Early Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

What is placenta praevia?

A

Where the placenta is fully/partially attached to the lower uterine segment.
It is an important cause of antepartum haemorrhage (vaginal bleeding from 24 weeks gestation until delivery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 main types of placenta praevia?

A

Minor placenta praevia (placenta is low, but does no cover the interval cervical os)
Major placenta praevia (the placenta lies over the internal cervical os)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is wrong with having a low-lying placenta?

A

It is more susceptible to haemorrhage possibly due to defective attachment to the uterine wall. Bleeding can be spontaneous, or provoked by mild trauma e.g. vaginal examination.
Also the placenta may be damaged by the presenting part of the foetus as it moves into the lower uterine segment in preparation for labour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta praevia?

A

Previous C section (main risk factor)
High parity
Maternal age >40
Multiple pregnancy
Previous placenta praevia
History of uterine infection e.g endometritis
Curettage to the endometrium after miscarriage or termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the clinical features of placenta praevia?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding (from spotting to massive haemorrhage (APH)) - but pain if the woman is in labour.
Examination may reveal risk factors e.g. c section scar, multiple pregnancy.
The uterus is usually non-tender on palpation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the important questions to ask in antepartum haemorrhage?

A
How much bleeding and when did it start?
Is it fresh red or old brown blood?
Was the blood mixed with mucous?
Could the waters have broken (membranes ruptured?
Was it provoked (post-coital)?
Is there any abdominal pain?
Are the foetal movements normal?
Are there any risk factors for abruption? E.g. smoking/drug-use/trauma - domestic violence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be looked for on general examination of a patient with antepartum haemorrhage?

A

Pallor, distress, cap refill, cold peripheries
Is abdo tender?
Does the uterus feel woody/these (may indicate placental abruption)
Are there palpable contractions?
Check the lie and presentation of the foetus (USS can help)
Check foetal well-being with CTG at 26 weeks or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is bleeding assessed in antepartum haemorrhage?

A

Externally e.g. looking at pads
Cusco speculum - avoid this until placenta praevia has been excluded
- look for blood, clots, cervical lesions, cervical dilation, any chance membranes have ruptured
Triple genital swabs to exclude infection if bleeding is minimal.
Digital vaginal examination (only when placenta praevia and ROM excluded) - can help to establish when their the cervix is beginning to dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Placenta praevia is an important cause of antepartum haemorrhage, but it is not the most common. What are the differentials for antepartum bleeding?

A

Placental abruption (part or all the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus prematurely)
Vasa praevia
Uterine rupture
Local genital causes (polyps, carcinoma, cervical ectropion)
Infections e.g. candida, bacterial vaginosis, chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is vasa praevia?

A

Where foetal blood vessels run near the internal cervical os.
Characterised by vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes and foetal compromise
The bleeding occurs following membrane rupture when there is rupture of the umbilical cord vessels, leading to loss of foetal blood and rapid deterioration in foetal condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is uterine rupture?

A

A full-thickness disruption of the uterine muscle and overlying serosa.
Usually occurs in labour with a history o previous c section/previous uterine surgery such as myomectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the investigations that are done for placenta praevia?

A

FBC (anaemia), clotting profile, Kleihauer test (if rhesus negative), G&S, cross-match
Exclude HELLP - (U&Es, LFTs)
Assess foetal wellbeing (CTG)
USS (definitive diagnosis) - distance between the lower edge of the placenta and internal os

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management for placenta praevia?

A

Resuscitation
Placenta praevia identified at a 20 week scan in an asymptomatic patient
- if minor - repeat scan in 36 weeks (placenta likely to move superiorly)
- if major - repeat at 32 weeks - plan for delivery should be made
C section safest mode at 38 weeks
Give anti-D within 72 hours of the onset of bleeding for Rh-ve woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

A part or all of the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus prematurely.
An important cause of antepartum haemorrhage
Vaginal bleeding from week 24 of gestation until delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of placental abruption.

A

Thought to occur following a rupture of the maternal vessels within the basal layer of the endometrium.
Blood accumulates and splits the placental attachment from the basal layer.
The detached portion of the placenta is unable to function, leading to foetal compromise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 types of placental abruption?

A

Revealed (bleeding tracks down from the site of the placental separation and drains through the cervix)
Concealed (the bleeding remains within the uterus and typically forms a clot retroplacentally)
- the bleeding is not visible, but can be severe enough to cause systemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption?

A
Previous placental abruption
Pre-eclampsia/other hypertensive disorder
Abnormal lie of the baby
Polyhydraminos
Abdominal trauma
Smoking or drug use
Bleeding in the first trimester, particularly if haematoma seen inside uterus on first trimester scan
Underlying thrombophilia
Multiple pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the clinical features of placental abruption?

A

Antepartum bleeding
Painful vaginal bleeding (if in labour ask about pain between contractions)
Wordy uterus that is painful on palpation

19
Q

What are the differentials fo placental rupture?

A
Placenta praevia
Marginal placental bleed
Vasa praevia
Uterine rupture
Local genital causes
20
Q

What is a marginal placental bleed?

A

A small, partial abruption of the placenta which is large enough to cause revealed bleeding, but not large enough to cause foetal or maternal compromise

21
Q

What are the investigations for placental abruption?

