E6 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the most common bacterial STI in the US?
A
Chlamydia
2
Q
What serotypes of chlamydia are responsible for trachoma?
A
ABC
3
Q
What serotypes of chlamydia are responsible for ocular and genital infections?
A
D-K
4
Q
What serotypes of chlamydia are responsible for lymphogranuloma venereum?
A
L1-L3
5
Q
What is the classificiation of chlamydia trachomatis?
A
gram -, obligate intracellular cocci
6
Q
What is the pathology of chlamydia?
A
Reticulate and elementary bodies
- tropism for epithelium of mucous membranes
- disease caused by destroying cells causing release of proinflammatory cytokines
7
Q
What is the leading cause of preventable blindness?
A
Eye trachoma
8
Q
What does adult and neonate chlamydial inclusion characterize as?
A
mucopurulent discharge
9
Q
What are the characteristics of male urogential chlamydia?
A
- most symptomatic
- urtheritis: dysuria, and mucopurulent discharge
- complications: epididymitis and prostatiists, Reiter syndrome
10
Q
What are the characteristics of female urogential chlamydia?
A
- 80% asymptomatic
- mucopurulent discharge
- pelvic inflammatory disease= fibrosis = sterility and ectopic pregnancy
11
Q
What is lymphogranuloma venereum?
A
chlamydia starts off as primary painless papule with inflammation and swelling of lymph nodes that can rupture and cause fistulas
12
Q
How is chlamydia diagnosed?
A
- culture with iodine shows reticulate bodies
- ELISA shows elementary bodies
- nucleic acid amplification from urine
13
Q
How is LGV chlamydia treated?
A
doxycycline for 21 days
14
Q
How is ocular/genital chlamydia treated?
A
Azithromycin or doxycyline for 7 days
15
Q
How is newborn chlamydia treated?
A
Erythromycin for 10-14 days
16
Q
Does infection confer immunity with chlamydia?
A
No, safe sex practices needed
17
Q
What are the classifications of neisseria gonorrhea?
A
Gram -, aerobic diplococci, oxidase +, catalase +, nonspore forming, non maltose oxidizing
18
Q
When is gonorrhea common?
A
Persons with C5-C8 or membrane attack complex issues
19
Q
Does infection confer immunity with gonorrhea?
A
No, safe sex practices needed
20
Q
What are the three pathological aspects of gonorrhea?
A
Pilin = attachment Porin = survival LOS = endotoxin
21
Q
What is the pathogenisis of gonorrhea?
A
- Attach to cells with pili, enter and multiply
- Pass through to subendothelial space
- LOS stimulates TNF-a for inflammation
22
Q
What are the characteristics of normal gonorrhea?
A
Mucopurulent dischrage, and dysuria
-pharyngitis with genital
23
Q
What are the complications of gonorrhea?
A
Men: rare, epididymitis and prostatitis
Women: abcess and inferitility
24
Q
What are the characteristics of disseminated gonorrhea?
A
Septicemia and infection of skin and joints, pustular rash and purulent arthritis
- large grey necrotic ulcer with erythemus base
- purulent conjunctivitis = newborn with vaginal delivery
- anorectal in MSM
- perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis)
25
How is gonorrhea diagnosed?
- smear with gram - bean diplococci neutrophils (4+ men, 2+ women)
- culture if appropriate
- NAAT combined test with chlamydia
26
How is gonorrhea treated?
ceftriaxone and doxicycline/azithromycin (treat chlamydia presume gonorrhea)
27
How is neonate gonorrhea treated?
Prophylaxis with erythromycin
28
How is occular gonorrhea treated?
Ceftriaxone
29
What is the classification of T pallidium (syphilis)?
gram negative sphirochete, mobile, microaerophilic, sensitive to heat and disinfectant
30
What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
-1+painless indurated skin lesion at entry with inflammation that lasts weeks to 2 months
31
What is characteristic of secondary syphilis?
Flu-like symptoms, prominant skin lesions over body as well as raised condyloma lata at skin folds
32
What is characteristic of latent syphilis?
Asymptomatic continued transmissable infection
33
What is characteristic of tertiary or late syphilis?
diffuse and chronic destruction of tissues
| -gummas
34
What is congential syphilis?
- newborns born with rhinitis and maculopapular rash
| - teeth and bone malformation, blindness, deafness, cardiovascular issue
35
What is ocular syphilis?
any eye structure infected that can result in permanent damage
36
How is syphilis diagnosed?
- nontreponemal test: measure Ab to cardolipin RPR, and VDRL
| - treponemal: Ab to t palidium
37
How is syphilis treated?
penicillin or doxycycline/azithromycin for allergic
38
What are the symptoms for urthertitis in males?
- blood in urine and semen
- burning with urination
- polyuria
- itching and tenderness
39
What are the symptoms of urethritis in women?
- abd and pelvic pain
- burn with urination
- fever and chills
40
What are the most common non-gonoccocal urethritis?
most = chlamydia
| -m. genitalium and u. urealyticum
41
What must be kept in mind when treating non-gonococcal urethritis?
Resistant to penicillin, cephalosporin, vancomysin
42
What are the characteristics of m. gentialium and u. urealyticum?
sterol in membrane
| -smallest free living with no cell wall
43
What does mycoplasma hominis resemble?
Fried egg
44
What is used to treat m. genitalium?
resistant to doxcycline/azithromycin
45
what is used to treat men with non-gonococcal urethritis?
- doxcycline
| - recurrent - azithromycin or quinolones
46
What disease is associated with haemophilis ducreyi?
Chancroid
47
What classifications is haemophilis ducreyi?
gram negative, pleomorphic coccobacilius, facultative anaerobe
48
What is the characteristic of chancroid?
Painful papule with erythemous base 5-7 days post exposure
49
How is chancroid diagnosed?
1+ painful ulcers, No T palidum, positive lymphadenopathy, and negative HSV
50
How is chancroid treated?
Macrolide azithromycin or erythromycin
51
What bacteria is associated with Donovanosis/Granuloma inguinale?
Klebsiella granulomatis
52
What are the classifications of Klebsiella granulomatis?
gram negative encapsulated intracellular
53
What are the characteristics of Donovanosis?
primary lesions painless and wart-like but bleed easily
| -significant gential damage if untreated
54
How is Donovanosis diagnosed?
Rule out other, Donovan bodies in specimen
55
How is Donovanosis treated?
Prolonged tetracycline, sulfamethoxazole, gentamicin, ciproflaxacin, or erythromycin
56
What should be done about genital ulcers?
- all tested for syphilis, herpes, or ducreyi
| - treat with suspected before labs return
57
What is bacterial vaginosis?
overgrwoth of anaerobic species and reduction of lactobacillus
58
What are the symptoms of bacterial vaginosis?
Discharge, odor, pain, burning, itching
59
How is bacterial vaginosis diagnosed?
- Amsel: grey/white discharge clue cells, fishy odor with KOH4.5
- Nugent: based on ratio of lactobacillus, G vaginalis, and mobiliunus (7-10 =BV)
60
What are the complications of bacterial vaginosis?
- increased susceptibility to hIV and passing it
- increased infection post-surgery
- preterm deliver, miscarriage, and infection after delivery
- increased susceptibility to STD
61
How is bacterial vaginosis treated?
- anaerobe/parasite = metronidazole
| - gram+/anaerobe = clindomycin
62
What is vulvovaginal candidiasis?
common fungal infection with candida albicans in women of childbearing age
63
What are the classical symptoms of vulvovaginal candidiasis?
thick, odorless, white vaginal discharge
64
What is uncomplicated versus complicated vulvovaginal candidiasis?
uncomp: sporadic, infrequent in otherwise healthy individ
comp: recurrent or severe or non-albicans or pt has uncontrolled diabetes, debilitation, or immunosuppression
65
What are the characteristics of candida albicans
- frequent after antibiotics
| - immunocompromised - esophagitic disseminated
66
What are the classifications of candida?
oval yeast-like that produce buds and pseudohyphae and hyphae
-germ tubes
67
What are the risk factors for vulvovaginal candidiasis?
local or generalized immunosuppression: oral contraceptive, pregnancy, diabetes, corticosteroids, HIV infection, antibiotics
68
How is vulvovaginal candidiasis diagnosed?
culture iwth 10% KOH = hyphae and budding
69
What is the treatment for Vulvovaginal candidiasis?
- 1-3 day topical azole = uncomplicated
| - 7-14 day topical or 2 fluoconazole = complicated
70
What is the most common curable STD?
Trichomonas
71
What are the symptoms of female trichomonas?
- asymptomatic or scant watery discharge
| - severe vaginitis, with dysuria and yellow-green frothy foul smelling discharge
72
What are the symptoms of male trichomonas?
Asymptomatic carriers
73
What are the classifications of trichomonas?
small pear protozoa (motile) with axostyle for attachment (only trophozoite)
74
What is the pathogenisis of trichomonas?
- destructionof epithlail, netrophilial influx and petechial hemorrages
- no clinically significant immunity so possible reinfection
75
How is trichomonas diagnosed?
swimming T vaginalis in exudate, asymptomatic PAP smear
76
How is trichomonas treated?
Metronidazole for both partners
77
What is the infecting bacteria with toxic shock syndrome?
S. aureus
78
What are the classifications of S aureus?
gram + cocci, catalase +, coagulase +
79
What is TSST-1?
heat and proteolytic resistant exotoxin of s aureus
80
How does TSST-1 function?
-can penetrate mucosal barrier and is responsible for systemic effects
-superantigen stimulate T cell activation and release of cytokines
-macrophage release IL-1B (fever), and TNF-a (shock)
t cell release IL-2 and IFN-g
81
What are the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?
diarrhea, ill-feeling, fever and chills, nausea and vomiting
82
How is TSS diagnosed?
must have all major symptoms and 3 minor
83
How is TSS treated?
remove tampon, supportive measure, stop tampon use
| -beta lactamase resistant penicillin or vancomycin
84
What are the classifications of the HIV virus?
ssRNA, reverse transcriptase polymerase
- nucleocapsid with p24 capsid protein
- envelope with gp41 (fusion) and gp120 (attachment)
85
What is the concentration of CD4+ cells associated with AIDS?
<200uL
86
Where is HIV-1 found?
predominant worldwide and in the US
87
Where is HIV-2 found?
W. Africa, less likely to progress to AIDS
88
What are the steps of the HIV lifecycle?
1. Attachement: gp120 binds CD4 on T lymphocyte, monocyte, and macrophage cuasing conformational change in gp120 so can bind CCR5 or CXCR4
2. Fusion: gp41 mediates b/w viral envelope and plasma membrane
3. Reverse transcription: produce linear dsDNA, most error prone of all retroviruses = rapid evolution = need for multidrug treatment
4. Integration: dsDNA moves into nucleus where viral integrase causes incorporation =provirus
5. genome replication
6. Trasncription
7. Budding: at lipid rafts
8. Maturation: protease cleaves gags to ensure infectivity of virion
89
What types of drugs are used to inhibit HIV at entrance?
- chemokine receptor antagonist that bind coreceptor and prevent binding with gp120 (maraviroc)
- fusion inhibitor bind gp41 and prevent conformational change
90
What types of drugs are used to inhibit HIV reverse transcriptase?
- NRTI: incorporate n growing DNA chain during provirus synthesis and cause chain termination (Azidothymidine)
- NNRTI: bind to reverse transcriptase and inhibit (Nevirapine)
91
What type of drugs are used to inhibit HIV integration?
integrase inhibitor: block DNA entrance to cell (Raltegravir)
92
What type of drugs are used to inhibit HIV protease?
Protease inhibitor: protease inhibition causes immature and defective HIV (squinavir)
93
What is the common standard for drug treatment of HIV?
1PI + 2NRTI or 1II + 2NRTI with prophylactics for opportunistic infections
94
What is R5 tropic HIV?
- uses CCR5 coreceptor
- transmitted person to person and is predominant in early disease
- infects monocytes/macrophages and microglia
95
What is X4-tropic HIV?
- uses CXCR4 receptor
- 40% transfer over to this during disease progression
- associated with rapid progression to AIDs
96
What is CCR5 deletion?
- subset of population with deletion in CCR5 affecting binding to gp120
- heterozygous = longer asymptomatic phase
- homozygous = no infection with R5 tropic virus
97
How is HIV transmitted?
- sexual: male->female most effective, heterosexual most common, increased risk with genital lesion from STD
- mother to child: 1/4 risk overall, but can be reduced at every step
- accidental exposure health care: 0.3% with skin puncture, 0.09% with mucous membrane, and can be reduced further with prophylactic
98
What is the acute syndrome of HIV?
- 3-6weeks following infection
- symptoms: fever, malaise, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, rash
- may no have detectable levels of Ab at this time
99
What is the immune response phase of HIV?
-following initial viral burst, Ab rise and virus decreases
100
What is chronic phase of HIV?
- low viremia, gp120 genetic drift, inactivation of immune response, cell to cell fusion
- asymptomatic median time 10years
101
What is characteristic in progression to AIDs?
- reduced CD4+ and inability to fight other infections
- oral hairy leukoplaia from ebstein barr, pneumonia from pneumo carinii and mycotuberculosis, thrush from candida albicans, cytalomegalovirus, Karposi sarcoma, B cell lymphoma, diarrhea from cryptosporidium and isospora beli
102
How is HIV diagnosed?
- HIV 1/2 Ag/Ab immunoassay: screen test for HIV
- HIV 1/2 Ab differentiation: difference between the 2
- HIV nucleic acid test: detect genome before ab produced and follow antiretroviral treatment
103
What is the first stage of Herpes Simplex Virus?
- inital gential/priary infection
- lesions progress from macules, papules, veiscles, pustules to ulcer
- fever and inguinal adenopathy
- lesion lasts around 3 weeks and symptoms are more severe in women
104
What is the recurrent stage of Herpes Simplex Virus?
- 3-5 discreet lesions
- vulvar irritation
- heal every 7-10 days
105
When is neonatal HSV most dangerous?
Highest risk to infants born to mother in primary infection
| -most dangerous if encephalitis with skin or disseminated
106
What are the complications in neonate skin, eye, and mouth HSV?
- non-lethal prevent 10-11 days postnatal
| - blind, microcephaly, and quadraplegia without treatment
107
What are the complications in neonate HSV encephalitis with skin involvement?
50% fatal if untreated
- survivor have neurological impairment
- disseminated = visceral organs and skin 80% mortality
108
What are the virological classifications of HSV?
enveloped dsDNA that encodes its own enzymes for genome replication
109
What disease is associated with HSV 1 and 2?
1 =oral lesions
| 2 = genital lesions
110
How is HSV transmitted?
-direct contact with lesions, saliva, sex
111
How is HSV diagnosed?
- clincal lesion 1-2 mm diameter in groups
| - virological tests: PCR to detect genome and immunocytochemistry for Ag
112
How is oral HSV treated?
not treated
113
How is genital HSV treated?
primary outbreak = oral acyclovir
| recurrent = long term acyclovir
114
How is neonatal HSV treated?
IV antiviral
115
How is occular HSV treated?
topical
116
What are considerations when treating HSV?
- drugs dont work on latent stage of infection
| - if nonnucleoside infection or allergic to acyclovir = foscarnet
117
What virus is responsible for genital warts?
Human Papilloma Virus
118
What are the characteristics of genital wart lesions?
Hyperkeratoic firm exophilic 1mm-2cm
119
What are respiratory papillomatosis?
-nodules on ciliated and squamous epithelium at junction of larynx resulting in altered cry, hoarse, stridor and respiratory distress
120
What is the treatment for respiratory papillomatosis?
Surgical removal
121
What are the classifications of HPV?
papaoviridae, nonenveloped dsDNA where replication is tied to tissue infected
122
What strains of HPV are linked to cervical cancer?
```
E6 = prevent p53 which stops apoptosis and stops inhibition of cell cycle progression
E7 = prevents Rb inhibition of cell cycle progression
```
123
How is HPV transmitted?
sex, cuts
124
How is HPV diagnosed?
clinical presentation, PCR to ID HIV type
| -pap smear with koilocytes with hyperchormatic nucleus and halo
125
What are the guidelines for pap smear?
- start at 21 Q3y
- Q5y at 30
- stop at 65 if adequate
126
How is genital HPV treated?
podophyllotoxin, sinectacins, imiquimol, cryotherapy and laser
127
How are cervical neoplasms from HPV treated?
low grade = remove
| high grade = chemo and hysterectomy
128
What is the standard in HPV prevention?
HPV 9 vaccine for both genders
129
What are lower UTI symptoms?
-dysuria, polyuria, back pain, cloudy urine and positive urine test
130
What are prostatitis symptoms?
lower back pain, high fever, chills, positive urine test
131
What are pyelonephritis symtpoms?
pain in flank, high fever, diarrhea, vomiting, positie uirne
132
What lab values are associated with UTI?
>10 WBC/mm3
| -at least 1 bacteremia
133
What is community acquired UTI?
Colonization of fecal flora 80-95% E Coli, Staph saporphyticus
134
What is hospital acquired UTI?
Catheter = Klebsiella, enterobacteria, serratia, pseudomonas
135
What are classifications of E Coli?
Gram -, pili for adherence, ferment lactose
| -hemolysin A to lyse RBC and other cells for immune response
136
What is the reservoir for UTI causing E Coli?
intestinal flora
137
What are the two types of pili of E Coli?
Type 1 = bind mannose on epithelium
| -P that bind sugar on uroepithlail
138
How is an E Coli UTI treated?
fluoroquinolones
139
What two bacteria are associated with Coagulase negative staphylococci UTI?
S epidermidis and S saprophyticus
140
What are the classifications of CoNS UTI?
- catalase + gram + nonmotile
| - saprophyticus = novobiocin resistant
141
What are the two diseases of CoNS bacteria?
```
epidermidis = infection of implant and prosthesis
-saprophyticus = normal GI = UTI (hemagglutinin/adhesin)
```
142
How is a CoNS UTI treated?
Amoxicillin
143
What enteric bacteria is associated with kidney stones?
Proteus mirabillis (catheter associated UTI)
144
Why is proteus mirabillis associated with kidney stones?
Has urease that causes alkalinization of urine so that Mg and Ca precipitate out and form stones
145
What enteric bacteria is associated with UTI from long term cathetraer use?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
146
What are the classifications of P aeruginosa?
gram - aerobic oxidase + nonfermenting that grows at wide temperatures and minimal nutrition
147
What are the classifications of enterrococcus?
gram + coci, catalase - group D wall Ag, that tolerates high salt and bile content but not sensitive to optochin
148
What are the two strains of enterrococcus associated with UTI?
faecalis and faecium
149
What is associated with increased risk for enterrococcus UTI?
indwelling hospital catheter on broad spectrum antibiotics
150
How is enterrococcus UTI treated?
amoxicillin
151
How are enteric UTI treate?
fluoroquinolones
152
What is asymptomatic bacteriuria
common in elder pop
| 25-50% ambulatory elder women, and 15-40% men in care facility
153
What is the treatement for uncomplicated cystitis?
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
154
What is treatement for asymptomatic bacteriuria?
Cephalexin or nitrofurantoin
155
What are the arboviruses?
dengue, yellow fever, zika, chikunguna, and colorado tick fever
156
What is the vector/reservoir for Dengue?
- urban = aedes mosquito
| - sylvatic = monkey
157
Where and how is Dengue transmitted?
- H->H and H-> a
- mosquito saliva
- Tropics, Fl and Tx
158
What is the disease onset for Dengue?
1 week with 1-2 convalesences
| -acute fever, ache, pain, maculopapular rash
159
What is the progression of Dengue?
HF/SS: as fever decreases, skin hemorrhage, epistaxis, bleeding gums, and circualtory failure
-shock = thrombocytopenia and hemoconcentration
160
Why does HF and SS occur in dengue?
- hypervirulent strains
| - Ab enhanced with 2nd infection = vasoactive
161
How is Dengue diagnosed?
Lab isolation of virus or Ab detection
162
How is Dengue treated?
- fever = relieve symptoms
| - HF/SS = fluid replacement
163
What is the vector for yellow fever virus?
-mosquito
164
What is characteristic for transmission of yellow fever?
H-> H H-> M
| -S. America and Africa
165
What is incubation time on yellow fever?
3-6 days
166
What is disease onset of yellow fever?
acute = fever bachache, shivers, anorexia, nausea and vomiting
167
What is disease progression of yellow fever?
15% go to toxin within 24 hours
| -kidney failure, fever, jaundice, hemorrhages
168
How is yellow fever diagnosed?
anti-YFV Ab
| -PCR
169
How is yellow fever treated?
supportive and rehydration
170
How is yellow fever prevented?
vaccine
| -1 wk for immunity good for 10 yrs
171
What is vector of Zika?
mosquito
172
What is characteristic of transmission of Zika?
- sexual
| - Brazil, Tx and Fl
173
What is the incubation time of Zika?
1 week
174
What is disease onset of Zika?
<20% experience symptoms for a week
| -headache, fever, rash, joint pain, conjunctivitis
175
What are the complications of Zika?
microcephally, Guillen-Barr Syndrome
176
What is the pathology of Zika?
infection = immunity
| -pregnant avoid areas, women wati 2 mo post and men wait 6 months
177
What is the vector and reservoir for Chikungunya?
- vector = aedes mosquito
| - reservoir = humans
178
What is characteristic of transmission of Chikungunya?
- associated with travel
| - Carribean, Fl, and Puerto Rico
179
What is the incubation time of Chikunguna?
3-7 days
180
What is the disease onset of chikungunya?
acute for 3-10 days
| -high fever, joint pain, vomit, conjunctivitiis
181
What is the disease progression of chikungunya?
some with joint pain up to 1 month
| -some relapse rheumatic sympoms
182
How is Chikungunya diagnosed?
specific Ab, molecular probes
183
How is chikungunya treated?
relieve symptoms
184
What is the vector and reservoir for Colorado Tick Fever Virus?
```
vector = rocky mountain wood tick
reservoir = squirrel, chipmunk, rabbit
```
185
What is the disease onset of Colorado Tick fever?
- leukopenia
| - biphasic 2-3 day fever, chill, photophobia, myalgia
186
What is the disease progression of Colorado Tick Fever?
rare CNS involvement or hemorrhagic
187
What is the pathology of Colorado Tick Fever?
infect erythroid progenitor or hemaotprogenitor cells
188
How is colorado tick fever diagnosed?
serological or molecular to confirm
189
What is the treatment for Colorado tick fever?
supportive
190
What is the vector and reservoir for Ebola?
vector - primate and man
| reservoir = rodent and bat
191
What is characteristic of transmission of ebola?
endemic to africa
192
What is disease onset of ebola?
starts flu like and progresses to severe fatal hemorrhage
193
what is the pathology of ebola?
replicates and destroys parenchya of liver, lungs, spleen, and lymph
194
How is ebola diagnosed?
serological
195
What is the treatment for ebola?
none - quarantine important
196
What is the vector for Hantavirus?
each strain has different rodent host
197
What is characteristic of transmission of Hantavirus?
No person to person to person
| -asia, europe, SW US
198
What is disease onset of Hantavirus?
3-5 days of fever myalgia, chills, cough, and GI involvement
199
What is disease progression of Hantavirus?
In 24 hours get hypotension, pulmonary edema and hypoxia
200
What is pathology of hantavirus?
associated with renal failure and disseminated intravascular coagulation
201
what is the treatment for hantavirus?
mechanical ventilation and supportive
202
What are the classifications for bacillus anthracis?
gram + aerobic spore forming, long chains
203
What are the reservoir for anthrax?
Herbivores eating containated pasture
204
What is characteristic of transmission of anthrax?
innoculation with spores
205
What are the characteristics of cutaneous anthrax?
- 2-12 day incubation
- red papule that becomes necrotic ulcer but goes away
- associated with butchers
206
What are the characteristics of inhalation anthrax?
1 wk - month incubation
- nonspecific inital to fever, dypsnea and cyanosis
- 50% meningitis
- 100% fatal without treatment
207
What are the characteristics of GI anthrax?
- 1-7 day incubation
- upper= fever,oryngopharynx ulcers
- intestinal = fever, nausea, bloody vomit and diarrhea that lead to sepsis
208
What is the pahtology of anthrax?
Poly-D-glutamic acid capsule
209
How is anthrax diagnosed?
Clinical sign and bacteria in wound
210
How is anthrax treated?
```
Cutaneous = amoxicilin
Inhalation/GI/bioterror = doxycycline with ciprofloxacin an 2 others
```
211
How is anthrax prevented?
vaccinate high risk humans and animals
212
What are the classifications of brucella?
gram - coccobacilli intracellular
213
What are the different strains of brucella?
```
Cattle = abortus
swine = sulis
Goat = meltensus
```
214
What is characteristic of transmission of brucellosis?
ingestion/inhalation of live organsims
| -associated with unpasteruized products
215
What is incubation time on brucellosis?
1wk-3mo
216
What is disease onset of brucellosis?
fever joint pain and headache
=fever in morning but normal by night
-pregnancy = bad
217
What is pathology of brucellosis?
in phagosome of monocyte and macrophage
218
How is brucellosis diagnosed?
Pt Hx of exposure
| -blood bulture and serology
219
How is brucellosis treated?
6wk rifampin and tetracyclin
220
What are characteristics of pasteruella multoada?
gram - anaerobic coccobacilli
221
What is characteristic of transmission of pasteruellosis?
- reservoir in nasopharynx of domestic animals
| - bite/scratch of animal or dog lick wound
222
What is incubation period of pasteruellosis?
12-24 hours
223
What is disease onset of pasteruellosis?
red swelling pain (abcess) around wound
- untreated = tendon, bone, joint infection
- immunocompromised = systemic
- COPD = pneumonia
224
What is pathology of pasteruellosis?
Polysaccharide capsule of hyaluronic acid
225
What is diagnosis of pasteruellosis?
clinical exposure and culture
226
What is treatment of pasteruellosis?
penicillin
227
What are classifications of leptospira interrogans?
mobile gram - spiral with hooks
228
What is associated with transmission of leptospirosis?
domestic animal urine
- tropics, US= hawaii
- swimming pool or vets
229
What is the disease states of leptospirosis?
Phase 1 = fever flulike 1 wk
| PHase 2 = weeks of meningitis, eye inflammation, jaundice, and ptechial rash
230
What is pathology of leptospirosis?
Invade abraded skin and mucus
231
What is treatement of leptospirosis?
penicillin or ampicillin
