Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1) Chem 2 - I,II,III > E2 > Flashcards

E2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the order of synthesis of Vitamin D in the tissues?

A

Skin -> Liver -> Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The biochemical findings of this disorder include: low blood calcium, low blood phosphate, hypocalciuira, vitamin D deficiency.

  • Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
  • Grave’s disease
  • Primary Hyperparathyroidism
  • Hypoparathyroidism
A

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

With Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia, all of the following are expected clinical features with the exception of:

  • PTH mildly elevated
  • Demonstration of possible mutant CSR
  • Elevation of serum calcium
  • Elevation of urine calcium
  • All of the above are expected clinical features
A

Elevation of urine calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bone formation is mediated by:

  • Osteoclasts
  • Osteoblasts
  • Calcium sensing receptors
  • Parafollicular cells
A

Osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The most prevalent metabolic bone disease is:
- Osteomalacia
- Rickets
- Osteoporosis
- Milk alkali syndrome

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following hormones regulates normal calcium levels in the peripheral circulation?
- Vitamin D
- Parathyroid hormone
- Calcitonin
- PTH related protein

A

Parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is not a site of action for calcium regulation associated with parathyroid hormone?

  • Bone
  • Kidneys
  • Adrenal
  • Small intestines (gut)
A

Adrenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

  • Congenital
  • Autoimmune
  • Tumors
  • Neck surgery
A

Neck surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 72 year old male patient presents to the ER with psychotic symptoms of anger and confusion, depression, and bouts of lethargy. The patient, although forgetful, had moments of clarity and was able to answer basic questions about family health, which included information regarding high cancer prevalence in the family. His providers ordered lab tests and the results are as follows: markedly increased calcium levels, undetectable PTH levels, normal kidney function biomarkers, slightly low vitamin D levels and normal intestinal mobility. What test should be ordered next?

  • PTHtP
  • Calcitonin
  • Cholesterol
  • Liver enzyme panel
A

PTHtP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This enzyme is responsible for converting 25 (OH) Vitamin D in the kidneys to 1, 25 (OH)2 Vitamin D.

  • 25-hydroxylase
  • UVB radiation
  • 2 alpha-hydroxylase
  • 1 alpha-hydroxylase
A

1 alpha-hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All of the following are effects of PTH on the kidneys except:

  • Increase the reabsorption of renal tubular calcium
  • Increase phosphate excretion
  • Enhance 1 alpha-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxy vitamin D
  • Increased water loss
A

Increased water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following are functions of calcium except:

  • Blood coagulation
  • Nerve cell transmission
  • Intercellular adhesion
  • Muscle repolarization
A

Muscle repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of liver disease and failure in the U.S. ?

  • Alcoholism
  • Vital hepatitis B
  • Autoimmue hepatitis
  • Hereditary hemachromatosis
A

Alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These cells are macrophages that line the sinusoids of the liver:

  • Lobules
  • Kupffer cells
  • Hepatocytes
  • Foam cells
A

Kupffer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

  • Detoxification
  • Synthesis of serum proteins
  • Carbohydrate metabolism
  • Synthesis of hemoglobin
A

Synthesis of hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bilirubin is bound by ______ in the plasma and transported to the liver for conjugation.

  • Glucoronyl transferase
  • Albumin
  • AST
  • Urobilinogen
A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: A major function of the liver is drug detoxification.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bilirubin levels rarely exceed 5.0 mg/dL in this type of jaundice.

  • Pre-hepatic
  • Hepatic
  • Post-hepatic
A

Pre-hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If the results for serological markers include:

HBsAg +
Anti-HBs =
Anti-HBc (total) +
HBeAg =
Anti-HBe +
What would that indicate?

  • Chronic Hep B, active replicating
  • Chronic Hep B, non replicating
  • Chronic Hep C
  • Early acute infection Hep B
A

Chronic Hep B, non replicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False: Conjugated bilirubin is water insoluble and cannot be removed from the body.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bile is synthesized in the liver and is stored and concentrated in the ______.

  • Appendix
  • Kidney
  • Gallbladder
  • Hepatic portal vein
A

Gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: The liver is one of several organs that removes heme waste products from the body.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the indirect bilirubin concentration of a patient whose total bilirubin is 10.3 mg/dL and direct bilirubin is 1.9 mg/dL?

  • 9.3 mg/dL
  • 8.4 mg/dL
  • 9.1 mg/dL
  • 8.2 mg/dL
A

8.4 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 3 year old child presents to the ER with severe diarrhea, vomiting, and yellowing of the sclera. The parents informed the doctor that the child goes to daycare and other children from the facility have similar symptoms. Based on these clinical manifestations, what is a probable diagnosis?

  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
  • Hepatitis D
A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This disease is a result of chronic scaring of hepatocytes.

  • Hepatitis
  • Cirrhosis
  • Kernicterus
  • Jaundice
A

Cirrhosis

26
Q

What environmental variable affects bilirubin concentrations in-vitro?

  • Cold exposure
  • Matrix agitation (aggressive mixing)
  • Oxygen exposure
  • Light exposure
A

Light exposure

27
Q

What percentage of people infected with Hepatitis B develop chronic hepatitis ?

  • 90%
  • 25%
  • 60%
  • 10%
A

90%

28
Q

Which hepatitis virus requires another hepatitis virus in order to replicate?

A

Hep D

29
Q

Which syndrome is epidemiologically linked to aspirin in children?

  • Rotor’s
  • Reye’s
  • Kernicterus
  • Crigler-Najjar
A

Reye’s

30
Q

The liver is an extremely vascular organ that’s blood is drained by:

-The haptic artery
- The portal vein
- The hepatic vein
- The common hepatic duct

A

The hepatic vein

31
Q

Which of the following conditions is caused by a decrease ability to remove conjugated bilirubin and is associated with delta bilirubin?

  • Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
  • Gilbert’s Syndrome
  • Crigler-Najjar Syndrome
  • Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
A

Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

32
Q

This type of jaundice will typically have increased levels of total bilirubin, conjugated bilirubin, and unconjugated bilirubin.

  • Pre-haptic
  • Hepatic
  • Post-hepatic
A

Post-hepatic

33
Q

Which is not part of the fractions of bilirubin?

  • Conjugated
  • Unconjugated
  • Delta
  • Beta
A

Beta

34
Q

The glomeruli and proximal and distal tubules are located in the renal ______.

  • Pelvis
  • Medulla
  • Cortex
  • None of the above
A

Cortex

35
Q

Which of the following are causes of renal obstructions ?

  • Kidney stone
  • Prostatic hypertrophy
  • Metastatic cancer
  • Scar tissue in the ureters
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

36
Q

When damage to the renal tubules occurs, the tubules ability to reabsorb _____ proteins is comprised, losing them in the urine concentrate.

  • Small (low molecular weight)
  • Large (high molecular weight)
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above
A

Small (low molecular weight)

37
Q

What disease state is characterized by damage to glomeruli resulting in very large amounts of urine protein excretion?

  • Uremic syndrome
  • Renal tubular acidosis
  • Nephrotic Syndrome
  • Glomerulonephritis
A

Nephrotic Syndrome

38
Q

A 12 year old girl presented to the ER with edema of the hands and feet, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Her lab tests revealed elevated serum BUN and creatinine values and large amounts of blood and protein in her urinalysis. Upon further questioning, it was revealed by her parents that she had previously had ongoing issues with a sore throat for the past 4 weeks. Hearing this, her provider added an ASO titer to her previously drawn serum sample, revealing a very high antibody titer. Given this information, what disease state would be most probable for this patient?

  • Glomerulonephritis caused by group A beta-hemolytic strep
  • Glomerulonephritis caused by bacterial endocarditis
  • Glomerulonephritis caused by Goodpasture disease
  • Glomerulonephritis caused by lupus
A

Glomerulonephritis caused by Goodpasture disease

39
Q

What is the function of erythropoietin?

  • Production of white cells
  • Production of renal stones
  • Production of hepatocytes
  • Production of red cells
A

Production of red cells

40
Q

All of the following statements regarding creatinine are true except:

  • Rate of formation per day is relatively constant
  • It is completely filtered by the glomeruli
  • It is not reabsorbed by the renal tubules
  • Plasma levels are highly dependent on diet
A

Plasma levels are highly dependent on diet

41
Q

Decreased bicarbonate reabsorption, results in hyperchloremic acidosis is related to which type of renal tubular acidosis?

  • Proximal RTA or Distal RTA
A

Proximal RTA

42
Q

Renal tubules unable to keep up the vital pH gradient between the blood and tubular fluid is related to which type of renal tubular acidosis?

  • Proximal RTA or Distal RTA
A

Distal RTA

43
Q

The eGFR is calculated using all of the following except:

  • Age
  • Gender
  • Serum creatinine
  • Weight
A

Weight

44
Q

Acute kidney failure can be caused by all of the following except:

  • Heavy metal exposure
  • Hemorrhagic shock
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Medication toxicities
A

Diabetes mellitus

45
Q

When a patient experiences a crush injury, the release of this protein can overload the tubules of the nephron and is often associated with acute renal failure.

  • Microalbumin
  • Myoglobin
  • Beta 2 microglobulin
  • Cystatin C
A

Myoglobin

46
Q

Which of the following is often characteristic of pyelonephritis?

  • White blood cell casts
  • Proteinuria
  • Calcium oxalate crystals
  • Hyaline casts
A

White blood cell casts

47
Q

Prerenal acute kidney injury is associated with:

  • Enlarged prostate
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Renal calculi
  • Congestive heart failure
A

Congestive heart failure

48
Q

These types of cardiac insults can result in cardiac injury and elevated cardiac biomarkers.

A) Myocarditis
B) Cardiomyopathies
C) Wall stress
D) Myocardial infarction
- A, B and D
- B, C, and D
- All of the above

A

All of the above

49
Q

Which test, if elevated, would provide information about risk for developing coronary artery disease?

  • Troponin
  • CK-MB
  • hs-CRP
  • Myoglobin
A

hs-CRP

50
Q

This is the pathological state in which the heart fails to adequately supply the metabolic needs of the body, typically due to a decrease in pumping function.

  • Heart failure
  • Heart attack
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Angina
A

Heart failure

51
Q

Which of the following is false about myoglobin as it relates to acute myocardial infarction?

  • Measure serially
  • Cardiac specific
  • Initial increase occurs in 1-3 hours
  • Doubling of initial value within 1-2 hours suggestive of AMI
A

Cardiac specific

52
Q

When an AMI occurs, the cardiac marker that is the first to return to normal is:

  • Troponin I
  • Myoglobin
  • CK-MB
  • Troponin T
A

Myoglobin

53
Q

Which of the following is false about cardiac troponin I as it relates to AMI?

  • Increase above the reference interval seen in 3-6 hours
  • Measure initially and serially in 3-6 hour intervals
  • Can remain elevated for more than a week
  • Expressed in regenerating and diseased skeletal muscle and cardiac disorders
A

Expressed in regenerating and diseased skeletal muscle and cardiac disorders

54
Q

Which of the following is not associated with assessment of an AMI?

  • Elevated serum cTnI level
  • Elevated CK-MB level
  • Abnormal serum alk phos isoenzyme pattern
  • Blood collected upon presentation and serually in 3-6 hour intervals
A

Abnormal serum alk phos isoenzyme pattern

55
Q

Which of the following statements regarding atherosclerotic plaque is false?

  • It most likely begins with vascular injury
  • Foam cells both promote lesion progression and counter lesion progression
  • Macrophages recognize and phagocytized oxidized LDL
  • It is not an inflammatory process
A

It is not an inflammatory process

56
Q

Which of the following biomarkers is utilized to aid in the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism?

  • Troponin C
  • D-Dimer
  • B-type natriuretic peptide
  • Myoglobin
A

D-Dimer

57
Q

A 68 year old male in an unconscious state is transported to the emergency department after being involved in a one-car crash, where he drove off the road and hit a tree, because he was alone at the time and there was no apparent cause of the accident, it is assumed that he blacked out, which caused him to lose control of the car. He was not wearing a seat belt and has a broken leg, multiple contusions, and cuts. Blood samples were drawn upon arrival to the ED and in 3 hour intervals for 12 hours. The results are as follows:

Initial draw: myoglobin 57, total CK 112, CK-MB 3, cTnI 0.10
3-hour draw: myoglobin 140, total CK 170, CK-MB 6, cTnl 0.12
9-hour draw: myoglobin 281, total CK 390, CK-MB 8, cTnl 0.11

Reference ranges:
Myoglobin 30-90 ng/mL, Total CK 15-160 U/L, CK-MB 0-5 ng/mL, cTnl <0.40 ng/mL

What do these results suggest?

  • The man had a myocardial infarction which causes the accident
  • The elevated results are from the skeletal muscle injuries sustained in the car crash
  • The elevated total CK and CK-MB results indicate that the man had a stroke
A

The elevated results are form the skeletal muscle injuries sustained in the car crash

58
Q

Which troponin protein constituents is responsible for the binding of the troponin complex to tropomyosin?

  • Troponin I
  • Troponin C
  • Troponin E
  • Troponin T
A

Troponin T

59
Q

This test is typically not used for cardiovascular risk stratification.

  • BNP/NT-proBNP
  • Troponin I
  • Homocysteine
A

BNP/NT-proBNP

60
Q

In general, the risks of cardiac adverse events are escalated when:

  • Elevated troponin, reduced hs-CRP, elevated NT-proBNP
  • Elevated troponin, elevated hs-CRP, reduced NT-proBNP
  • Elevated troponin, elevated hs-CRP, elevated NT-proBNP
  • Reduced troponin, elevated hs-CRP, elevated NT-proBNP
A

Elevated troponin, elevated hs-CRP, elevated NT-proBNP

61
Q

The biomarkers that is used to distinguish cardiac from non cardiac causes of dyspnea is:

  • B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
  • Myoglobin
  • CK-MB
  • Troponin-I
A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

1) Chem 2 - I,II,III (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions