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3. FCOM - QRH > ECAM, failures and QRH > Flashcards

ECAM, failures and QRH Flashcards

1
Q

A/C enters EMER ELEC CONFIG on take off roll, losing both ND’s, PFD1, and lower ECAM, what are some immediate implications of this failure?

A

Reversers inop, alternate braking no antiskid (max psi 1000), nose wheel steering inop.

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2
Q

Name some consequences of a DC ESS BUS FAULT?

A

AP 1 and ATHR inop, VHF 1 and ACP1/2 fail use AUDIO SWTG to recover, engines shut down on ground with fire pb’s. Cat 2 only, status may initially say cat 3.

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3
Q

What are the implications of the loss of both slat channels and F/CTL SLATS FAULT ECAM?

A

AP’s, FD’s and A/THR inop. Alternate law, direct law with gear down.

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4
Q

What is the fuel burn with the gear locked down?

A

Trip * 180%
QRH

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5
Q

What are the implications of a Green Hydraulics failure?

A

Gravity gear extension
Slats/flaps slow
Alternate brakes with antiskid
Cat 3 single

Early landing clearance required.
For G/A - cannot raise gear, extra fuel burn, slow flap/slat retraction.

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6
Q

On selection of flap 2 on approach the wing tip brakes are activated, what are your actions and considerations?

A

Pull speed
Cancel approach, climb above safety alt and hold before ECAM
Need early LDR in case of need for diversion.
Need to find Vmo (use config Vfe)
VLS is calculated from actual config
There is a speed table in QRH
If flaps extended there will be a fuel penalty
G/A speed will be Vmo - 10kts. This may be higher than the Vmo on speed band.

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7
Q

What are the 4 levels of braking depending on failures?

A

Normal braking
Alternate braking with antiskid
Alternate braking without antiskid
Parking brake

FCOM

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8
Q

How is antiskid downgraded on the alternate braking system

A

The antiskid is deactivated either
Electronically (antiskid switch turned off, power failure, BSCU failure) or
Hydraulically (G + Y fault or low pressure, brakes supplied by accumulator)

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9
Q

Is autobrake available on the alternate system?

A

No

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10
Q

Double engine failure - initial actions, where to go, distance available

A

Follow QRH drill rather than ECAM

EMER ELEC POWER MAN ON
With fuel remaining:
fly 300kts optimum relight speed, this gives 2nm per 1000ft

With no fuel remaining:
Fly 215/220kts then green dot from QRH, this gives 2.5nm per 1000ft

Recycle FAC1 to regain characteristic speeds
Below FL250 start APU and commence assisted start attempts
Suitable runway/emergency landing/ditching
Prepare cabin
Oxy masks if required

Final approach 1.2nm/1000ft

QRH

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11
Q

What would your actions be on encountering severe turbulence?What are the turbulence penetration speeds?

A

Seats belt signs on
Cabin crew and passengers be seated immediately
Fly speeds 250kt to FL200, 275kts above then M.76
Keep autopilot and autothrust on, disconnect autothrust if changes become excessive (recommended settings in QRH)
Aim for increases in speed rather than decreases as they are easier to recover from. Can use small amounts of speed brake if required, be careful as this will reduce your aerodynamic margins including a large increase in VLS.

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12
Q

Do we have to manually select alternate brakes?

A

No, if green hydraulic pressure is lost then the yellow hydraulic system takes over automatically to supply the brakes.
You can select the alternate braking system manually by selecting the nws/anti-skid switch to off (obviously you also lose nws and anti-skid).

FCOM brakes and anti skid controls

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13
Q

If you have a RA 1 + 2 failure, can you intercept the localiser and glideslope? What other considerations should you make?

A

No, ILS APPR mode cannot be engaged, LOC mode is available via the FCU LOC pb. Still Cat 1 intercept LOC with AP and follow the glideslope with FPA or VS.

At landing gear extension, flight controls revert to direct law in pitch, as well as in roll (Refer to PRO-ABN-27 F/CTL DIRECT LAW) so AP will disconnect and landing distance increases (work out LD required beforehand). This will be easiest to manage if fully configured and in Vapp before L/G selection.

QRH

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14
Q

Above 100kts reject take off for?

A

Any RED ECAM
F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
ENG FAIL
ENG REVERSER FAULT
ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT

FCTM

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15
Q

When can a predictive windshear warning be ignored? What about a reactive windshear warning?

A

When a predictive windshear alert (“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” or “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) is triggered, if the flight crew makes a positive verification that no hazard exists, then the alert may be disregarded, as long as:
There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions, and
The reactive windshear system is operational.
Known cases of spurious predictive windshear alerts have been reported at some airports, during either takeoff or landing, due to the specific obstacle environment.
However, always rely on any reactive windshear (“WINDSHEAR”).

FCOM, QRH

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16
Q

Whats the maximum engine restart altitude?

A

At 300kts most models will restart at FL250. Some will start at FL275. FCOM/QRH

In case of ENG FAIL with no damage turn the ignition on to try a relight for 30s before cool down.

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17
Q

What happens if you have an FCU 1+2 fault?

A

Lose APs, ATHR, FDs.
Try reset.
No FCU and PFD alt set to STD so PM will have to call for minimums.
No weather radar.

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18
Q

Selecting the ENG FIRE PB does what?

A

Silences alarm
Arms the squib
Closes the LP fuel valve
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Closes the Engine bleed valve
Closes the pack flow control valve
Cuts off the FADEC power supply
Deactivates the IDG

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19
Q

Can you autoland with one engine out? In what configurations?

A

Cat 2 and 3 fail passive auto lands are permissible in Config 3 and full (A319), config full only (A320).

20
Q

Blue and yellow hydraulics failure - what happens? What next?

A

Lose AP but still normal law.
Roll - aileron, plus one spoiler
Pitch - L elevator plus THS
Slats/flaps slow
Gravity gear extension
NO NOSE WHEEL STEERING
No speedbrake

Cat 1 only
Landing distance procedure - approx 1500m dry/2000m wet
No gear retract, don’t want to go around, early clearance before gear
Very stable approach with long final
Will stop on runway, need towing, and fire service.

If low pressure systems may be recovered at lower altitude, if pump failure then possible recovery with ELEC pump or RAT. Overheat may be recoverable for landing.

21
Q

Flying to a 30m wide runway what failures would require a diversion to 45m wide runway?

A

Diversion to a 45 m wide runway is recommended in case of :
Rudder jam
Rudder pedal jam
Yaw damper system fault
Rudder Travel Limit system fault
All failures leading to the loss of the nose wheel steering (HYD Yellow system loss, double hydraulic failure, double BSCU fault, double LGCIU fault)

22
Q

What happens when you turn EMER ELEC GEN 1 LINE off?

A

Same as turning off GEN 1 except for keeping one fuel pump in each wing tank running.

23
Q

If after a smoke drill you restore the electric generators before landing what comes back and what is still missing?

A

You restore the braking capability but the aircraft is still in alternate law and thus landing in direct law due to lost alignment of IR 2 and 3

24
Q

What’s in FCOM PRO Special operations?

A

Flight without pressurisation
Flight with gear down
Flight over mountainous area
Engine intermix ops
RVSM
RNP perf
Narrow runways
QNH >1050

25
Q

What is Alpha lock?

A

Inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low speeds.
SFCC’s use corrected AoA or airspeed info from ADIRU’s.
If alpha exceeds 8.5 degrees or or airspeed drops below 148kts retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited.
Inhibition removed when AoA goes below 7.6 degrees and the speed exceeds 154 kts.

FCOM Flight Controls

26
Q

Describe how the windshear warning systems work and what is required for them to work?

A

Predictive windshear:
The system scans the airspace, within a range of 5 NM ahead of the aircraft, for windshears. Below 1 500 ft, when the system detects windshear, depending on the range selected on the ND, a warning, caution, or advisory message appears on the ND. Predictive windshear warnings and cautions are associated with an aural warning.
Predictive windshear warnings and cautions are associated to an aural alert and to a red (warning) or amber (caution) “W/S AHEAD” message on the PFD, whereas windshear advisories are only displayed on the ND (Refer to DSC-34-SURV-30-30 PWS (if installed) indication on PFD and ND ) without message on the PFD.

During final approach, the visual and aural warning alerts are downgraded to caution alerts between 370 ft AGL and 50 ft AGL, and range between 1.5 NM and 0.5 NM. If a caution alert occurs during approach, consider use of CONF 3 and increasing VAPP to a maximum of VLS+15.

At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.
During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50 ft.
The aural alerts of the Predictive WindShear system (PWS):
Have priority over TCAS, GPWS, and other FWC aural warnings
Are inhibited by reactive windshear detection and aural messages of stall warnings.

Reactive windshear:
The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in takeoff and approach phase in the following conditions:
At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1 300 ft RA
At landing, from 1 300 ft RA to 50 ft RA
With at least CONF 1 selected.
The warning consists of:
A visual “WINDSHEAR” red message displayed on both PFDs for a minimum of 15 s.
An aural synthetic voice announcing “WINDSHEAR ” three times.
WINDSHEAR DETECTION PRINCIPLES

The FACs generate the windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.
In computing this energy level prediction, the FACs use data from different sources. From ADIRS comes data such as vertical speed, air and ground speeds and slope ; from other sources come such derived parameters as total slope, longitudinal wind gradient, and vertical wind.

27
Q

Why are the blower and extract fans set to OVRD in the cabin overpressure QRH procedure?

A

To extract cabin air overboard

28
Q

When is the use of auto thrust not recommended for the landing with slats or flaps jammed procedure?

A

In case of G+B SYS LO PR

QRH 27.1

29
Q

According to what are the OVERSPEED warning and Vls displayed on the PFD computed?

A

Actual flaps/ slats position

30
Q

When may a fuel leak be detected?

A
  • sum of FOB and FU are significant less than FOB at engine start
  • pax observes fuel spray from engine/ pylon or wingtip/ sharklet
  • total quantity decreasing at abnormal rate
  • fuel imbalance
  • fuel quantity in tank decreasing too fast
  • fuel flow is excessive
  • fuel smelt in cabin
  • destination EFOB turns amber
  • DEST EFOB BELOW MIN on MCDU
31
Q

Is it permittable to identify a fuel leak by a visual check from the cabin?

A

Yes

32
Q

How can an engine fuel leak be confirmed?

A

By excessive fuel flow indication or visual check

33
Q

What should not be used in the landing with a fuel leak?

A

Thrust reversers

34
Q

Which procedure should be applied in case of total cabin pressure control leading to overpressure?

A

CABIN OVERPRESSURE

QRH21.1

35
Q

At which speed should the landing gear be gravity extended with a G and B hydraulic failure?

A

200kts

36
Q

With which dual hydraulic failure should the landing gear be gravity extended at 200kts?

A

Green and blue

37
Q

Where can you find some guidance following landing with a (suspected) tire damage?

A

Residual braking QRH procedure in the notes

38
Q

What should be done after landing if tire damage is suspected?

A

Inspection of the tires prior to taxi

39
Q

Which procedure must be applied when both engine bleed supplies have failed?

A

Air eng 1+2 bleed fault

40
Q

If both engine bleed systems have failed and the ECAM CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT is triggered, which procedure must be applied first?

A

First the ECAM procedure

41
Q

How should the trip fuel be calculated if a fuel penalty is associated with a single failure?

A

Trip fuel= (FOB-EFOB AT DEST) x FPF

42
Q

How should the trip fuel be calculated if a fuel penalty is associated with multiple failures?

A

TRIP FUEL= (FOB-EFOB AT DEST) x (fpf1+fpf2+…)

43
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with slats extended?

A

Fuelx1.6

44
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with flaps extended?

A

Fuelx1.8

45
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with flaps and slats extended?

A

Fuelx2.0

46
Q

What is the fuel penalty for flight with gear down?

A

Fuelx2.8

47
Q

What is the most fuel efficient config when holding with gear down?

A

Config1

3. FCOM - QRH (6 decks)

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