ED Formative Flashcards

1
Q

In the assessment of paediatric fever in the emergency department, which statement is most correct?
- A: All febrile neonates should have a septic screen and admission
- B: Fever is defined as a core temperature of >37.00C
- C: Fever of >40.00C will lead to convulsions
- D: If paracetamol abolishes the fever, it is unlikely that the source is a bacterial infection
- E: In children aged between three and 36 months, bacterial infection can be excluded on clinical grounds alone

A

= A: All febrile neonates should have a septic screen and admission

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2
Q
  • A: Compensated respiratory acidosis
  • B: Metabolic acidosis
  • C: Metabolic alkalosis
  • D: Respiratory acidosis
  • E: Respiratory alkalosis
A

= B: Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic acidosis is correct. pH= 7.25 = acidaemia PC02 is low so not a respiratory
cause.

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3
Q

Based on current guidelines, which therapy in treating cardiac arrest has the most supportive evidence?
- A: Closed chest compressions
- B: Defibrillation according to ALS guidelines
- C: Intravenous bretylium
- D: Open cardiac massage
- E: Use of thrombolytic therapy

A

= B: Defibrillation according to ALS guidelines
- The only therapy demonstrated to influence survival. Some evidence re closed chest compression but not the most supportive cf defibrillation. Bretylium has disappeared from the ALS guidelines No supportive evidence re open cardiac massage and use of thrombolytic therapy.

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4
Q

Regarding paracetamol overdose, which statement is correct?
- A: A single ingestion of more than 50 mg/kg is potentially fatal if untreated
- B: AST may increase within 12 hours of toxic ingestion
- C: Children are more susceptible to toxicity
- D: Elevated INR may occur without raised liver enzymes
- E: Use of N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) is ineffective 16 hours or more after ingestion of a toxic dose

A

= B: AST may increase within 12 hours of toxic ingestion
- The AST may increase within 12 hours so this is correct. Usual toxic dose is greater than 150 mg/kg. Children are not more susceptible.
Associated with hepatic injury so liver enzymes are elevated N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)can be used up to days after the toxic ingestion with benefit

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5
Q

In a patient with a suspected Addisonian crisis, what electrolyte series would support the diagnosis?
- A: Low sodium, low potassium and high blood glucose
- B: Low sodium, low potassium and low blood sugar
- C: Low sodium, raised potassium and low blood glucose
- D: Raised sodium, low potassium and low blood glucose
- E: Raised sodium, raised potassium and high blood glucose

A

= C: Low sodium, raised potassium and low blood glucose

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6
Q

What is correct regarding opioid drugs?
- A: Drug tolerance can lead to absence of miosis
- B: Morphine is a good analgesic choice in renal failure
- C: Morphine-6-glucuronide is an inactive metabolite
- D: Naloxone has a half life of 120 minutes
- E: Pethidine may be associated with seizures

A

= E: Pethidine may be associated with seizures

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7
Q

A 24 year old male sustains a self-inflicted laceration at the wrist. What physical sign would be associated with a median nerve injury at that level?
- A: Inability to abduct the fingers
- B: Inability to abduct the thumb
- C: Inability to adduct the fingers
- D: Inability to adduct the thumb
- E: Inability to flex the terminal phalanx of the thumb

A

= B: Inability to abduct the thumb
- An injury to the median nerve at the wrist will cause loss of abduction and opposition of the thumb.
- Interossei function so ulnar nerve - inability to abduct and adduct fingers.
- Supplied by the ulnar nerve - inability to adduct thumb.
- Long thumb flexor has a proximal supply - inability to flex terminal phalanx of the thumb.

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8
Q

Following an acute myocardial infarct, what cardiac biomarker is present in the serum earliest?
- A: CKMB
- B: Lactate dehydrogenase troponin I
- C: Myoglobin
- D: Troponin I
- E: Troponin T

A

= C: Myoglobin
Myoglobin - rises earlier than CKMB or troponin. MB is being used in most cardiac biomarker panels in EDs now in an attempt to risk stratify earlier. CKMB present within 10-24 hours. Lactate dehydrogenase troponin I peaks at 72 hours. Troponin most sensitive around 6 hours.

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9
Q

What drug is used in the emergency department that does not cross the placenta?
- A: Diazepam
- B: Heparin
- C: Phenytoin
- D: Promethazine
- E: Salicylates

A

B: Heparin - can be safely used in pregnancy as does not cross the placenta.

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10
Q

What can a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis be caused by?
- A: Addison’s disease
- B: Chronic antacid use
- C: Diabetes mellitus
- D: Methanol
- E: Uraemia

A

= A: Addison’s disease
Addison’s disease is correct. Low levels of aldosterone lead to sodium wasting and H+ retention in the distal renal tubule. This can be deduced by the common causes of an anion gap metabolic acidosis MUDPILES. Chronic antacid use causes a metabolic alkalosis.
Diabetes mellitus, methanol and uraemia - part of MUDPILES.

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11
Q

While walking in Northbridge, a 33 year old male is transferred to the emergency department after a stab wound to the back. He has a right lower limb paralysis and decreased sensation to pain and temperature on the left below the waist.
The findings are most consistent with which cord syndrome?
- A: Anterior cord syndrome
- B: Brown-Sequard syndrome
- C: Central cord syndrome
- D: Complete spinal cord transaction
- E: Horner’s syndrome

A

= B: Brown-Sequard syndrome
- Brown-Sequard syndrome is the only choice that produces spinal hemiplegia. All others are not consistent. Central cord syndrome - upper limb weakness greater than lower limb weakness.

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12
Q

A 69 year old female, with a prior history of hypertension, presents with tearing interscapular chest pain. The ECG shows evidence of an acute inferior myocardial infarction. The chest X-ray is unremarkable.
After initial assessment and stabilisation, what is the next step?
- A: Administer a thrombolytic agent
- B: Administer aspirin followed by streptokinase
- C: Obtain an elective MRI of the chest
- D: Obtain an urgent CT angiogram of the chest
- E: Start heparin

A

= C: Obtain an urgent CT angiogram of the chest.
- Acute thoracic aortic dissection can present in this manner- the first coronary artery to be affected is the right coronary in a proximal dissection so an inferior AMI pattern may be a feature.

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13
Q

What is the most significant early complication of a pelvic fracture?
- A: Life threatening haemorrhage
- B: Pelvic abscess
- C: Rectal laceration
- D: Sacral plexus injury
- E: Urethral injury

A

= A: Life threatening haemorrhage
A. Life threatening haemorrhage is the major cause of death - important to reduce the pelvic volume with external binders as an initial life saving measure.

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14
Q

A patient returns from an ultrasound of his right lower limb as investigation for a suspected deep vein thrombosis. The report states a ‘thrombosis is present in the superficial femoral vein extending to the saphenotemoral junction.
What is the best management?
- A: Anticoagulation with heparin while waiting for a therapeutic warfarin level
- B: Elevation, local heat and aspirin
- C: TED (compression stocking)
- D: Thrombolysis as primary treatment
- E: Vascular surgical review for thrombectomy

A

= A: Anticoagulation with heparin while waiting for a therapeutic warfarin level
- Anticoagulation with heparin is correct. This is a deep vein thrombosis- the nomenclature of referring to the femoral vein as the superficial femoral vein is largely superseded but an important source of confusion in a clinician thinking it is a thrombosis of a superficial vein.

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15
Q

With regard to the use of bedside ultrasound in the setting of trauma, which statement is correct?
- A: Assessment of the IVC filling can be used to gauge resuscitation
- B: Blood is able to be distinguished from ascites
- C: Sensitive to exclude parenchymal injury to solid organs
- D: Sensitive to rule out bowel injury
- E: Supine chest X-ray is more sensitive to diagnose a pneumothorax than an ultrasound

A

= A: Assessment of the IVC filling can be used to gauge resuscitation
- Assessment of the IVC filling can be used to gauge resuscitation is correct. - The IVC filling and variation with respiration can be used to assess the degree of volume filling.
- Bedside ultrasound can detect free fluid in the abdomen, pleural and pericardial spaces.
- Unable to determine the nature of the fluid.
- Ultrasound performs better than a supine CXR to diagnose a pheumothorax.

