Anaesthetics Formative Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements concerning crystalloids is most correct?

A

= D: The distribution of water in a balanced salt solution such as CSL used intravenously roughly matches that of Normal Saline

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2
Q

What is least likely to be of significant use in the treatment of post-operative nausea and vomiting?

A

= E: Substituting ondansetron 4mg IV for ondansetron 4mg oral wafer
- There is no evidence that ondansetron is more efficacious intravenously than as an oral wafer.

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3
Q
A

Preoxygenation must always precede the hypnotic agent to prevent desaturation, and the hypnotic agent must be given before the paralysing agent to prevent awareness.

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4
Q
A

= B: Ketamine

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5
Q

A diabetic hypertensive patient is scheduled for elective surgery in the morning. What option represents the best pre-operative management?

A

= B: No food from midnight: clear fluids until 06:00; take antihypertensive medications but omit diabetic medications on the morning; schedule patient first on the list

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6
Q

Which intervention is least likely to prevent the progression of acute postsurgical pain to chronic pain?

A

= E: Treatment of neurotocism with anxiolytic medication

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7
Q

You hear a systolic murmur in a middle-aged patient who is scheduled for elective surgery and general anaesthetic in 3 weeks. The cause of the murmur is not documented. Which statement is correct?

A

= A: Even if the patient is asymptomatic, an echocardiogram is indicated to determine the cause of the murmur

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8
Q

In determining the risk of serious morbidity and mortality from a proposed operation and associated anaesthetic, all other things being equal, what is the single most important consideration?

A

= D: The surgical factors

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9
Q
A

= B: If the decision is made to cease clopidogrel pre-operatively, it should be ceased at least 7 days before surgery.

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10
Q
A

= C. Hypoglycaemic agents and anticoagulants

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11
Q
  • A: Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)
  • B: Bleeding time
  • C: Coagulation profile
  • D: CT scan of the chest
  • E: CT scan of the head
  • F: Dobutamine stress echocardiography
  • G: Electroencephalogram
  • H: Exercise stress testing
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
  • J: Full blood picture
  • K: MRI brain
  • L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)
  • M: Transthoracic echocardiogram
  • N: X-ray of skull
A

= F. Dobutamine stress echocardiogram

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12
Q
  • A: Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)
  • B: Bleeding time
  • C: Coagulation profile
  • D: CT scan of the chest
  • E: CT scan of the head
  • F: Dobutamine stress echocardiography
  • G: Electroencephalogram
  • H: Exercise stress testing
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
  • J: Full blood picture
  • K: MRI brain
  • L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)
  • M: Transthoracic echocardiogram
  • N: X-ray of skull
A

= E: CT scan of the head

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13
Q
  • A: Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)
  • B: Bleeding time
  • C: Coagulation profile
  • D: CT scan of the chest
  • E: CT scan of the head
  • F: Dobutamine stress echocardiography
  • G: Electroencephalogram
  • H: Exercise stress testing
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
  • J: Full blood picture
  • K: MRI brain
  • L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)
  • M: Transthoracic echocardiogram
  • N: X-ray of skull
A

= C: Coagulation profile

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14
Q
  • A: Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)
  • B: Bleeding time
  • C: Coagulation profile
  • D: CT scan of the chest
  • E: CT scan of the head
  • F: Dobutamine stress echocardiography
  • G: Electroencephalogram
  • H: Exercise stress testing
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
  • J: Full blood picture
  • K: MRI brain
  • L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)
  • M: Transthoracic echocardiogram
  • N: X-ray of skull
A

= L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)

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15
Q
  • A: Arterial blood gas analysis (ABG)
  • B: Bleeding time
  • C: Coagulation profile
  • D: CT scan of the chest
  • E: CT scan of the head
  • F: Dobutamine stress echocardiography
  • G: Electroencephalogram
  • H: Exercise stress testing
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
  • J: Full blood picture
  • K: MRI brain
  • L: Spirometry (forced vital capacity FVC and forced expiratory volume in 1 second FEV1)
  • M: Transthoracic echocardiogram
  • N: X-ray of skull
A
  • I: Extended focused abdominal sonogram in trauma
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16
Q
  • When are the orthopaedic surgeons likely to want to operate? (1 mark)
  • The open fracture of the ankle has a significant risk of infection and loss of limb. The orthopaedic risk is reduced by early surgery, ideally no more than about 6 hours after the injury, but the sooner the better. Does the likely time scale for going to theatre pose any particular anaesthetic risks? (3 marks)
A

= 6 hours for food, two hours for clear fluids - factual knowledge (Total 1 mark)

Orthopaedic surgeons are likely to want to operate as soon as reasonably practical - patient has an open fracture. (Total 1 mark)

17
Q
  • A general anaesthetic is required. What specific anaesthetic techniques will be needed to reduce the risks in this patient? (3 marks)
  • What other major considerations related to the accident should be considered in this patient’s pre-operative workup? (2 marks)
A

Workup - High speed accident - any other injuries? It was a high speed accident so other injuries are quite possible. (2 marks)