Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm 2 > E3 Medications > Flashcards

E3 Medications Flashcards

1
Q

Fluphenazine (Prolixin)

A

Blocks dopamine receptors in brain; typical antipsychotic (FGA)
Interactions: Alcohol (increased depression) Kava Kava (EPS)
Available in long acting IM for use when patient is stabilized on oral dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Haloperidol (Haldol)

A

Blocks dopamine receptors in treatment of acute/chronic psychoses also used in dementia, schizophrenia, Tourette’s
SE: Similar to al FGA’s + EPS although less likely to cause sedation, hypotension, anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

Typical FGA used for schizophrenia, bipolar and other psychotic disorders
SE: orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects, tardive dyskinesia, EKG changes (prolonged QT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Thioridazine (Melleril)

A

High likelihood of EKG changes (prolong QT) so other FGAS should be tired first
SE: EPS, sedation, orthostatic hypotension, anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clozapine (Clozaril)

A

SGA used for severe schizophrenia that does not respond to other medications
Adverse: Agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat and mouth ulcers signs - reported immediately) + seizures
Interventions: Monitor WBC and neutrophil if ANC is below 1000 drug must be permanently discontinued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

A

SGA - Does not cause EPS
SE: weight gain, DM, duslipidemia, leukopenia/neutropenia
Nursing: WBC before starting and for multiple months after if ANC is less than 1000 stop medication and monitor for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risperidone (Risperdal)

A

SGA - does not cause agranulocytosis
SE: low risk of EPS, weight gain, DM, dyslipidemia, agitation, fatigue, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension
Long acting IM available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Immediate onset of action, can be used to treat anxiety - used on a schedule or PRN potential for dependence or abuse
SE: sedation, pt should avoid alcohol or other depressants
Ex: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) Diazepam (Valium) Lorazepam (Ativan) Alprazolam (Xanax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Buspirone (BuSpar)

A

Treats anxiety + depression
Effects in 2-4 weeks
SE: dizziness, headache, nausea, nervousness
Interacts with grapefruit juice (toxicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Phase 1 TB treatment

A

2 months, in regions without drug resistance
Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Phase 2 TB treatment

A

Minimum of 18 weeks
Isoniazid and rifampin are preferred
Generally 6-9 months of total treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for mutlidrug-resistant TB

A

Extended treatment time - 24 months, 2nd + 3rd line used. May need 5+ medications, extremely expensive 40-60% die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First line TB drugs

A

Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, rifabutin, rifapentine
More effective than second line and less toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Second line drugs

A

cycloserione, ethionamide, caprdomycin, para-amino salicyclic acid, anminoglycosides (streptomycin, amikacin, kanamycin), quinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
Less effective and more toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bedaquiline

A

New treatment option for TB, does not interfere with metabolism of other medication, high mortality rate in trials
SE: prolonged QT + hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Isoniazid (INH)

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis (prophylaxis and treatment of TB)
SE: gi distress, hepatotoxicity, blurred vision (photosensitivity) tinnitus, dizziness, peripheral neuropathy, psychotic behavior, seizures, blood dyscrasias, risk of hyperglycemia
Interaction: Increased risk of liver damage (alcohol, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine) increased phenytoin levels
Decreased absorption with antiacids
Teaching: complete regimen, sputum specimens early morning, pyridoxine (B6) to prevent neuropathy, frequent eye examinations, report (numbness, tingling, burning) teach about sun precautions and avoid antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rifampin

A

Used with isoniazid to treat TB
Suppresses RNA synthesis
Tkae 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
Red-orange discoloration of urine sweat and tears
Pt cannot wear soft contact lenses
Interactions: reduced effect of hormonal birth control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Rifapentine

A

May be taken with food
SE: Red orange discoloration of urine, sweat and tears (no soft contact lenses)
Interactions: reduced effect of hormonal BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rifabutin

A

Tb treatment - take with food to reduce GI upset, red/orange color body fluids
Uveitis - DC if eye pain
Interactions: reduced effect of BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

Hepatotoxicity - monitor liver enzymes
Nongouty polyarthralgias (joint pain, NSAID treatment, hyperuricemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ethambutol

A

Visual disturbances (visual acuity, color discrimination) Assess before and monthly, encourage pts to report symptoms and stop medication
SE: dizziness, confusion, hallucinations, joint pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Valacyclovir HCL (Valtrex)

A

HSV-1, HSV-2 – acute outbreaks and/or chronic treatment
Herpes zoster (shingles)
Vericella (chicken pox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Famciclovir (Famvir)