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16
Q

In the diagnosis and treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is correct?
- A: Cerebral odema occurs most frequently in children presenting for the first time with new onset diabetic ketoacidosis
- B: Insulin therapy should be delayed until there is adequate volume resuscitation
- C: Never occurs in patients with type Il diabetes mellitus
- D: Potassium replacement should start at the onset of resuscitation
- E: Serum sodium is commonly greater than 150 mmol/L (RI: 134 - 146)

A
  • A: Cerebral odema occurs most frequently in children presenting for the first time with new onset diabetic ketoacidosis
17
Q

With regard to diagnostic errors, which statement is correct?
- A: Analytical decision making has high reliability
- B: Conscious control in intuitive thinking is high
- C: Heuristics is an example of type 2 thinking
- D: System 2 errors are more common than system 1 errors
- E: The emotional valence with analytical thinking is high

A

= A: Analytical decision making has high reliability
- Relative to system 1 - analytical decision making has high reliability - this is correct.
- Conscious control in type 1 (intuitive thinking) is low. Heuristics = rule of thumb are type 1 thinking. This is covered in the lecture.
- System 1 has a higher error rate. Emotional valence is high with type 1 thinking.

18
Q

Which situation is an example of an appropriate triage of a patient presenting to the emergency department?
- A: ATS 1: an acute onset of headache with normal conscious state
- B: ATS 2: a 55 year old male with central chest pain with radiation to the jaw
- C: ATS 3: request for a script for antihypertensive medication
- D: ATS 4: altered conscious state in an insulin dependent diabetic
- E: ATS 4: a homeless male seeking social work help

A

= B: ATS 2: a 55 year old male with central chest pain with radiation to the jaw
- Very simple, and evident to any student who has seen a chest pain in an ED.

19
Q

Which statement is correct regarding renal colic due to stones?
- A: CT imaging cannot determine the size of the calculus
- B: Haematuria is present rarely
- C: Morphine is ineffective for pain relief
- D: Most renal calculi are radiolucent
- E: Stones greater that 6 mm are unlikely to pass

A

= E: Stones greater that 6 mm are unlikely to pass

Stones greater than 6 mm have a high frequency of NOT passing is correct. CT very reliable and sensitive in measurement of radio-opaque stones. About 85% of patients have haematuria. Morphine is very effective - but NSAIDs are also part of the initial analgesia.
Most renal calculi are radio-opaque.

20
Q

Which medication is indicated in the treatment of tricyclic antidepressant overdose with signs of cardiac toxicity?
- A: Flumazenil
- B: Physostigmine
- C: Quinidine
- D: Sodium bicarbonate
- E: Thiamine

A

= D: Sodium bicarbonate
- Sodium bicarbonate is indicated. This is the only stem that makes any sense in the treatment of tricyclics antidepressant overdose.

21
Q

The following medications are contained in the current Critical Care Study Guide. A parenteral opioid which is contraindicated in renal failure. What is the most appropriate medication?
- A: Adrenaline
- B: Amiodarone
- C: Atropine
- D: Calcium gluconate 10%
- E: Fentanyl
- F: Hydrocortisone
- G: Ketamine
- H: Lignocaine
- I: Magnesium sulphate 50%
- J: Morphine
- K: Noradrenaline
- L: Oxycodone
- M: Oxygen
- N: Phenytoin
- O: Suxamethonium
- P: Vecuronium

A

Morphine is a parenteral opioid which is contraindicated in renal failure.

22
Q

The following medications are contained in the current Critical Care Study Guide. A sodium channel stabiliser which has zero order kinetics at increasing dose.
What is the most appropriate medication?
- A: Adrenaline
- B: Amiodarone
- C: Atropine
- D: Calcium gluconate 10%
- E: Fentanyl
- F: Hydrocortisone
- G: Ketamine
- H: Lignocaine
- I: Magnesium sulphate 50%
- J: Morphine
- K: Noradrenaline
- L: Oxycodone
- M: Oxygen
- N: Phenytoin
- O: Suxamethonium
- P: Vecuronium

A

= Phenytoin is a sodium channel stabiliser which has zero order kinetics at increasing dose.

23
Q

The following medications are contained in the current Critical Care Study Guide. A naturally occurring cation which undergoes renal excretion and, in excessive dosing, causes areflexia.
What is the most appropriate medication?
- A: Adrenaline
- B: Amiodarone
- C: Atropine
- D: Calcium gluconate 10%
- E: Fentanyl
- F: Hydrocortisone
- G: Ketamine
- H: Lignocaine
- I: Magnesium sulphate 50%
- J: Morphine
- K: Noradrenaline
- L: Oxycodone
- M: Oxygen
- N: Phenytoin
- O: Suxamethonium
- P: Vecuronium

A

= Magnesium sulphate 50% is a naturally occurring cation which undergoes renal excretion and, in excessive dosing, causes areflexia.

24
Q

The following medications are contained in the current Critical Care Study Guide. A toxic effect in high dose includes retrolental fibroplasia. What is the most appropriate medication?
- A: Adrenaline
- B: Amiodarone
- C: Atropine
- D: Calcium gluconate 10%
- E: Fentanyl
- F: Hydrocortisone
- G: Ketamine
- H: Lignocaine
- I: Magnesium sulphate 50%
- J: Morphine
- K: Noradrenaline
- L: Oxycodone
- M: Oxygen
- N: Phenytoin
- O: Suxamethonium
- P: Vecuronium

A

= M: Oxygen - has toxic side effects at high doses - eg. retrolental fibroplasia

25
Q

The following medications are contained in the current Critical Care Study Guide. A synthetic phencyclidine which is an NMDA receptor antagonist. What is the most appropriate medication?
A: Adrenaline
- B: Amiodarone
- C: Atropine
- D: Calcium gluconate 10%
- E: Fentanyl
- F: Hydrocortisone
- G: Ketamine
- H: Lignocaine
- I: Magnesium sulphate 50%
- J: Morphine
- K: Noradrenaline
- L: Oxycodone
- M: Oxygen
- N: Phenytoin
- O: Suxamethonium
- P: Vecuronium

A

= G: Ketamine - Ketamine is a synthetic phencyclidine which is an NMDA receptor antagonist.

26
Q

A 36 year old female, eight days post vaginal hysterectomy, presents with acute shortness of breath. Her ECG shows right heart strain and pulse oximetry of 90% on room air.
What is the most appropriate choice for her chest pain?
- A: Acute coronary syndrome
- B: Anxiety disorder
- C: Aortic dissection
- D: Biliary colic
- E: Fractured ribs
- F: Herpes zoster
- G: Muscular pain
- H: Oesophageal rupture
- I: Osophagitis
- J: Peptic ulcer disease
- K: Pericarditis
- L: Pleural effusion
- M: Pneumomediastinum
- N: Pneumonia
- O: Pneumothorax
- P: Pulmonary embolism

A

= Pulmonary embolism

27
Q

A tall 42 year old male smoker presents with acute onset shortness of breath. There is evidence of tracheal deviation and hyper-resonance on percussion of the chest. What is the most appropriate choice for his chest pain?
- A: Acute coronary syndrome
- B: Anxiety disorder
- C: Aortic dissection
- D: Biliary colic
- E: Fractured ribs
- F: Herpes zoster
- G: Muscular pain
- H: Oesophageal rupture
- I: Osophagitis
- J: Peptic ulcer disease
- K: Pericarditis
- L: Pleural effusion
- M: Pneumomediastinum
- N: Pneumonia
- O: Pneumothorax
- P: Pulmonary embolism

A

= Pneumothorax is most appropriate choice.

28
Q

A 56 year old male with known hypertension, develops acute onset of severe chest pain. There is a new diastolic murmur on cardiac auscultation. What is the most appropriate choice for his chest pain?
- A: Acute coronary syndrome
- B: Anxiety disorder
- C: Aortic dissection
- D: Biliary colic
- E: Fractured ribs
- F: Herpes zoster
- G: Muscular pain
- H: Oesophageal rupture
- I: Osophagitis
- J: Peptic ulcer disease
- K: Pericarditis
- L: Pleural effusion
- M: Pneumomediastinum
- N: Pneumonia
- O: Pneumothorax
- P: Pulmonary embolism

A

= Aortic dissection is most appropriate choice.

29
Q

A 72 year old male develops acute onset of chest pain after vomiting.
What is the most appropriate choice for his chest pain?
- A: Acute coronary syndrome
- B: Anxiety disorder
- C: Aortic dissection
- D: Biliary colic
- E: Fractured ribs
- F: Herpes zoster
- G: Muscular pain
- H: Oesophageal rupture
- I: Osophagitis
- J: Peptic ulcer disease
- K: Pericarditis
- L: Pleural effusion
- M: Pneumomediastinum
- N: Pneumonia
- O: Pneumothorax
- P: Pulmonary embolism

A

Oesophageal rupture is most appropriate choice.

30
Q

A 20 year old male presents with pleuritic chest pain that is relieved on sitting up. What is the most appropriate choice for his chest pain?
- A: Acute coronary syndrome
- B: Anxiety disorder
- C: Aortic dissection
- D: Biliary colic
- E: Fractured ribs
- F: Herpes zoster
- G: Muscular pain
- H: Oesophageal rupture
- I: Osophagitis
- J: Peptic ulcer disease
- K: Pericarditis
- L: Pleural effusion
- M: Pneumomediastinum
- N: Pneumonia
- O: Pneumothorax
- P: Pulmonary embolism

A

= Pericarditis

31
Q
  • What has happened? (0.5 marks)
  • What urgent intervention is required? Outline a comprehensive systems approach and include the dose and method of administration of any medications. (7.5 marks)
A
  • Anaphylactic reaction (anaphylaxis) (0.5 marks)
32
Q

List two other beta lactam antibiotics used in hospital that may cross react with penicillins. (2 marks)

A

Cephalosporin, Carbapenem (meropenem, imipenem). (Total 2 marks)

33
Q
A

Male, older, family history, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, diabetes mellitus. (0.5 marks each, max 3 marks) (Total 3 marks)

34
Q

An ECG was taken just after arrival (refer to ECG shown). Describe this ECG. (3 marks)

A
  • Sinus rhythm 97/minute (1 mark)
  • ST segment elevation lead V1-V5 (1 mark)
  • Axis left axis -42 degrees
  • P wave normal
  • PR interval, QRS narrow, QTC normal (0.5 marks each)
    (Total 3 marks)

Diagnosis = Acute myocardial infarction (0.5 marks) anterior STEMI (0.5 marks) (Total 1 mark)

35
Q

The patient has further pain and you elect to do another ECG (refer to ECG shown). What is the new development that is evident from this ECG? (1 mark)

A

Accept VT, or torsades de pointes, or coarse VF (Total 1 mark)

36
Q

The patient is being monitored in the resuscitation bay when he becomes unconscious as you are witnessing the rhythm strip. Defibrillation pads are already in place. What is the immediate management? (2 marks)

A
  • Summon help and defibrillation (1 mark)
  • Provide up to 3 shocks 150-200 J and assess the rhythm after each shock. Precordial thump.
    (0.5 marks each, max 1 mark) (Total 2 marks)
    Three stacked shocks were removed from the ALS algorithm in 2010 - it is now included under special circumstances such as a shockable rhythm in a witnessed and monitored setting and the defibrillator is immediately available.
    Precordial thump is worth a try while the defibrillator is charging.