A

FBC (anaemia), clotting profile, Kleihauer test (if rhesus negative), G&S, cross-match
Exclude HELLP - (U&Es, LFTs)
Assess foetal wellbeing (CTG)
USS - retroplacental haematoma

22
Q

What is the management for placental abruption?

A

Resuscitation
Emergency delivery - if foetal or maternal compromise
Induction of labour - for haemorrhage at term without compromise (avoids further bleeding)
Conservative management - for partial/marginal abruption
Give anti-D within 72 hours of onset of bleeding if Rh-ve

23
Q

What is gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Describes a group of pregnancy-related tumours

24
Q

What are the 2 groups of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Pre-malignant conditions (most common) - partial molar pregnancy, complete molar pregnancy
Malignant conditions - invasive mole, choriocarcinoma, placental trophoblastic site tumour, epithelioid trophoblastic tumour

25
Q

What is a molar pregnancy?

A

Arises from an abnormality in chromosomal number during fertilisation

26
Q

What is partial molar pregnancy?

A

One ovum with 23 chromosomes is fertilised by 2 sperm, each with 23 chromosomes
This produces cells with 69 chromosomes (triploidy)
May exist with a viable foetus
The foetus and placenta are usually triploid, however mosaicism can exit where the foetus has a normal karyotype and the triploidy is confined to the placenta

27
Q

What is. Complete molar pregnancy?

A

One ovum without chromosomes is fertilised by one sperm which duplicates/ less commonly 2 different sperm
This leads to 46 chromosomes of paternal origin alone.

28
Q

What are invasive moles?

A

When molar pregnancies become malignant and invade into the uterine myometrium and disseminate around the body.

29
Q

What is a choriocarcinoma?

A

A malignancy of the trophoblastic cells of the placenta. Commonly, but not exclusively co-exists with molar pregnancy.
Characteristically metastasises to the lungs.

30
Q

What is a placental site trophoblastic tumour?

A

A malignancy of the intermediate trophoblastic which are normally responsible for anchoring the placenta to the uterus.
They can occur after a normal pregnancy (most common), a molar pregnancy or a miscarriage

31
Q

What is an epithelioid trophoblastic tumour?

A

A malignancy of the trophoblastic placental cells which an be very difficult to distinguish from choriocarcinoma. It mimics the cytological features of SCC.

32
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Maternal age under 20 or over 35
Previous gestational trophoblastic disease
Previous miscarriage
Oral contraceptives

33
Q

What are the clinical features of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Molar pregnancies - vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain early in pregnancy
Uterus larger than expected and often soft and boggy
Occasionally, vesicles can be shed PV
Later symptoms include hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism and anaemia

34
Q

Why does gestational trophoblastic disease cause hyperemesis?

A

An increased titre of beta-hCG is linked to nausea in pregnancy

35
Q

Why does gestational trophoblastic disease cause hyperthyroidism?

A

Stimulation of the thyroid by high hCG levels

36
Q

What are the investigations for gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

Urine beta-hCG (measured if persistent post-parturition bleeding)
Blood beta-hCG (markedly elevated and used for monitoring)
USS (complete mole has a granular/snowstorm appearance with a central heterogenous mass and surrounding multiple cystic vesicles)
Histological examination of the products of conception (post-treatment of molar pregnancies and all non-viable pregnancies/after delivery if patients opt to continue pregnancy)
If metastatic spread - staging - MRI/CT CAP and/or pelvic USS

37
Q

What is the management for molar pregnancy?

A

Suction curettage for complete moles and non-viable partial moles.
Medical evacuation with urinary B-hCG measurement 3 weeks post-treatment - partial mole of greater gestation with foetal development
Anti-D prophylaxis if mother Rh-ve
If beta-hCG doesn’t fall - chemotherapy may be required

38
Q

What is the treatment for other types of GTD? (Malignant GTD or partial/complete mole that has not resolved)

A

Single or multiple agent chemotherapy +/- surgery

39
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Any pregnancy which has implanted outside of the uterine cavity.

40
Q

What are the most common sites for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ampulla and isthmus of the Fallopian tube.

Less commonly, the ovaries, cervix or peritoneal cavity.

41
Q

What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A

Previous ectopic pregnancy
PID (due to adhesion formation)
Endometriosis (adhesion formation)
IUD/IUS/POP/implant (due to Fallopian tube ciliary dysmotility) - this is if the contraception fails
Tubal ligation or occlusion
Pelvic surgery especially tubal e.g. reversal of sterilisation
Assisted reproduction i.e. embryo transfer in IVF

42
Q

What are the clinical features of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Lower abdo/pelvic pain
+/- vaginal bleeding (from decidual breakdown of the uterine cavity due to suboptimal beta-hCG - ruptured ectopic would b intra-abdominal bleeding)
Amenorrhoea
Shoulder tip pain (irritation of the diaphragm by blood in the peritoneal cavity)
Vaginal discharge (brown - deciduous breakdown)
Localised abdo tenderness
Vaginal examination - cervical excitation +/- adnexal tenderness
Haemodynamically unstable if ruptured + peritonitis + fullness in pouch of Douglas on vaginal exam

43
Q

What are the differentials for ectopic pregnancy?

A
Miscarriage
Ovarian cyst accident (haemorrhage/torsion/rupture)
Cute PID
UTI
Appendicitis
Diverticulitis