiplier
    c) Micro-channel plate
    d) Flame ionization detector
A

b) Channel electron multiplier

53
Q
  1. In order to obtain ISS spectra, the backscattered primary ions are sampled by which of the following?
    a) Faraday cup analyser
    b) Photographic analyser
    c) Micro-channel analyser
    d) Cylindrical mirror analyser
A

d) Cylindrical mirror analyser

54
Q
  1. It is advantageous to use ions from a variety of gases.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is the energy after collision with a surface atom for a scattering angle of 90o when Eo is the energy of the incident ion, M1 is the mass of the incident ion and M2 is the mass of the target surface?
    a) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1)
    b) Eo(M2+M1)/(M2-M1)
    c) Eo(M2×M1)/(M2+M1)
    d) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2×M1)
A

) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1)

56
Q
  1. Which of the following gases is not often used in ion
    spectroscopy?
    a) Helium
    b) Argon
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Neon
A

c) Nitrogen

57
Q
  1. ISS is sensitive to every element heavier than which of the following?
    a) Helium
    b) Hydrogen
    c) Nitrogen
    d) Neon
A

a) Helium

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is the lightest isotope used as a primary ion?
    a) He
    b) 2^He
    c) 3^He
    d) 3^H
A

c) 3^He

59
Q
  1. The specificity will vary depending on the scattering gas used.
    a) True
    b) False
A

a) True

60
Q
  1. ISS is less sensitive than which of the following?
    a) SIMS
    b) Auger
    c) ESCA
    d) AES
A

a) SIMS

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is the detection limit of ISS for monolayer?
    a) 10 -1 %
    b) 10 -2 %
    c) 10 -3 %
    d) 10 -4 %
A

c) 10 -3 %

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is the range of quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS?
    a) 100-200 amu
    b) 200-300 amu
    c) 500-1000 amu
    d) 200-500 amu
A

c) 500-1000 amu

62
Q
  1. After passing through the pre-filter, ions are passed through which of the following?
    a) Quadrupole mass spectrometer
    b) Time of flight mass spectrometer
    c) Radiofrequency mass spectrometer
    d) Magnetic deflection mass spectrometer
A

a) Quadrupole mass spectrometer

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is the resolution of quadrupole mass spectrometer used in SIMS?
    a) 1 amu
    b) 2 amu
    c) 5 amu
    d) 3 amu
A

a) 1 amu

Chemical Technician (Analytical Chemistry) (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions