Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mesa test review > E-175 Systems Written > Flashcards

E-175 Systems Written Flashcards

1
Q

What is indicated by the yellow LED light next to the IDG switch?

A

IDG high oil temp or low oil pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the transformer rectifier units do?

A

Convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How long will the batteries last if all electrical is lost?

A

10 minutes under normal operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In flight what will happen if both IDGs crap out?

A

RAT will automatically deploy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the RAT power?

A

AC essential bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Besides the RAT, are there any other sources of emergency AC power?

A

AC essential bus, powered by the inverter

Contains both engine A excites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When would we use the DC GPU?

A

To start the APU when batt temp is lower than -20C or voltage is below 22.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What powers the primary ejector pumps?

A

Motive flow from the EDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many scavenge pumps are there? What is their purpose?

A

3 per side

They keep the collector box full and the pumps submerged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of the collector box?

A

They keep the pumps submerged and ensure fuel flow to the engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the fuel imbalance EICAS message displayed?

A

800 pound imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the left fuel tank is low, where should the X-feed switch be placed?

A

Low-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does the APU normally get its fuel?

A

Normally from the right fuel tank unless you X-feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the electrical source for the engine fire bottles?

A

Both hot battery busses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens when you push the fire test button?

A

Fire bell, triple chime, both fire handles light up, fwd and aft cargo fire buttons, APU fire button, red stripe in APU emergency stop button, both master warning lights, reverse video fire indications in both ITT gauges, EICAS fire messages for both engines, both cargo smoke messages, and APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many cargo fire bottles are there?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are the two cargo fire bottles different?

A

Yes, one is a high rate bottle and the other is a low rate bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are the cargo fire bottles intended for specific bays?

A

No, they can be used for either

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can you use one cargo fire bottle in one bay and the other in the other bay?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many engine fire bottles are there?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can both engine fire bottles be used in one engine? For one engine and then the other?

A

Yes and yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F

To shoot the fire bottle in the #1 engine you only PULL the handle

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F

If the APU catches fire on the ground it will automatically shut down

A

True, however it will not in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F

APU fire bottle will automatically fire one minute after detecting a fire

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Explain the sequence of events if there is smoke in the FWD cargo bay

A

If smoke is detected by only one fire detector it will automatically shut off the recirculation fan and close the outflow valve and monitor for 45 seconds before giving a cockpit annunciation

26
Q

What systems use hydraulics?

A

Elevators, rudder, ailerons, spoilers, landing gear, nose wheel steering, and thrust reversers

27
Q

What does the PTU do?

A

Uses hydraulic energy from system one to drive a pump in system two to assist in landing gear operation

28
Q

How much pressure does the hydraulic system run on?

A

3,000 PSI

29
Q

How can the airplane be steered for single engine taxi?

A

Electric pump 2 kicks on automatically when the parking brake is released providing power for the steering and inboard brakes

30
Q

With only the left engine operating, how long does the #2 hydraulic electric pump stay on after setting the parking brake?

A

6 minutes

31
Q

When do the unloader and limiter valve on hydraulic system 3 operate?

A

Upon RAT deployment

The unloader only operates during RAT spin up, the limiter stays on the entire time

32
Q

If an IDG shits the bed or is turned off will we lose any busses?

A

No, bus tie contacts will x-feed

33
Q

What does pushing the hydraulic engine pump shutoff button do?

A

Closes the SOV and shuts off fluid from the reservoir to the pump

34
Q

If electric hydraulic pumps are set to auto, when do they turn on in flight?

A

Flaps greater than 0, or when EDP fails

35
Q

What is the maximum single PACK altitude?

A

FL310

36
Q

What is the bleed air priority in flight?

A

Onside, cross side, APU

37
Q

What are the components of the cabin pressurization system?

A

Controller, outflow valve, static port, positive pressure valve, negative pressure relief valve

38
Q

What happens when the cabin pressure dump button is pushed?

A

Packs off, recirculation fans off, cabin climb to 12,400’ at 2,000 ft/min

39
Q

When does the emergency ram air valve open?

A

When both packs are commanded off, and the aircraft is in flight below FL250

40
Q

What is the max cabin differential pressure?

A

8.77 PSI

41
Q

What is heated by the bleed air anti ice?

A

Outer three wing slats, and engine cowls

42
Q

If Ref A/I is selected to OFF on the MCDU, when does it turn on in flight?

A

1700’ RA or 2 mins, which ever happens first

43
Q

After icing conditions are left, how long will the ice protection stay on?

A

5 minutes

44
Q

If one ice detector is inop, can the other still operate the system?

A

Yes, there are two for redundancy

45
Q

When are the smart probes heated?

A

After engine start

46
Q

Can the smart probes be turned on manually before engine start?

A

Yes, through the switch

47
Q

What is ATTCS?

A

Automatic takeoff thrust control system

It automatically gives reserve thrust if needed

48
Q

Does the engine FADEC give protection for hot start, hung start, or no light off?

A

Yes, only on the ground

49
Q

What is the only primary flight control surface(s) not fly by wire?

A

Only the ailerons

50
Q

What is the priority of the trim system?

A

Backup panel, Capt, FO, autopilot

51
Q

With RAT deployed does the stab trim still work?

A

Yes, at half speed

52
Q

With RAT deployed will the slats and flaps still work?

A

Yes, at half speed

53
Q

For flight controls to be operated in normal mode, what two things need to work?

A

The flight control module (FCM) for higher level functions, and the ACE

54
Q

If the FCM loses airspeed input will it still work?

A

No, it will go into direct mode

55
Q

When batteries are first turned on, what works?

A

2 and 3 screens, FO side MCDU, Capt CCD, clock, IESS, whisky compass light, and radios

56
Q

What is the wing span?

A

93’ 11”

57
Q

What is the absolute minimum runway or taxiway width for a 180 degree turn?

A

59’2”

58
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

FL410

59
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engagement altitude for Mesa operations?

A

1000’AGL

60
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

85,517 pounds

61
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

74,957 pounds

Mesa test review (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions