Earth Science (Chapter 7-16) Flashcards

Earth Science by Tarbuck, Lutgens, and Tasa

1
Q

Together with his associates, he constructed a map that pieced together the edges of the continental shelves of South America and Africa.

A

Edward Bullard

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2
Q

The title of the book written by Alfred Wegener to support the Continental Drift Theory.

A

The Origin of Continents and Oceans

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3
Q

Divergent and convergent plate boundaries each account for about ________ of all plate boundaries. Transform faults account for the remaining __________.

A

40 percent; 20 percent

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4
Q

The majority of, but not all, divergent plate boundaries are associated with

A

mid-oceanic ridges (MOR)

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5
Q

the longest topographic feature on Earth’s surface, exceeding 70,000 kilometers (43,000 miles) in length.

A

Global ridge system

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6
Q

along the crest of some ridge segments is a deep canyonlike structure called

A

rift valley

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7
Q

Typical rates of seafloor-spreading average around ______ per year.

A

5 centimeters (2 inches)

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8
Q

Where can we found fastest and slowest spreading rates.

A

15cm/yr - East Pacific Rise; 2cm/yr Mid-Atlantic Ridge

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9
Q

the tallest peaks in Africa

A

Mount Kilimanjaro and Mount Kenya

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10
Q

A volcanic arc in Atlantic that forms through the subduction of the Atlantic seafloor beneath the Caribbean plate.

A

Lesser Antilles arc

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11
Q

An island arc located off the tip of South America.

A

Sandwich Islands

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12
Q

The nature of transform faults was discovered in 1965 by Canadian geologist ______.

A

J. Tuzo Wilson

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13
Q

When did the Arabian plate begin to split from Africa forming the Red Sea?

A

20 million years ago

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14
Q

the last remnant of a once vast ocean called Tethys Ocean

A

Mediterranean sea

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15
Q

a drilling ship capable of working in water thousands of meters deep, was built for Deep Sea Drilling Project from 1968-1983.

A

Glomar Challenger

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16
Q

IODP means

A

Integrated Ocean Drilling Program (IODP).

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17
Q

The two drilling ships that was utilized in IODP.

A

JOIDES Resolution (2003) and Chikyu (2007)

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18
Q

The major divisions of the mag netic time scale last roughly 1 million years.

A

chrons

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19
Q

This convection is a driving force for the movement of tectonic plates, asthe horizontal movements of mantle under the crust drag the plates with them.

A

Mantle drag

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20
Q

He concluded that the earthquake must have involved an “elastic rebound” of previously stored elastic stress.

A

H. F. Reid of Johns Hopkins University

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21
Q

Large strike-slip faults that slice through Earth’s lithosphere and accommodate motion between two tectonic plates

A

Transform Fault

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22
Q

San Andreas fault separates what plates?

A

North American and Pacific Plate

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23
Q

the plate boundary between a subducting slab of oceanic lithosphere and the overlying plate form a fault referred to as

A

megathrust fault

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24
Q

The earliest known instrument used to measure earthquakes are made by?

A

Zhang Heng

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25
Q

How wide is the maximum area from the epicenter that an earthquake can be felt roughly?

A

20 to 50 kilometers

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26
Q

An earthquake that provided geologists with insights into the role of ground shaking as a destructive force.

A

1964 Alaskan earthquake, also known as theGreat Alaskan earthquakeand Good Friday earthquake

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27
Q

What type of faulting triggered the 1964 Alaskan earthquake?

A

megathrust fault It had a moment magnitude of 9.2, making it the second largest earthquake on record.

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28
Q

The zone of greatest seismic activity is called?

A

circum-Pacific belt

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29
Q

The circum-Pacific belt encompasses the coastal regions of?

A

Chile, Central America, Indone sia, Japan, and Alaska, including the Aleutian islands

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30
Q

A major concentration of strong seismic activity that runs through the mountainous regions that flank the Mediterranean Sea and extends past the Himalayan Mountains

A

Alpine–Himalayan belt

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31
Q

The last major earthquke event in San Andreas Fault that occurred in Pallet Creek segment in 1857, roughly 150 years ago.

A

Fort Tejon

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32
Q

Lavas that have have surfaces of rough, jagged blocks with dangerously sharp edges and spiny projections.

A

Aa lava

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33
Q

What is the diameter of a caldera?

A

more than 1km

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34
Q

From its base on the floor of the Pacific Ocean to its summit, Mauna Loa is over_________ high, exceeding the elevation of Mount Everest.

A

9 kilometers (6 miles)

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35
Q

Most of the recent activity on Kilauea has occurred along the flanks of the volcano, in a region called

A

East Rift Zone

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36
Q

A cinder and spatter cone that formed when the eruption of Mt. Kilauea became localized at a single vent and a series of 44 short-lived episodes of lava fountaining

A

Puu Oo

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37
Q

A cinder cone located in Mexico, erupted for nine years.

A

Parícutin

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38
Q

Well known for eruptions that eject incandescent blobs of lava that it has been referred to as the “Lighthouse of the Mediterranean.”

A

Stromboli

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39
Q

When was the most recent volcanic activity of Mt. Vesavius?

A

1944

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40
Q

Refers to dense cloud of tiny sulfuric-acid droplets. Like fine ash, they can alsolower the mean temperature of the atmosphere by reflecting solar radiation back to space.

A

aerosols

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41
Q

Other term for craters

A

collapse pits

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42
Q

Term used for intrusions that cut across existing structures

A

discordant

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43
Q

It refers to an intrusion if they inject parallel to features such as sedimentary strata

A

concordant

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44
Q

These are discordant bodies that cut across bedding surfaces or other structures in the country rock

A

Dikes

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45
Q

Refers to nearly horizontal, concordant bodies that form when magma exploits weaknesses between sedimentary beds or other structures

A

Sills

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46
Q

The thickness of dikes and sills ranges from

A

less than 1 millimeter to more than 1 kilometer

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47
Q

While dikes and sills can occur as solitary bodies, dikes tend to form in roughly parallel groups called

A

dike swarms

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48
Q

occurs when igneous rocks cool and develop shrinkage frac tures that produce elongated, pillar-like columns that most often have six sides

A

Columnar jointing

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49
Q

A plutonic body must have a surface exposure of ________ in order to be considered a batholith

A

greater than 100 square kilometers

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50
Q

Smaller plutons are termed as

A

stock

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51
Q

Who gave the name laccoliths?

A

G. K. Gilbert

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52
Q

A mass ofigneousrock, typically lens-shaped, that has beenintrudedbetween rockstratacausingupliftin the shape of a dome.

A

Laccoliths

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53
Q

What is the temperature for geothermal gradient?

A

25°C per kilometer in the upper crust

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54
Q

Occurs where hot, solid mantle rock ascends in zones of convective upwelling, thereby mov ing into regions of lower pressure

A

Decompression melting

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55
Q

Most intraplate volcanism occurs where a mass of hotter-than-normal mantle material called

A

Mantle Plumes

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56
Q

A general term that refers to the changes in the shape or position of a rock body in response to differential stress.

A

Deformation

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57
Q

stress is applied uniformly in all directions

A

confining pressure

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58
Q

stress is applied unequally in different directions

A

differential stress

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59
Q

A change in shape caused by stress.

A

strain

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60
Q

Each layer of a fold is bent around an imaginary axis called a

A

hinge line

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61
Q

These are produced by rapid vertical slips in dip-slips that generate earthquakes.

A

fault scarps

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62
Q

when the hanging wall block moves down relative to the footwall block

A

normal fault

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63
Q

produced by alternating uplifted fault blocks

A

horst

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64
Q

down-dropped fault blocks

A

graben

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65
Q

fault blocks that have been tilted

A

half-grabens

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66
Q

the slopes of the large normal faults associated with the Basin and Range Province decrease with depth and eventually join to form a nearly horizontal fault called

A

Detachment fault

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67
Q

strike-slip faults that slice through Earth’s crust and accommodate motion between two tectonic plates

A

Transform Fault

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68
Q

fractures along which no appre ciable displacement has occurred

A

joints

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69
Q

This type of mountain building is characterized by subduction beneath a continent rather than oceanic lithosphere.

A

Andean-type mountain Building

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70
Q

The resulting chaotic accumulation of deformed and thrust-faulted sediments and scraps of ocean crust

A

Accretionary wedge

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71
Q

As an accretionary wedge grows upward, it acts as a barrier to the movement of sediment from the volcanic arc to the trench. As a result, sediments begin to collect between the accretionary wedge and the volcanic arc. This region, which is composed of relatively undeformed layers of sediment and sedimentary rocks

A

forearc basins

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72
Q

a crustal fragment that consists of a distinct and recognizable series of rock formations that has been transported by plate tectonic processes.

A

terrane

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73
Q

eastern portion of the Pacific basin

A

Farallon plate

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74
Q

Much of the remaining penetration into Asia caused lateral displacement of large blocks of the Asian crust by a mechanism described as

A

continental escape

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75
Q

The Laramide Rockies in Rocky Mountains was produced duringa period of deformation known as the

A

Laramide Orogeny

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76
Q

involves ductile spreading at depth and normal faulting and subsidence in the upper, brittle portion of Earth’s crust.

A

gravitational collapse

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77
Q

Combining the principles of lateral continuity and superposition lets us extend relative age relationships over broad areas. This pro cess, called

A

correlation

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78
Q

Refers to a piece of rock trapped in another type of rock.

A

xenolith

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79
Q

These are “foreign” minerals incorporated into the magma during magma scent or during xenoliths fragmentation.

A

xenocrysts

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80
Q

When we observe layers of rock that have been deposited essentially without interruption, we call them

A

conformable

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81
Q

Represents a long period during which deposition ceased, erosion removed previously formed rocks, and then deposi tion resumed

A

unconformity

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82
Q

Where can we find fossils of mammoth?

A

Arctic tundra of Siberia and Alaska

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83
Q

Where can we find fossils of sloths?

A

dry cave in Nevada

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84
Q

When mineral-rich groundwater permeates porous tissue such as bone or wood, minerals precipitate out of solution and fill pores and empty spaces, a process called

A

permineralization

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85
Q

When a shell or another structure is buried in sediment and then dissolved by underground water, a ______ is created

A

mold

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86
Q

If these hollow spaces are subsequently filled with mineral matter, ______ are created

A

casts

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87
Q

Animal footprints made in soft sediment that later turned into sedimentary rock.

A

Tracks

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88
Q

Tubes in sediment, wood, or rock made by an animal. These holes may later become filled with mineral matter and preserved.

A

Burrows

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89
Q

Some of the oldest-known fossils are believed to be

A

worm burrows

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90
Q

Fossil dung and stomach contents that can provide useful information pertaining to the size and food habits of organisms

A

Coprolites

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91
Q

Highly polished stomach stones that were used in the grinding of food by some extinct reptiles

A

Gastroliths

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92
Q

To develop a geologic time scale that is applicable to the entire Earth, rocks of similar age in different regions must be matched up. Such a task is referred to as

A

correlation

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93
Q

a fossil that is useful for dating andcorrelatingthestratain which it is found

A

index fossil

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94
Q

Fossils that provide geological records of the activities and behaviors of past life. Some examples include rock evidence of nests, burrows, footprints, and scat.

A

trace fossils

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95
Q

other term for trace fossils

A

Ichnofossils

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96
Q

Refers to the fossils of bones, teeth, and shells.

A

body fossils

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97
Q

the property of some unstable atoms (radionuclides) to spontaneously emit nuclear radiation

A

radioactivity

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98
Q

It refers to the earliest interval (eon) of Earth history—before the oldest-known rocks.

A

Hadean

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99
Q

When the term “Hadean” was coined in 1972, the age of Earth’s oldest rocks was thought to be about

A

3.8 billion years

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100
Q

A well-known fossil of a human ancestor _________ was discovered in Ethiopia and is 3.2 million years old. The oldest bones thus far assigned to the human genus Homo, are from the early Pleistocene epoch and are about 2.4 million years old.

A

(Australopithecus afarensis) known as Lucy

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101
Q

This early atmosphere was enhanced by a process called __________, through which gases trapped in the planet’s interior are released

A

outgassing

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102
Q

alternating layers of iron-rich rocks and chert

A

banded iron formations

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103
Q

what era did the Great Oxygenation Event occur

A

Paleoproterozoic era of the Precambrian period

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104
Q

One apparent spike in oxy gen levels occurred during the _________, when oxygen made up about 35 percent of the atmosphere, compared to modern levels of only 21 percent.

A

Pennsylvanian period (300million years ago)

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105
Q

Another positive benefit of the Great Oxygenation Event is

A

oxygen molecules (O2) readily absorb ultraviolet radi ation and form ozone (O3)

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106
Q

The oldest-known sample of Earth is a 4.4-billion year-old zircon crystal can be found in

A

a metaconglomerate in the Jack Hills area of western Australia.

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107
Q

The large landmass in the Southern Hemisphere called Gondwana, comprised mainly of present day

A

South America, Africa, India, Australia, and Antarctica

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108
Q

The cold current, called ______, effectively isolated the entire Antarctic coast from the warm, poleward-directed currents in the southern oceans. As a result, most of the Antarctic landmass became covered with glacial ice.

A

West Wind Drift

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109
Q

In what period did the Gondwana and Laurasia collided forming Pangaea

A

Permian - Triassic

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110
Q

Considered as the world’s richest storehouse of dinosaur fossils. In what period did it formed?

A

Morrison Formation - Jurassic

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111
Q

The first known organisms were simple single-cell bacteria

A

prokaryotes

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112
Q

stony structures built by colonies of microscopic photosynthesising organisms called cyanobacteria

A

Stromatolite

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113
Q

This period was the golden age of trilobites

A

Cambrian

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114
Q

Trilobites developed a flexible exoskel eton of a protein called

A

chitin

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115
Q

These are mobile, highly developed mollusks that became the major predators of their time. Descendants of these include the squid, octopus, and chambered nautilus that inhabit our modern oceans.

A

cephalopods

116
Q

This period marked the appearance of abundant cephalopods

A

Ordovician

117
Q

By the late Devonian, this type of fish had evolved into air-breathing amphibians with strong legs yet retained a fishlike head and tail.

A

lobe-finned fish

118
Q

They were the first true terrestrial animals with improved lungs for active lifestyles and “waterproof” skin that helped prevent the loss of body fluids.

A

Reptiles

119
Q

produced “naked” seeds that are exposed on modified leaves that usually form cones

A

gymnosperms

120
Q

Gymnosperms that resembled large pineapple plants

A

cycads

121
Q

Gymnosperms that had fan-shaped leaves

A

ginkgo

122
Q

the largest gymnosperm plants whose modern descendants include the pines, firs, and junipers

A

conifers

123
Q

The largest herbivorous dinosaurs.

A

Apatosaurus

124
Q

Largest carnivorous dinosaurs.

A

Tyrannosaurus

125
Q

These are airborne dinosaurs the “dragons of the sky” that possessed huge membra nous wings that allowed them rudimentary flight.

A

pterosaurs

126
Q

These ancestors of modern birds had feathered wings but retained reptilian characteristics, such as sharp teeth, clawed digits in the wings, and a long tail with many vertebrae.

A

Archaeopteryx

127
Q

Referred to as fish-eating dinosaurs. These reptiles became proficient swimmers but retained their reptilian teeth and breathed by means of lungs rather than gills.

A

plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs

128
Q

These mammals are born very young and then move to a pouch on the mother.

A

marsupial mammals

129
Q

These mammals spend a longer time in utero and are born in a relatively mature state compared to marsupials.

A

placental mammals

130
Q

Anthropoids are also informally called?

A

apes

131
Q

The genus ________ , which came into existence about 4.2 million years ago, showed skeletal characteristics that were intermediate between our apelike ancestors and modern humans.

A

Australopithecus

132
Q

The earliest fossils of our genus Homo include_______ , nicknamed “handy man” because their remains were often found with sharp stone tools in sedimentary deposits from 2.4 to 1.5 million years ago

A

Homo habilis

133
Q

During the next 1.3 million years of evolution, our ances tors developed substantially larger brains and long slender legs with hip joints adapted for long-distance walking.

A

Homo erectus

134
Q

The oldest-known fossils of Homo sapiens outside Africa were found in the Middle East and date back to

A

115,000 years ago

135
Q

Mastodons and mammoths can be found in?

A

North America

136
Q

The oldest anatomically modern human fossils are _________ old.

A

200,000 years

137
Q

Humans evolved from primate ancestors in ______ over a period of 8 million years.

A

Africa

138
Q

called as the land hemisphere

A

Northern Hemisphere

139
Q

Referred as the water hemisphere.

A

Southern Hemisphere

140
Q

largest ocean and the largest single geographic feature on the planet

A

Pacific Ocean

141
Q

Depth of Pacific Ocean

A

average depth of 3940 meters (12,927 feet, or about 2.5 miles)

142
Q

about half the size of the Pacific Ocean and not quite as deep. It is a relatively narrow ocean compared to the Pacific and is bounded by almost parallel continental margins.

A

Atlantic Ocean

143
Q

slightly smaller than the Atlantic Ocean but has about the same average depth. Unlike the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans, it is largely a Southern Hemisphere water body.

A

Indian Ocean

144
Q

about 7 percent the size of the Pacific Ocean and is only a little more than one quarter as deep as the rest of the oceans.

A

Arctic Ocean

145
Q

The meeting of currents near Antarctica is called the _______.

A

Antarctic Convergence

146
Q

Oceanographers also recognize an additional ocean near the continent of Antarctica in the Southern Hemisphere. Defined by the meeting of currents near Antarctica called the Antarctic Convergence, it is actually those portions of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans south of about 50° south latitude.

A

Southern Ocean or Antarctic Ocean

147
Q

The measurement of ocean depths and the charting of the shape (topography) of the ocean floor is known as

A

bathymetry

148
Q

The basic approach used in measuring water depths as in sound energy is

A

sonar (sound navigation and ranging)

149
Q

The first devices that used sound to measure water depth, called

A

echo sounders

150
Q

the speed of sound waves in water

A

about 1500 meters (4900 feet) per second

151
Q

Deep, steep-sided valleys known as ________ are cut into the continental slope and may extend across the entire continental rise to the deep-ocean basin

A

submarine canyons

152
Q

Refers to the downslope movements of dense, sediment-laden water.

A

Turbidity Currents

153
Q

deposits of turbidity currentsand commonly show graded bedding with a sequence of sedimentary structures indicative of waning flow during the passage of the turbidity current

A

turbidites

154
Q

chaotic accumulation of deformed sediment and scraps of oceanic crust

A

Accretionary wedge

155
Q

The opposite process of accretionary wedge. Rather than sediment accumulating along the front of the overriding plate, sediment and rock are scraped off the bottom of the overriding plate and transported into the mantle by the subducting plate. It is particularly effective when the angle of descent is steep.

A

Subduction erosion

156
Q

are deep, incredibly flat features; in fact, these regions are likely the most level places on Earth.

A

Abyssal Plains

157
Q

Submarine volcanoes

A

seamounts

158
Q

These are eroded seamounts

A

guyots

159
Q

The term guyot comes from the name of ________, Princeton University’s first geology professor.

A

Arnold Guyot

160
Q

Seafloor sediment that consists primarily of mineral grains that were weathered from continental rocks and transported to the ocean.

A

Terrigenous Sediment

161
Q

Consists of shells and skeletons of marine animals and algae. This debris is produced mostly by microscopic organisms living in the sunlit waters near the ocean surface.

A

Biogenous Sediment

162
Q

The most common biogenous sediment and has the consistency of thick mud.

A

calcareous (CaCO3) ooze

163
Q

composed primarily of tests of diatoms (single-celled algae) and radiolaria (single-celled animals)

A

siliceous (SiO2) ooze

164
Q

Seafloor sediments that consists of minerals that crystallize directly from seawater through various chemical reactions.

A

Hydrogenous Sediment

165
Q

are rounded, hard lumps of manganese, iron, and other metals that precipitate in concentric layers around a central object

A

Manganese nodules

166
Q

form by precipitating directly from seawater in warm climates.

A

Calcium Carbonate

167
Q

These are usually precipitated as coatings on rocks near black smokers associated with the crest of a mid-ocean ridge. These deposits contain iron, nickel, copper, zinc, silver, and other metals in varying proportions.

A

Metal Sulfides

168
Q

form where evaporation rates are high and there is restricted open-ocean circulation.

A

Evaporites

169
Q

are natural gas reservoirs in ice like crystalline solids found in sediments on the deep-ocean floor and in Arctic permafrost areas deeper than 200 meters (660 feet).

A

Gas Hydrates

170
Q

Gas hydrates contain ______ which is the main ingredient of most natural gas—which is trapped within a lattice-like cage of water molecules.

A

methane molecules

171
Q

Refers to the total amount of solid material dissolved in water. More specifically, it is the ratio of the mass of dissolved substances to the mass of the water sample.

A

salinity

172
Q

the average salinity of seawater

A

3.50%

173
Q

The layer of ocean water between about 300 meters (980 feet) and 1000 meters (3300 feet), where there is a rapid change of temperature with depth, is called the?

A

thermocline

174
Q

experience a more dramatic seasonal thermocline and exhibit characteristics intermediate between high- and low-lati tude regions.

A

Midlatitude waters

175
Q

The layer of ocean water between about 300 meters (980 feet) and 1000 meters (3300 feet), where there is a rapid change of density with depth, is called the?

A

pycnocline

176
Q

A pycnocline is not present in high latitudes; instead, the water column is

A

isopycnal (iso = same, pycno = density)

177
Q

organisms—algae, animals, and bacteria—that drift with ocean currents

A

plankton

178
Q

photosynthetic planktons

A

phytoplankton

179
Q

animal planktons

A

zooplankton

180
Q

All animals capable of mov ing independently of ocean currents, by swimming or other means of propulsion, are called

A

nekton

181
Q

most of Earth’s biomass—the mass of all living organisms—consists of ______ adrift in the oceans.

A

plankton

182
Q

describes organisms living on or in the ocean bottom

A

benthos

183
Q

An area in the deep-ocean floor that exhibit abundant life-forms

A

hydrothermal vents

184
Q

The upper part of the ocean into which sunlight penetrates

A

Photic zone

185
Q

A portion of the photic zone near the surface where light is strong enough for photosynthesis to occur.

A

Euphotic zone

186
Q

Deeper part of the ocean where there is no sunlight.

A

Aphotic zone

187
Q

Refers to the conversion of carbon atoms into organic compounds without sunlight for energy.

A

chemosynthesis

188
Q

The area where the land and ocean meet and overlap is called the _________. This narrow strip of land between high and low tides is alter nately covered and uncovered by seawater with each tidal change.

A

intertidal zone

189
Q

Seaward from the low-tide line is the_________. This covers the gently sloping continental shelf out to the shelf break.

A

neritic zone

190
Q

Beyond the continental shelf is the?

A

oceanic zone

191
Q

Open ocean of any depth is called the ________. Animals in this zone swim or float freely.

A

pelagic zone

192
Q

The photic part of the pelagic zone is home to?

A

phytoplankton, zooplankton, and nekton

193
Q

This part of the pelagic zone has strange species like viperfish and giant squid that are adapted to life in deep water.

A

aphotic part

194
Q

Includes any sea-bottom surface, regardless of its distance from shore, and is mostly inhabited by benthos organisms.

A

benthic zone

195
Q

A subdivision of the benthic zone and includes the deep-ocean floor, such as abyssal plains. This zone is characterized by extremely high water pressure, consistently low temperature, no sunlight, and sparse life.

A

abyssal zone

196
Q

The amount of carbon fixed by organisms through the synthesis of organic matter using energy derived from solar radiation (photosynthesis) or chemical reactions (chemosynthesis).

A

Primary Productivity

197
Q

The principal elements that contribute to the ocean’s salinity are?

A

chlorine (55%) and sodium (31%)

198
Q

Huge, circular-moving current systems dominate the sur faces of the oceans. These large whirls of water within an ocean basin are called

A

gyres

199
Q

The center of each gyre coincides with the subtropics at about 30° north or south latitude, so they are often called

A

subtropical gyres

200
Q

In the North Atlantic, this zone of calmer waters is known as the

A

Sargasso Sea

201
Q

The only current that completely encircles Earth is the

A

West Wind Drift

202
Q

the temperature at which water vapor condenses

A

dew point

203
Q

The rising of cold water from deeper layers to replace warmer surface water, is a common wind-induced vertical movement.

A

upwelling

204
Q

It occurs when winds blow toward the equator and parallel to the coast

A

Coastal upwelling

205
Q

An accumulation of sediment found along the landward margin of an ocean or a lake.

A

Beach

206
Q

Beaches consist of one or more ______, which are relatively flat platforms often composed of sand that are adjacent to coastal dunes or cliffs and marked by a change in slope at the seaward edge.

A

berms

207
Q

Part of the beach is the beach face, which is the wet sloping surface that extends from the berm to the shoreline.

A

beach face

208
Q

The time it takes one full wave— one wavelength—to pass a fixed position

A

wave period

209
Q

a critical point that is reached where waves grow so tall that they topple over, forming ocean breakers

A

whitecaps

210
Q

As the wave travels, the water passes the energy along by moving in a circle.

A

circular orbital motion

211
Q

The turbulent water created by breaking waves

A

surf

212
Q

Refers to the bending of waves that affects the distribution of energy along the shore and thus strongly influences where and to what degree erosion, sediment transport, and deposition will take place.

A

wave refraction

213
Q

Occurs as incoming waves carry sand at an angle up the beach, while the water from spent waves carries it directly down the slope of the beach.

A

beach drift

214
Q

Concentrated movements of water that flow in the opposite direction of break ing waves

A

Rip currents

215
Q

originate in the cutting action of the surf against the base of coastal land. As erosion progresses, rocks overhanging the notch at the base of the cliff crumble into the surf, and the cliff retreats.

A

wave-cut cliffs

216
Q

A relatively flat, benchlike surface that is left behind by the receding cliff.

A

wave-cut platform

217
Q

If a wave-cut platform is uplifted above sea level by tectonic forces, it becomes a

A

marine terrace

218
Q

a sandbar that completely crosses a bay, sealing it off from the open ocean

A

baymouth bar

219
Q

They develop either because an area experiences uplift or as a result of a drop in sea level.

A

Emergent coasts

220
Q

They are created when sea level rises or the land adjacent to the sea subsides.

A

Submergent coasts

221
Q

What type of coast exhibits rising land or falling water levels expose wave-cut cliffs and marine terraces above sea level.

A

Emergent coasts

222
Q

They are often highly irregular because the sea typically floods the lower reaches of river valleys flowing into the ocean. The ridges separating the valleys, however, remain above sea level and project into the sea as headlands. These drowned river mouths, which are called estuaries, characterize many coasts today.

A

Submergent coasts

223
Q

A tidal pattern that is characterized by a single high tide and a single low tide each tidal day.

A

diurnal tidal pattern

224
Q

Exhibits two high tides and two low tides each tidal day, with the two highs about the same height and the two lows about the same height. This type of tidal pattern is common along the Atlantic coast of the United States.

A

semidiurnal tidal pattern

225
Q

Similar to a semidiurnal pattern except that it is characterized by a large inequality in high water heights, low water heights, or both. In this case, there are usually two high and two low tides each day, with high tides of differ ent heights and low tides of different heights.

A

mixed tidal pattern

226
Q

Refers to the the term used to describe the horizontal flow of water accompanying the rise and fall of the tides.

A

Tidal current

227
Q

Tidal currents that advance into the coastal zone as the tide rises

A

flood currents

228
Q

As the tide falls, seaward-moving water generates

A

ebb currents

229
Q

Periods of little or no current, called _______, separate flood and ebb

A

slack water

230
Q

The areas affected by these alternat ing tidal currents are called

A

tidal flats

231
Q

Delta made by tidal currents in landward of an inlet

A

flood deltas

232
Q

Delta made by tidal currents in the sea ward side of an inlet.

A

ebb deltas

233
Q

Composition of Air:

A

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1 % other gases (Argon-0.9% and CO2-0.04%) and water vapour.

234
Q

Refers to the state of the atmosphere at a given time and place.

A

weather

235
Q

Describes the sum of all statistical weather information that helps describe a place or region.

A

climate

236
Q

A mixture of many discrete gases, each with its own physical properties, in which varying quantities of tiny solid and liquid particles are suspended.

A

air

237
Q

means “hidden heat”

A

latent heat

238
Q

A collective term for tiny solid and liquid particles in the atmosphere such as sea salts from breaking waves, fine soil blown into the air, smoke and soot from fires, pollen and microorganisms lifted by the wind, ash and dust from volcanic eruptions.

A

aerosols

239
Q

From a meteorological standpoint, what are the three significance of aerosols?

A

First, many act as surfaces on which water vapor can condense, an important function in the formation of clouds and fog. Second, aerosols can absorb, reflect, and scatter incoming solar radiation. Thus, when an airpollution episode is occurring or when ash fills the sky following a volcanic eruption, the amount of sunlight reaching Earth’s surface can be measurably reduced. Finally, aerosols contribute to an optical phenomenon we have all observed—the varied hues of red and orange at sunrise and sunset.

240
Q

One-half of the atmosphere lies below an altitude of

A

5.6 km

241
Q

90 percent of the atmosphere has been traversed at

A

16 kilometers

242
Q

the average pressure at sea level

A

1000 millibars (mb)

243
Q

It is in this atmospheric layer that essentially all important weather phenomena occur.

A

troposphere

244
Q

The temperature decrease in the troposphere is called

A

environmental lapse rate

245
Q

The average value of environmental lapse rate (temperature drop rate) in the troposphere.

A

6.5°C per kilometer

246
Q

Refers to an instrument package that is attached to a balloon and transmits data by radio as it ascends through the atmosphere.

A

radiosonde

247
Q

The outer boundary of the troposphere

A

tropopause

248
Q

Atmospheric layer where the ozone layer can be found.

A

Stratosphere

249
Q

The coldest temperatures anywhere in the atmosphere occur at the?

A

mesopause

250
Q

When the Sun is directly over head, the rays strike the atmosphere at a 90-degree angle and travel the shortest possible route to the surface. This dis tance is referred to as

A

1 atmosphere

251
Q

On June 21 or 22, Earth is in a position such that the north end of its axis is tilted 23½° toward the Sun. At this time, the vertical rays of the Sun strike 23½° north latitude (23½° north of the equator), a latitude known as the ________.

A

Tropic of Cancer

252
Q

For people in the Northern Hemisphere, June 21 or 22 is known as the __________, the first “official” day of summer.

A

summer solstice

253
Q

Six months later, on about December 21 or 22, Earth is in the opposite position, with the Sun’s vertical rays striking at 23½° south latitude. This parallel is known as the?

A

Tropic of Capricorn

254
Q

For those in the Northern Hemisphere, December 21 and 22 is the

A

winter solstice

255
Q

On these dates, the vertical rays of the Sun strike the equator (0° latitude) because Earth is in such a position in its orbit that the axis is tilted neither toward nor away from the Sun

A

equinox

256
Q

the date of the autumnal (fall) equinox

A

September 22 or 23

257
Q

the date of the spring equinox

A

March 21 or 22

258
Q

The length of daylight is greater than the length of night.

A

summer solstice

259
Q

the nights are longer than the days

A

winter solstice

260
Q

During this season, the length of daylight is 12 hours everywhere on Earth, because the circle of illumination passes directly through the poles, dividing the latitudes in half.

A

equinox (meaning “equal night”)

261
Q

refers to the quantity of energy present

A

heat

262
Q

refers to the intensity—that is, the degree of “hotness.”

A

temperature

263
Q

the transfer of heat through matter by molecular activity

A

conduction

264
Q

the transfer of heat by mass movement or circu lation within a substance.

A

convection

265
Q

heat transfer mechanism by which solar energy reaches our planet.

A

radiation

266
Q

Have the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.

A

Radio waves (1-10 km)

267
Q

Have the shortest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.

A

less than one-billionth of a centimeter long

268
Q

has the shortest wavelength in the visible light

A

violet (0.4 µm)

269
Q

has the longest wavelength in the visible light

A

red (0.7 µm)

270
Q

The surface temperature of Sun.

A

nearly 6000°C

271
Q

The surface temperature of Earth.

A

average surface temperature of about 15°C

272
Q

The Sun radiates maximum energy at ________, which is in the visible range.

A

0.5 micrometer

273
Q

The maximum radiation for Earth occurs at a wavelength of ________, well within the infrared (heat) range.

A

10 micrometers

274
Q

The process whereby light bounces back from an object at the same angle at which it encounters a surface and with the same intensity.

A

Reflection

275
Q

produces a larger number of weaker rays that travel in different directions.

A

scattering

276
Q

The fraction of the total radiation that is reflected by a sur face is called

A

albedo

277
Q

Although incoming solar radiation travels in a straight line, small dust particles and gas molecules in the atmosphere scatter some of this energy in all directions. The result, called _________, explains how light reaches into the area beneath a shade tree and how a room is lit in the absence of direct sunlight.

A

diffused light

278
Q

poor absorber of all types of incoming solar radiation.

A

Nitrogen

279
Q

efficient absorbers of ultraviolet radiation

A

Oxygen and ozone

280
Q

Refers to a line that connects points on a map that have the same temperature.

A

Isotherm

281
Q

Describes the amount of temperature change per unit of distance.

A

temperature gradient

282
Q

Refers to any factor that causes temperature to vary from place to place and from time to time.

A

temperature control

283
Q

known as the water hemisphere

A

Southern Hemisphere

284
Q

A coastal location where prevailing winds blow from the ocean onto the shore.

A

wind ward coast

285
Q

coastal location where the prevailing winds blow from the land toward the ocean

A

leeward coast