Earth Science (Chapter 21-24) Flashcards

Earth Science by Tarbuck, Lutgens, and Tasa

1
Q

The “Golden Age” of early astronomy

A

(600 B. C.– A. D. 150) was centered in Greece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

He calculated the circumference of Earth.

A

Erasthothenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The two cities in Egypt where Erasthothenes measured the noonday angle of Sun.

A

Syene (present Aswan) and Alexandria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Erasthothenes measurement of Earth’s circumference.

A

250,000 stadia (39,400 km)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1 stadia is equal to

A

157.6 meters (517 feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The first Greek to profess a Sun-centered, or heliocentric universe was

A

Aristarchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

He determined the location of almost 850 stars, which he divided into six groups according to their brightness. (This system is still used today.) He measured the length of the year to within minutes of the modern value and developed a method for predicting the times of lunar eclipses to within a few hours.

A

Hipparchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The author of the Ptolemaic System.

A

Claudius Ptolemy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Much of our knowledge of Greek astronomy comes from a 13-volume treatise, __________ (meaning “the great work”), which was compiled by Ptolemy in A. D. 141.

A

Almagest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Periodically, each planet appears to stop, reverse direction for a period of time, and then resume an eastward motion. The apparent westward drift is called

A

retrograde (retro = to go back, gradus = walking) motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Rather than using a single circle for each planet’s orbit, Ptolemy proposed that the planets orbited on small circles called _______, revolving along large circles (________).

A

epicycles; deferents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who expanded Hipparchus’s star catalog and divided the sky into 48 constellations—the foundation of our present-day constellation system.

A

the Arabic astronomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Copernicus’s monumental work which set forth his controversial Sun-centered solar system.

A

De Revolutionibus, Orbium Coelestium (On the Revolution of the Heavenly Spheres)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The discovery that the planets actually have elliptical orbits occurred a century later and is credited to

A

Johannes Kepler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

He was seized by the Inquisition, a Church tribunal, in 1600, and, refusing to denounce the Copernican theory, was burned at the stake.

A

Giordano Bruno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The apparent shift of the stars is called __________, and today it is used to measure dis tances to the nearest stars.

A

stellar parallax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A Danish nobility who aimed to dispute the Copernican theory but did not succeed. His observations, particularly of Mars, were far more precise than any made previously and are his legacy to astronomy.

A

Tycho Brahe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Considered as the the greatest Italian scientist of the Renaissance.

A

Galileo Galilei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The largest magnification of Galileo’s invented telescopes.

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This led Galileo to conclude that the Sun was the center of the solar system.

A

His obervation that Venus goes through a series of Moonlike phases. Venus appears smallest during the full phase when it is farthest from Earth and largest in the crescent phase when it is closest to Earth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Galileo’s most famous work that explains and supported the Copernican system.

A

Dialogue of the Great World Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Every body in the universe attracts every other body with a force that is directly proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

A

law of universal gravitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Because the solar system is “flat,” like a whirling Frisbee, the planets orbit the Sun along nearly the same plane. Therefore, the planets, Sun, and Moon all appear to move along a band around the sky known as the

A

zodiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Divides the celestial sphere into coordinates that are similar to the latitude and longitude system we use for establishing locations on Earth’s sur face

A

equatorial system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Like latitude, it is the angular distance north or south of the celestial equator.

A

Declination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Refers to the point in the sky where the Sun crosses the celestial equator, at the onset of spring.

A

vernal equinox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The angular distance meas ured eastward along the celestial equator from the position of the vernal equinox. It is also analogous to longitude.

A

Right ascension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Refers to the gradual change in the orientation of Earth’s axis over a period of 26,000 years.

A

axial precession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The time interval from one noon to the next, which averages about 24 hours.

A

mean solar day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The time it takes for Earth to make one complete rotation (360 degrees) with respect to a star other than our Sun.

A

sidereal day (sider = star, at = pertaining to)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The sidereal day has a period of

A

23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds (measured in solar time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At perihelion (peri = near, helios = sun) it is __________ distant, which occurs about _______ each year.

A

147 million kilometers; January 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At aphelion (apo = away, helios = sun) it is __________ distant, which occurs about _______ each year.

A

152 million kilometers; July 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The apparent annual path of the Sun against the backdrop of the celestial sphere is called

A

ecliptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The imaginary plane that connects points along the ecliptic is called

A

plane of the ecliptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At the present time, the axis points toward the bright star Polaris. In A. D. 14000, it will point toward the bright star _______, which will then be the North Star for about 1000 years or so

A

Vega

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The cycle of the Moon through its phases requires 29 1/2 days—a time span called the

A

synodic month (apparent period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The true period, of the Moon’s revolution around Earth which takes only 27 1/3 days and is known as the

A

sidereal month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In what phase of the moon do solar eclipse occur?

A

new-Moon phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In what phase of the moon do lunar eclipse occur?

A

full-Moon phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An estimated _________ percent of the mass of our solar system is contained within the Sun.

A

99.85 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What planet has the highest orbital velocity?

A

Mercury (48 kilometers (30 miles) per second)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Planet that has the shortest period of revolution around the Sun.

A

Mercury (88 Earth-days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The planets’ inclination with respect to the Earth–Sun orbital plane, known as the

A

ecliptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

These two planets had surface gravities sufficient to attract and retain large quantities of hydrogen and helium, the lightest elements.

A

Jupiter and Saturn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Outer planets or Jovian planets are also known as

A

gas giants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The terrestrial planets are dense, having relatively large cores of iron and nickel. The outer cores of Earth and Mercury are _______, whereas the cores of Venus and Mars are thought to be only ____________.

A

liquid; partially molten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Jupiter’s intense magnetic field is thought to be the result of

A

electric currents flowing within a spinning layer of liquid metallic hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

All planets, except _______ and _________ , have significant magnetic fields generated by flow of metallic materials in their liquid cores, or mantles.

A

Venus and Mars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Jovian planets have very thick atmospheres composed mainly of______ and ________, with lesser amounts of water, methane, ammonia, and other hydrocarbons.

A

hydrogen and helium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

By contrast, the terrestrial planets, including Earth, have relatively meager atmospheres composed of __________, ___________, and ___________.

A

carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Two factors explain the significant differences of the atmospheres between inner and outer planets.

A

solar heating (temperature) and gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How did Earth acquire water and other volatile gases?

A

Earth was bombarded with icy objects that originated beyond the orbit of Mars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Earth’s atmosphere continues to leak hydrogen and helium (the two lightest gases) into space. TRUE OR FALSE?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The speed required to escape a planet’s gravity

A

escape velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Earth’s atmosphere causes meteoroids with masses of less than 10 kilograms (22 pounds) to lose up to ______ percent of their speed as they penetrate the atmosphere.

A

90 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

These are unconsolidated debris derived from a few billion years of meteoric bombardment composed of igneous rocks, breccia, glass beads, and fine lunar dust.

A

lunar regolith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mercury’s day–night cycle, which lasts ______ Earth-days, is very long compared to Earth’s 24-hour cycle. One “night” on Mercury is roughly equivalent to 3 months on Earth and is followed by the same duration of daylight.

A

176 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Measured Mercury’s magnetic field in 2012. It found Mercury’s magnetic field to be about 100 times less than Earth’s, which suggests that Mercury has a large core that remains hot and fluid—a requirement for generating a magnetic field.

A

Mariner 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The largest-known impact crater (1300 kilometers [800 miles] in diameter) on Mercury is

A

Caloris Basin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Found evidence of volcanism by revealing thick volcanic deposits similar to those on Earth in the Columbia Basin.

A

Messenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Venus orbits the Sun in a nearly perfect circle once every

A

225 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

1 Venus day is equivalent to about ____ Earth days.

A

244 Earth days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

surface temperature of Venus

A

averages about 450°C (900°F) day and night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Using radar imaging, the unstaffed spacecraft _______ mapped Venus’s surface in stunning detail.

A

Magellan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The longest known lava channel in the solar system, meanders 6800 kilometers (4255 miles) across the planet.

A

Baltis Vallis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The largest volcano on Venus, is about 8.5 kilometers high (5 miles) and 400 kilometers (250 miles) wide.

A

Maat Mons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Recent data collected by the European Space Agency’s Venus Express suggest that Venus’s highlands contain__________ rock.

A

silica-rich granitic rock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Composition of the Martian atmosphere.

A

carbon dioxide (95 percent), with small amounts of nitro gen, oxygen, and water vapor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The reddish color of the Martian landscape is due to?

A

iron oxide (rust)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Located along the Martian equator is an enormous elevated region, about the size of North America, called the

A

Tharsis bulge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Along the eastern flanks of the bulge, a series of vast canyons called _________ developed.

A

Valles Marineris (Mariner Valleys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The largest identifiable impact structure on the planet, is about 2300 kilometers (1400 miles) in diameter and has the planet’s lowest elevation.

A

Hellas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The largest-known volcano in the solar system.

A

Olympus Mons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Currently, the dominant force shaping the Martian surface is

A

wind erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Opportunity rover investigated structures similar to features created by water on Earth—including

A
  1. sedimentary rocks, playas (salt flats), and lake beds 2. detection of hydrated sulfates 3. detection of small spherical concretions of hematite, dubbed “blueberries”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Lord of the Heavens.

A

Jupiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The warmest, and lowest, layer of Jupiter’s cloud is composed mainly of ______ and appears blue-gray; it is generally not seen in visible-light images.

A

water ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The middle layer of Jupiter’s cloud, where temperatures are lower, consists of brown to orange-brown clouds of __________ .

A

ammonium hydrosulfide droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Jupiter’s convective flow produces alternating dark colored belts and light-colored zones. The______________ are regions where warm material is ascending and cooling.

A

light clouds (zones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The _________ represent cool material that is sinking and warming.

A

dark belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The largest storm in Jupiter.

A

Great Red Spot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How many moons of Jupiter have been discovered until present?

A

67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A Jupiter satellite that has a dynamic core that generates a strong magnetic field not observed in other satellites.

A

Ganymede

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The most volcanically active body in our solar system.

A

Io

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Smallest Galilean satellite that is covered by frozen ocean.

A

Europa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The main ring is composed of particles believed to be fragments blasted from the surfaces of ______ and ________ two small moons of Jupiter.

A

Metis and Adrastea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The elegant planet.

A

Saturn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The ring nature of Saturn was determined by Dutch astronomer ________.

A

Christian Huygens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Three of Saturn’s satellites showing evidence of tectonic activity, where internal forces have ripped apart their icy surfaces.

A

Rhea, Dione, and Tethys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Saturn’s impact-Pummeled Satellite. Planetary geologists think its surface is so weak and porous that impacts punch into its surface.

A

Hyperion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Larger than Mercury and is the second-largest satellite in the solar system.

A

Titan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Is another unique satellite of Saturn—one of the few where active eruptions have been observed

A

Enceladus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The volcanic-like activity in Enceladus occurs in areas called “__________” that consists of four large fractures with ridges on either side.

A

tiger stripes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The volcanic-like activity on Saturn’s satellite Enceladus is thought to be the source of material for the ____-ring.

A

E ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A region 4,800 km (3,000 mi) in width between Saturn’s A Ring and B Ring. It is a clearly visible gap that arises from the gravitational pull of Mimas, one of Saturn’s moons.

A

Cassini Division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A small moon about 30 kilometers in diameter that orbits in the Encke gap, located in the A ring. It is responsible for keeping the Encke gap open by sweeping up any stray material that may enter.

A

Pan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A potato-shaped moon, acts as a ring shepherd. Its gravity helps confine the moonlets in Saturn’s thin F ring.

A

Prometheus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The sideways planet.

A

Uranus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Enumerate the literary moons of Uranus.

A

Miranda, Ariel, Umbriel, Titania, and Oberon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The innermost of the five largest moons of Uranus, was recently geologically active—most likely driven by gravitational heating, as occurs on Io.

A

Miranda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Refers to an event that occurs when one object is hidden from the observer by another object that passes between them.

A

occultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The windy planet.

A

Neptune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

The recorded wind speed in Neptune.

A

exceeding 2400 kilometers/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Neptune’s largest moon and is the only large moon in the solar system that exhibits retrograde motion.

A

Triton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What planets have retrograde rotation?

A

Venus and Uranus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describes the eruption of magmas derived from the partial melting of ice instead of silicate rocks.

A

Cryovolcanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Composed of rocky and/or metallic material with compositions somewhat like the terrestrial planets that are larger than 100 meters (60 miles) in diameter.

A

Asteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Composed of rocky and/or metallic material with compositions somewhat like the terrestrial planets having diameters less than 100 meters.

A

Meteoroids

110
Q

These are loose collections of ices, dust, and small rocky particles that originate in the outer reaches of the solar system.

A

Comets

111
Q

An American spacecraft who became the first visitor to an asteroid (Eros).

A

NEAR Shoemaker

112
Q

Originated in the Kuiper belt. Its orbital period averages 76 years, and every one of its 29 appear ances since 240 B.C. has been recorded, thanks to ancient Chinese astronomers—testimony to their dedication as astronomical observers and the endurance of Chinese culture.

A

Halley’s Comet

113
Q

The shortest-period comet (__________) orbits around the Sun once every 3 years.

A

Encke’s Comet

114
Q

All the phenomena associated with comets come from a small cen tral body called the

A

nucleus

115
Q

When comets reach the inner solar sys tem, solar energy begins to vaporize their ices. The escap ing gases carry dust from the comet’s surface, producing a highly reflective halo called a

A

coma

116
Q

Scientists have identified two solar forces known to contribute to tail formation.

A

radiation pressure and solar wind

117
Q

Named in honor of astronomer _________, who predicted its existence, the _________ hosts comets that orbit in the outer solar system, beyond Neptune.

A

Gerald Kuiper; Kuiper belt

118
Q

Named for Dutch astronomer ________, the ________ consists of comets that are distributed in all directions from the Sun, forming a spherical shell around the solar system.

A

Jan Oort; Oort cloud

119
Q

Meteoroids less than about 1 meter (3 feet) in diameter generally vaporize before reaching Earth’s surface.

A

micrometeorites

120
Q

Result when Earth encoun ters a swarm of meteoroids traveling in the same direction at nearly the same speed as Earth.

A

meteor showers

121
Q

The notable ______________ that occurs each year around August 12 is likely material ejected from the comet __________ on previous approaches to the Sun.

A

Perseid meteor shower; Swift–Tuttle

122
Q

Contains organic compounds and occasionally simple amino acids, which are some of the basic building blocks of life.

A

carbonaceous chondrite

123
Q

The group responsible for naming and classifying celestial objects.

A

International Astronomical Union

124
Q

These are celestial bodies that orbit the Sun and are essentially spherical due to their own gravity but are not large enough to sweep their orbits clear of other debris.

A

dwarf planets

125
Q

Pluto’s moons from inner to outer.

A

Charon - P5 - Nix - P4 - Hydra

126
Q

The largest known dwarf planet from the Kuiper belt, has a very eccentric orbit that takes it as far as 100 AU from the Sun.

A

Eris

127
Q

The only identified dwarf planet in the asteroid belt and is the largest-known asteroid in the solar system.

A

Ceres

128
Q

In the mid-1800s, astronomy textbooks listed as many as 11 planets in our solar system, including the asteroids

A

Vesta, Juno, Ceres, and Pallas

129
Q

The first spacecraft designed to explore the outer solar system, was launched in January 2006.

A

New Horizons

130
Q

Speed of light

A

3 × 10^8 meters per second

131
Q

This theory was first spread by Christian Huygens and Robert Hooke in the 17th century. They at that time predicted that the light was a wave as it could refract or bend when traveling from one medium to another, reflect off shiny surfaces, diffract around objects, etc.

A

Wave theory

132
Q

Refers to the transfer of each photon’s momentum to the opaque surface, plus the momentum due to a (possible) recoil photon for a (partially)reflecting surface.

A

radiation pressure

133
Q

Shorter wavelengths correspond to more ________ photons.

A

energetic

134
Q

The study of those properties of light that are wavelength dependent.

A

spectroscopy

135
Q

Produced by an incandescent (glowing) solid, liquid, or gas under high pressure.

A

continuous spectrum

136
Q

The energy radiated by a body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.

A

Stefan–Boltzmann law

137
Q

Generated whenever visible light is passed through a comparatively cool gas at low pressure.

A

dark-line (or absorption) spectrum

138
Q

They are produced by hot (incandescent), gaseous materials, at low pressure.

A

bright-line (or emission) spectrum

139
Q

Who theorized the Doppler effect?

A

Christian Doppler in 1842

140
Q

the star is moving away from the observer

A

red shift

141
Q

the star is approaching towards the Earth

A

blue shift

142
Q

Large Doppler shifts indicate _____ velocities; small Doppler shifts indicate ______ velocities.

A

high; low

143
Q

employ lenses to collect and focus light

A

refracting telescopes

144
Q

A common optical phenomenon that occurs when a lens cannot bring all wavelengths of light to a single converging point.

A

chromatic aberration

145
Q

a telescope that used a mirror rather than a lens

A

reflecting telescopes

146
Q

Who designed and discovered the reflecting telescopes?

A

Sir Isaac Newton

147
Q

A light-sensitive integrated circuit that captures images by converting photons to electrons. It offers a tremendous improvement over photographic film for detection of visible and near-visible light. This device typically detect 70 percent, or more, of all incoming light and are easily calibrated for variations in wavelength sensitivity.

A

charge-coupled device (CCD)

148
Q

The largest radio telescope is a bowl-shaped antenna hung in a natural depression in

A

Puerto Rico

149
Q

When several radio telescopes are wired together, the resulting network is called

A

radio interferometer

150
Q

Enumerate NASA’s series of “four great observatories”

A

Hubble Space Telescope (HST) - 1990; Compton Gamma Ray Observatory (CGRO) - 1991; Chandra X-Ray Observatory (CXO) - 1999; Spitzer Space Telescope (SST) - 2003

151
Q

An optical reflecting telescope in orbit around Earth that can collect ultraviolet light that is absorbed by Earth’s ozone layer.

A

Hubble Space Telescope (HST)

152
Q

The HST has also allowed us to look farther out into the universe (and farther back in time) than ever before, in the process producing the most “elusive” astronomical image ever taken, the

A

Ultra-Deep Field

153
Q

The scientific successor to the Hubble Telescope that actually orbits the Sun, 1.5 million kilometers (1 million miles) away from the Earth at what is called the second Lagrange point or L2.

A

James Webb Space Telescope

154
Q

It had a sensitivity 10 times greater than any previous gamma ray instrument and collected an incredible range of high-energy radiation.

A

Compton Gamma Ray Observatory (CGRO)

155
Q

One of the main scientific discoveries made by CGRO

A

the uniform distribution of gamma ray bursts

156
Q

How are Gamma ray bursts formed?

A

It is quite likely that many of them are caused by rapidly rotating massive stars as they collapse to form black holes.

157
Q

Designed to observe objects such as black holes, quasars, and high-tem perature gases at x-ray wavelengths to better understand the structure and evolution of the universe.

A

Chandra X-Ray Observatory (CXO)

158
Q

Designed to collect infrared (heat) energy that is mostly blocked by Earth’s atmosphere. The telescope is actually in an orbit around the Sun to keep it away from the thermal energy radiated by Earth, and it is outfitted with a shield to deflect solar radiation.

A

Spitzer Space Telescope (SST)

159
Q

Means “sphere of light” and isthe layer where most of the sun’s energy is emitted. The only part that we can see from Earth on a typical day, without use of specialized equipment.

A

Photosphere

160
Q

Convection cells in the Sun’sphotosphere. They are caused by currents of plasma in the Sun’s convective zone, directly below the photosphere.

A

Granules

161
Q

An up-and-down movement of gas that produces the grainy appearance of the photosphere and is responsible for the transfer of energy in the uppermost part of the Sun’s interior.

A

Convection

162
Q

The Sun’s surface atoms are composed of?

A

90% Hydrogen and 10% Helium

163
Q

A relatively thin layer of hot, incandescent gases a few thousand kilometers thick that lies above the photosphere.

A

chromosphere

164
Q

What causes the red color of chromosphere?

A

Because the chromosphere consists of hot, incandescent gases under low pressure, it produces a bright-line spectrum that is nearly the reverse of the darkline spectrum of the photosphere. One of the bright lines of hydrogen contributes a good portion of its total output and accounts for this sphere’s red color.

165
Q

The top of the chromosphere contains numerous __________, flamelike structures that extend upward about 10,000 kilometers (6000 miles) into the lower corona, almost like trees that reach into our atmosphere.

A

spicules (spica = point)

166
Q

The outermost portion of the solar atmosphere which very tenuous and, like the chromosphere, is visible only when the brilliant photosphere is blocked.

A

corona

167
Q

The streams of charged particles (protons and electrons) that boil from the corona constitute the

A

solar wind

168
Q

speed of solar wind

A

250–800 kilometers per second

169
Q

The region surrounding the Sun and the solar system that is filled with the solar magnetic field and the protons and electrons of the solar wind.

A

heliosphere

170
Q

Surprisingly, the high temperature of the corona is probably caused by ________ generated by the convective motion of the photosphere.

A

sound waves

171
Q

The most conspicuous features on the surface of the Sun are the dark blemishes called ______. They begin as small, dark pores about 1600 kilometers (1000 miles) in diameter.

A

sunspots

172
Q

The Sun’s equator rotates once in ___ days, whereas a place located 70° from the solar equator, either north or south, requires ____ days for one rotation.

A

25, 33

173
Q

The largest sunspots often occur in pairs surrounded by several smaller sunspots. An individual spot contains a black center, the _______, which is rimmed by a lighter region, the ___________.

A

umbra (umbra = shadow); penumbra (paene = almost, umbra = shadow)

174
Q

During the early nineteenth century, it was believed that a tiny planet named ______ orbited between Mer cury and the Sun.

A

Vulcan

175
Q

sunspots on the solar disk varies in an ___ - year cycle

A

11-year cycle

176
Q

He deduced that the large spots are strongly magnetized, and when they occur in pairs, they have opposite magnetic poles.

A

George Hale

177
Q

These huge cloud like structures, consisting of ionized chromospheric gases trapped by magnetic fields that extend from regions of intense solar activity.

A

prominences

178
Q

A type of prominence that have the appearance of a fine tapestry and seem to hang motionless for days at a time, but motion pictures reveal that the material within them is continually falling like luminescent rain.

A

Quiescent prominences

179
Q

A type of prominence that rises almost explosively away from the Sun. These active prominences reach velocities up to 1000 kilometers (620 miles) per second and may leave the Sun entirely.

A

eruptive prominences

180
Q

These are brief outbursts that normally last an hour or so and appear as a sudden brightening of the region above a sunspot cluster.

A

Solar flares

181
Q

Northern lights

A

aurora borealis

182
Q

Southern lights

A

aurora australis

183
Q

A nuclear reaction that converts four hydrogen nuclei (protons) into the nucleus of a helium atom.

A

proton–proton chain reaction

184
Q

The source of the Sun’s energy

A

nuclear fusion

185
Q

Einstein’s formula

A

E = mc^2, where E equals energy, m equals mass, and c equals the speed of light.

186
Q

Refers tothe initial stage of stellar energy generation where hydrogen is converted into helium through theCNO cycle, involving carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen isotopes as nuclear catalysts.

A

hydrogen burning

187
Q

Sun’s age.

A

5 billion years old (middle-aged)

188
Q

The study of the universe, including its properties, structure, and evolution.

A

cosmology

189
Q

In the mid-1700s, He proposed that many of the telescopically visible fuzzy patches of light scattered among the stars were actually distant galaxies similar to the Milky Way. He described them as “island universes.”

A

Immanuel Kant

190
Q

Hubble studied a group of pulsating stars known as ____________—extremely bright variable stars that increase and decrease in brightness in a repetitive cycle.

A

Cepheid variables

191
Q

The “true” brightness of stars.

A

absolute magnitude (stellar brightness)

192
Q

Refers to as a barred spiral galaxy and is the nearest major galaxy to the Milky Way.

A

Andromeda Galaxy

193
Q

1 LIGHT YEAR is equals to how many kilometers?

A

9 trillion km (less than 10 trillion km)

194
Q

TheAndromeda Galaxyis located about __________ light-years from Earth

A

2.5 million light years

195
Q

About _________ years ago, our uni verse began as a cataclysmic explosion, which continued to expand, cool, and evolve to its current state.

A

13.7 billion

196
Q

According to the Big Bang Theory, in the earliest moments of the universe’ expansion, only _____ and ______ (subatomic particles that are the building blocks of protons and neutrons) existed.

A

energy and quarks

197
Q

Not until ______ years after the initial expansion did the universe cool sufficiently for ______ and _______ to combine to form ______ and ______ atoms—the lightest elements in the universe.

A

380,000 years; electrons and protons; hydrogen and helium

198
Q

Composed of atoms, molecules, and larger dust grains of the heavier elements.

A

interstellar dust

199
Q

When nebulae are in close proximity to very hot (blue) stars, they glow and are called

A

bright nebulae

200
Q

When clouds of interstellar material are too far from bright stars to be illuminated, they are referred to as

A

dark nebulae

201
Q

Glowing clouds of hydrogen gas, called ________, are produced in active star-forming regions of galaxies. Energetic ultraviolet light emitted from hot, young stars ionizes the hydrogen atoms in the nebulae.

A

emission nebulae

202
Q

The conversion of ultraviolet light to visible light is known as

A

fluorescence

203
Q

What causes the red glow from emission nebulae?

A

Hydrogen emits much of its energy in the red portion of the spectrum, which accounts for the red glow from emission nebulae.

204
Q

A large emission nebula, composed mainly of hydrogen. Its red color is attributed to ionized gases, which are excited by the energetic light emitted from young, hot stars embedded in the nebula.

A

Lagoon Nebula

205
Q

This type of nebulae reflects the light of nearby stars. They are likely composed of significant amounts of comparatively large debris, including grains of carbon compounds.

A

reflection nebulae

206
Q

Why are reflection nebulae generally blue?

A

Reflection nebulae are usually blue because blue light (shorter wavelength) is scattered more efficiently than red light (longer wavelength)—a process that also produces the blue color of the sky.

207
Q

One of the most easily recognisable star clusters in the night sky is the _______, also known as the ‘Seven Sisters’ or M45. The brightest stars in this cluster glow a luminous blue, and are bright enough to be seen with the naked eye and is considered to be a blue reflection nebula.

A

Pleiades star cluster

208
Q

They originate from the remnants of dying Sun-like stars and consist of glowing clouds of dust and hot gases that have been expelled near the end of a star’s life.

A

planetary nebulae

209
Q

A planetary nebula (PN) located in the constellation Aquarius and is considered as the nearest planetary nebula to our solar system.

A

Helix Nebula

210
Q

A small dark nebula in the constellation Orion.

A

Horsehead Nebula

211
Q

Who are the proponents of Hertzsprung–Russell diagram?

A

Einar Hertzsprung and Henry Russell

212
Q

What is the absolute magnitude, or “true” brightness of the Sun?

A

5

213
Q

A bright red supergiant in the constel lation Orion, has a radius about 800 times that of the Sun.

A

Betelgeuse

214
Q

A ball of very hot gases, caught between the opposing forces of gravity trying to contract it and thermal nuclear energy trying to expand it.

A

star

215
Q

These stars consisted mostly of hydrogen, with lesser amounts of helium, the primary elements formed during the Big Bang.

A

First-generation stars

216
Q

Every stage of a star’s life is ruled by

A

gravity

217
Q

The birthplaces of stars are

A

interstellar clouds

218
Q

A mechanism that may trigger star formation

A

a shock wave from a catastrophic explosion (supernova) of a nearby star

219
Q

These are large red objects that are not hot enough to engage in nuclear fusion and are not yet stars.

A

protostar

220
Q

When the core reaches a temperature of 10 million K, the pressure within is so intense that groups of four hydrogen nuclei (through a several-step process) fuse into a single helium nucleus.

A

hydrogen fusion

221
Q

Stars in which the force of gravity, in an effort to squeeze the star into the smallest possible ball, is precisely balanced by gas pressure created by hydrogen fusion in the star’s interior.

A

stable main sequence stars

222
Q

How long can hot, massive blue stars live?

A

few million years

223
Q

How long can the smallest (red) main-sequence stars live?

A

hundreds of billions of years

224
Q

A yellow star, such as the Sun, typically remains a main-sequence star for about

A

10 billion years

225
Q

Evolution to the red giant stage begins when

A

the usable hydrogen in a star’s interior is consumed, leaving a helium rich core

226
Q

Stars, which alternately expand and contract, and never reach equilibrium, are known as

A

variable stars

227
Q

Low mass stars collapse into?

A

white dwarf

228
Q

The stellar stages for medium-mass (Sun-like) stars.

A

yellow main sequence star - red giant - planetary nebula - white dwarf

229
Q

The stellar stages for high-mass stars.

A

hot blue main sequence star - red supergiant - supernova explosion - neutron star or black hole

230
Q

A supernova remnant and pulsar wind nebula in the constellation of Taurus.

A

Crab Nebula

231
Q

Refers to the materials in the state when electrons are displaced inward from their regular orbits around an atom’s nucleus.

A

degenerate matter

232
Q

As main-sequence stars contract into white dwarfs, their surfaces become extremely hot, sometimes exceeding

A

25000K

233
Q

A theoretical stellar remnant, specifically a white dwarf that has cooled sufficiently to no longer emit significant heat or light.

A

black dwarfs

234
Q

The smallest white dwarfs are the most massive, and the largest are the least massive. Why?

A

Researchers have discovered that more massive stars, because of their greater gravita tional fields, are squeezed into smaller, more densely packed objects than less massive stars

235
Q

These objects are the remnants of explosive supernova events.

A

neutron stars

236
Q

Why are neutron stars denser than white dwarfs?

A

In white dwarfs, the electrons are pushed close to the nucleus, whereas in neutron stars, the electrons are forced to combine with protons in the nucleus to produce neutrons (hence the name neutron star).

237
Q

In the early 1970s, a source that radiates short pulses of radio energy named a _____________ was discovered in the Crab Nebula.The pulsar found in the Crab Nebula is most likely the remains of the supernova of A. D. 1054.

A

pulsar (pulsating radio source)

238
Q

Following supernova explosions, if the core of a remaining star exceeds three solar masses, gravity prevails, and the stellar remnant collapses into an object that is denser than a neutron star.

A

black holes

239
Q

The first black hole to be identified

A

Cygnus X-1

240
Q

Small black holes have masses approximately _____ times that of our Sun.

A

10x

241
Q

Intermediate black holes have masses _____ times our Sun.

A

1000x

242
Q

Largest black holes (supermassive black holes), found in the centers of galaxies, are estimated to be ______ of solar masses.

A

millions

243
Q

These are collections of interstellar matter, stars, and stellar remnants that are gravitationally bound.

A

Galaxy

244
Q

Spheroidal conglomeration of stars that is bound together by gravity, with a higher concentration of stars towards its center.

A

globular clusters

245
Q

The age of the stars in globular cluster NGC 6397 confirming that the Milky Way is among the oldest of galaxies.

A

more than 13 billion years old

246
Q

Our solar system makes one complete trip around the galactic center every ______ years.

A

250 million years

247
Q

The closest galaxy so far discovered, named________, lies within our galaxy. Astronomers have recently concluded that the Milky Way grew to its current size by “eating up” dwarf galaxies like this.

A

Canis Major Dwarf Galaxy

248
Q

These galaxies are flat, disk-shaped objects that range from 20,000 to about 125,000 light-years in diameter. Typically, spiral galaxies have a greater concentration of stars near their centers.

A

Spiral galaxies

249
Q

Generally, in a spiral galaxy, the central bulge contains ________ that give it a yellowish color, while younger hot stars are located in the arms.

A

older stars; younger hot stars

250
Q

Many spiral galaxies have a band of stars extending outward from the central bulge that merges with the spiral arms.

A

barred spiral galaxies

251
Q

These galaxies have an ellipsoidal shape that can be nearly spherical, and they lack arms. Some of the largest and the smallest galaxies are in this type.

A

elliptical galaxies

252
Q

The smallest elliptical galaxies are known as

A

dwarf galaxies

253
Q

These galaxies tend to be composed of older, low-mass stars (red) and have minimal amounts of interstellar matter.

A

Large elliptical galaxies

254
Q

Approximately 25 percent of known galaxies show no symmetry and are classified as

A

irregular galaxies

255
Q

How are irregular galaxies formed?

A

Some were once spiral or elliptical galaxies that were subsequently distorted by the gravity of a larger neighbor.

256
Q

Two well-known irregular galaxies

A

Large and Small Magellanic Clouds

257
Q

This is one of the nearest groupings of galaxies to our Local Group.

A

Fornax galaxy Cluster

258
Q

Our own galactic cluster is called?

A

Local Group

259
Q

A large group of smaller galaxy clusters or galaxy groups; they are among the largest known entities in the universe.

A

superclusters

260
Q

Local Group is found in what supercluster?

A

the Virgo Supercluster

261
Q

He was the first to discover that gal axies exhibit motion. The motions he detected were twofold: Galaxies rotate, and galaxies move relative to each other.

A

Vesto Slipher (1912)

262
Q

Hubble noticed that most galaxies have spectral shifts toward the red end of the spectrum—which occurs when an object emitting light is receding from an observer. These pattern’s movement reveals a result of the expansion of the universe.

A

cosmological red shifts

263
Q

This law states that galaxies recede at speeds proportional to their distances from the observer.

A

Hubble’s law

264
Q

The electromagnetic radiation (light) emitted by a white-hot universe would have extremely high energy and short wavelengths. However, according to the Big Bang theory, the continued expansion of the universe would have stretched the waves so that by now they should be detectable as long-wavelength radio waves called microwave radiation. Scientists began to search for this “missing” radiation, which they named

A

cosmic microwave background radiation

265
Q

The stars will slowly burn out and be replaced by invisible degenerate matter and black holes that travel outward through an endless, dark, cold universe.

A

Big Chill

266
Q

The outward flight of the galaxies will slow and eventually stop. Gravitational contraction would follow, causing all matter to eventually collide and coalesce into the high-energy, high density state, from which the universe began.

A

Big Crunch

267
Q

Produces no detectable light energy but exerts a gravitational force that pulls on all “visible” matter in the universe.

A

dark matter

268
Q

Exerts a force that pushes matter outward, causing the expansion to speed up.

A

dark energy

269
Q

Who is the most favored dominant force, dark matter or dark energy?

A

dark energy

270
Q

Our own galactic cluster, the Local Group, contains how many galaxies?

A

at least 40 galaxies