A

HSV, herpes zoster
Can decrease duration of shingles
HSV used for onset, recurrence, and prophylactically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ganciclovir (Cytovene)

A

Systemic CMV treatment
Side effect: thrombocytopenia, nephrotoxicity, increased bilirubin
Hazardous – requires special training for handling
Serious side effects! Only used with immunocompromised!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cidofovir (Vistide)

A

CMV retinitis, esp in AIDs patients
May cause severe kidney damage – given with probenecid which delays elimination, reduces the required frequency of dosing

26
Q

Foscarnet (Foscavir)

A

CMV retinitis, HSV-1 & 2, varicella
Monitor kidney function, electrolytes

27
Q

Topical Herpes Treatment

A

Penciclovir (Denavir) – HSV-1 &2
Trifluridine (Viroptic) – herpes eye infections

28
Q

Acyclovir

A

Primary drug used to treat HSV 1+2 and Herpes zoster (CMV mostly resistant)
Drug Interactions: risk of nephrotoxicity
Interventions: Monitor renal function, safe in pregnancy, IV admin (maintain adequate fluid intake, infuse slowly to reduce risk of kidney damage)

29
Q

Interferon Alfa

A

Treatment of HCV (+ HBV) - protects cells from virus, SQ administration
Combined treatment with ribavirin
SE: flu-like symptoms, depression and suicidal ideation

30
Q

Ribavirin

A

Combined treatment with interferon alfa for HCV, available in a aerosol for children
SE: anemia, flu-like symptoms, teratogenic

31
Q

Simeprevir

A

Protease inhibitor - treatment of HCV
Hepatotoxic, photosensitivity, used in combo of other medications
Interactions: Amiodarone - increases levels causing severe bradycardia
-Statins - increases levels, in turn lower the statin dose

32
Q

NS5A Inhibitors + NS5B Inhibitors

A

Treatment of HCV
Many drug interactions (amiodarone - severe bradycardia) + should not use alone bc of resistance
Daclatasvir (NS5A) + Sofosbuvir (NS5B)

33
Q

Lamivudine

A

Nucleoside Analog - treatment of HBV
Also used in treatment of HIV and must be tested before administering bc of difference in dose

34
Q

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

A

Prophylaxis against influenza A, must be started 48 within symptom onset
Never used for B

35
Q

Rimantadine HCL (Flumadine)

A

Prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A, not often used d/t resistance
Never used for B

36
Q

Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)

A

Treatment of influenza A & B
Must be given within 48 hours of symptom onset
Shorten length of illness and decrease symptoms, reduce incidence of complications (sinusitis, bronchitis)
Nursing Considerations: GI upset, take with food

37
Q

Zanamivir (Relenza)

A

Treatment of influenza A & B
Must be given within 48 hours of symptom onset
Shorten length of illness and decrease symptoms, reduce incidence of complications (sinusitis, bronchitis)
Nursing considerations: Inhaled powder, cough and throat irritation may occur

38
Q

Baloxavir Marboxil

A

For treatment of both influenza A & B
Use within 2 days of symptom onset
Not to be administered with salts
Calcium salts, iron salts, magnesium salts

39
Q

Remdesivir

A

Nucleotide analog, FDA approved to treat corona, IV medication, lots of SE

40
Q

Paxlovid (combination of nirmatrelvir and ritonavir)

A

Inhibits the SARS-CoV-2 protein from replicating
oral antiviral pill started within 5 days of sx
can be taken at home
helps keep high-risk patients from needing to be hospitalized
- Must be 12+ years old AND at high risk of complications from COVID 19 illness, MUST be positive
SE: altered or impaired sense of taste, diarrhea, increased BP, muscle aches

41
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Polyene for treatment of severe fungal infections - DRUG OF CHOICE - for systemic
Monitor for toxicity (nephrotoxicity - kidney function + hydration, hypokalemia, bone marrow suppression, hypotension/hypertension, seizures
Interventions: Give IV slowly, monitor vitals, increase fluids, monitor UO and weight, monitor electrolytes, renal and liver function

42
Q

Nystatin (mycostatin)

A

Oral or topical administration
Teaching: needs to make contact with infected area, oral (swish siwsh swallow, gargle if throat involved)

43
Q

Ketaconazole (Nizoral)

A

Azole class antifungal
Topical scalp infection (seborrheic dermatitis) or PO for systemic infections
Teaching: ETOH increases risk of hepatotoxicity

44
Q

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

A

Azole - IV or PO used for systemic + topical infections
Vaginal yeast infections (one time PO dose)

45
Q

Itraconazole (Sporanox)

A

Taken PO for fungal nail infections - requires consistent treatment
Monitor for hepatotoxicity

46
Q

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

A

Echinocandins class - treatment of antifungals, only available for IV administration
High risk of phlebitis, treats systemic infections

47
Q

Flucytosine (Ancobon)

A

Pyrimidine Analog - used to treat serious systemic fungal infections
SE: hepatotoxicity + bone marrow suppression

48
Q

Chloroquine

A

Treatment of malaria mild/moderate attack or for prophylaxis
SE: visual changes, GI effects, H/A, pruitis
Assessment/Intervention: Monitor kidney + liver function, take drug with meals, report vision (CNII) and hearing (CN VIII) changes, avoid large quanities of alcohol, lemon juice decreases effect

49
Q

Primaquine

A

Drug of choice for prevention of relapse of P. vivax, SHOULD NOT be administered until further infection risk has ceased (not returning to endemic areas
Not effective for treatment during erythocytic phase
Monitor urine for hemoglobin - discontinue if hemolysis develops

50
Q

Quinine

A

Antimalarial - Lots of side effects (potential cardiovascular effects) only treatment for the last 100 years

51
Q

Polymyxin B

A

Peptide Antibiotic - Treats gram negative bacteria, slow IV infusion (not well absorbed in GI tract)
Adverse: nephrotoxicity + neurotoxicity

52
Q

Bacitacin

A

Peptide Antibiotics - Meningitis, skin and ocular infections
Route: topical opthalmic oitments or IM (not well absorbed in GI)
Adverse: GI distress/renal damage

53
Q

Anthelminitics (3)

A
  1. Ivermectin (Stromectol)
    Works on multiple parasites
    Also works for lice
    Single dose
  2. Praziquantel (Biltricide)
    Tapeworms, flukes
    Safe to use during pregnancy
  3. Pyrantel pamoate (Pin-X, Reese’s Pinworm Medicine)
    Hookworms, pinworms
    Single dose
    Given for 1-3 days
    SE: Gi upset, dizziness/drowsiness (warn against driving) HA, weakness
    Interventions: Give after meals to prevent Gi upset, encourage good hygiene (showers over baths) wash bedding, towels and undergarments daily, proper food preparation, wash hands well, at risk for re-infections
54
Q

Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)

A

Antibotic treatment for UTI, effective against many gram-positive + gram-negative organisms (especially E. Coli)

55
Q

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

A

Urinary analgesic - relieves pain/bladder spasms, burning sensation, frequency + urgency
SE: GI upset, red-orange urine, blood dyscrasia, nephrotoxicity/hepatotoxicity

56
Q

Methenamine Hippurate (Hiprex)

A

Treatment of chronic UTI strains of E.coli + P. aeruginosa: Bactericidal when urine is acidic (pH <5.5)
Caution: should not be given to pts with renal impairment (check BUN/creatine) do not use with sulfa drugs - increased risk of crystalluria
Pt teaching - consume acidic foods/fluids (cranberry juice, vitamin C)

57
Q

Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)

A

Used in treatment/prevention of acute/chronic UTIS - both lower and upper
SE: Gi upset, rash + prutitus (not associated with allergic reaction, worse with sun exposure)

58
Q

Fluoroquinolones -floxacin

A

Treats lower and upper UTIS
SE: dizziness (elderly) photo sensitivity (sun protection and sun glasses)

59
Q

Fosfomycin tromethamine (Monurol)

A

Treatment of lower UTI Single dose (improves compliance)

60
Q

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

A

Treatment of hypotonic bladder (neurogenic, spinal cord injury or severe head injury)
Action: increases bladder tone of detrusor muscle
SE: GI distress (cholinergic effect) dizziness, fainting, may exacerbate asthma
Contraindicated with PUD, gastric ulcers, IBS, or urinary blockage

61
Q

Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

A

Relieves spasms + prevents urinary urgency
SE: drowsiness, tachycardia, dizziness, fainting, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention (anticholinergic effects)
Assessment: avoid in glaucoma, GI or urinary obstruction, use cautiously with cardiac, renal, hepatic or prostate problems

62
Q

Tolterodine Tartrate (Detrol)

A

Used to control and overactive bladder (which causes frequency) Decrease in urge and incontinence
SE: anticholinergic effects, dizziness, fainting, blurred vision

Pharm 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions