Dyspnea - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When evaluating a pt with dyspnea, what are 2 highlighted clinical findings that would be concerning?

A

use of the accessory respiratory muscles

inability to speak normally as a consequence of breathlessness

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2
Q

What 3 accessory muscles specifically?

A

sternocleidomastoid, sternoclavicular, and intercostals

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3
Q

What is paradoxical abdominal wall movement? What does it indicate?

A

the abdominal wall retracts inward with inspiration

indicating diaphragmatic fatigue

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4
Q

What are the top 5 immediate life threatening causes of dyspnea?

A

upper airway obstruction

tension pneumo

PE

neuromuscular weakness: myasthenia gravis, Guillain-Barre, botulism

Fat embolism (think fat gobules in the pulm circulation that occur 24-72 hours after trauma)

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5
Q

What are the MC causes of dyspnea?

A

obstructive airway disease (COPD, astham)

decompensated heart failure

ischemic heart disease: unstable angina, MI

PNA

psychogenic

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6
Q

What will a peak expiratory flow rate tell you?

A

will help differentiate asthma/COPD from other disorders

decreased in obstructive disease

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7
Q

What will a bedside POC US tell you?

A

helps differentiate acute cardiac from noncardiac causes

pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary consolidation, intravascular volume status, cardiac tamponade, cardiac function

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8
Q

What is the initial goal of a pt presenting with dyspnea?

A

Initial goal of treatment is to maintain oxygenation!!

most will require admission

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9
Q

in the management of hypoxia, what is the goal? What is the exception?

A

Goal is to keep PaO2 above 60 mmHg or O2 saturation > 90%

Lower oxygen goals in patients chronic lung disease (CO2 retainers)

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10
Q

What is the difference between low flow and high flow oxygen?

A

Low flow oxygen (allows room air to mix with oxygen)

High flow oxygen (pure oxygen)

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11
Q

How many liters of oxygen is available in nasal canula, simple mask, high flow nasal canula, non-rebreather mask? Which ones are consider low vs high flow?

A

NC (0.25-4 lpm)- Low

Simple mask (6-10 lpm)- Low

High flow NC (4 lpm in infants with up to 40 lpm or more in adolescent and adults) - High

Non-rebreather (10-15 lpm) - High

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12
Q

Which oxygen vehicle provides some positive pressure and decreases amount of room air that is breathed in?

A

high flow nasal canula

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13
Q

What is the difference between CPAP and BiPAP?

A

CPAP: blows constant pressure while you breathe in and out

BiPAP: blows higher pressure while you breathe in and lower pressure when you breathe out

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14
Q

What is the order of O2 therapy as the pt continues to decompensate?

A

start with supplemental O2 therapy, then move on to noninvasive vent (CPAP or BiPAP) then move to intubate them

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15
Q

_____ is the MC sign present in patients with upper airway obstruction

A

Stridor

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16
Q

______ is the MC cause of stridor in neonates. What is it due to?

A

Laryngotracheomalacia

under developed airway that collapses when they breathe

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17
Q

What age range is airway foreign body MC in? What objects?

A

1-3 years old

food and toys

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18
Q

What are the MC foods that kids swallow and cause an obstruction?

A

peanuts, sunflower seeds, carrots, raisins, grapes, and hot dogs

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19
Q

How will the presentation differ if the FB is in the Laryngotracheal or bronchial? Which one is MC? What imaging should you order for each?

A

Laryngotracheal: stridor, hoarseness or complete apnea -> PA and lateral soft tissue neck

Bronchial FB (MC) - unilateral wheezing and decreased breath sounds -> PA and lateral CXR (with inspiratory and expiratory views assess air trapping)

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20
Q

How can you tell if the coin is in the esophagus or trachea?

A
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21
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

A

atelectasis

focal atelectasis with complete obstructions

This image is a bilateral atelectasis in the lung bases due to PE

aka tissues looks a little gray because air is NOT present

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22
Q

What is the management of an airway foreign body? in order!!

23
Q

What is the technical term for croup? **What are the 2 slam dunk PE findings?

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

**inspiratory stridor, **“barking” “seal-like” cough,

hoarseness, respiratory distress and fever may also be present

24
Q

What are the different classifications for croup?

A

mild: no stridor at rest

moderate: stridor at rest and mild retractions

severe: stridor at rest and severe retractions, anxious or agitated appearing, pale/fatigued

25
Q

Do you need to do imaging in a classic presentation of croup? **What will you find on xray?

A

NOT necessary if dx is clear

narrowing of the superior trachea “steeple sign” with normal epiglottis

26
Q

What is the tx for mild croup?

A

Outpatient: single dose of oral dexamethasone

IM dexamethasone or nebulized budesonide if unable to tolerate oral therapy

27
Q

What is the tx for moderate/severe croup? **How long do you need to monitor?

A

single dose dexamethasone, nebulized (racemic) epinephrine, humidified oxygen

**need to monitor for 3 hours if you give nebulized epinephrine

28
Q

What is Heliox? When is it used?

A

70-80% helium and oxygen 20-30% - used as a last resort before intubation in pts with moderate/severe croup

29
Q

What is the discharge criteria for a pt with croup? (must meet ALL criteria in order to go home)

A

nontoxic

no signs of dehydration

O2 sat > 90% on RA

reliable caregiver!!

**observation with improvement for 3 hours after last epi tx

f/u in 24-48 hours with PCP

30
Q

What are the indications for admission for a pt with croup?

A

persistent stridor at rest

persistent tachypnea

persistent retractions

persistent hypoxia

> 2 doses of nebulized epi are needed

31
Q

How will the presentation of croup and bacterial tracheitis differ? Why? **What is the PE finding?

A

similar to croup but with more severe respiratory distress and toxic appearing

bacterial traceitis: Thick mucopurulent secretions result in upper airway obstruction

**“sore throat” referring to the trachea with tenderness on palpation

32
Q

What do you need to do first in bacterial tracheitis? What should you do next? What will it show?

A

secure an airway!!

Bronchoscopy (after airway is secured) is needed (consult pulmonology)

confirms present of edema of trachae and will need to therapeutic removal of thick mucopurulent tracheal secretions with C&S to pick abx

33
Q

What is the management of bacterial tracheitis?

A

Intubation and mechanical ventilation!

Vancomycin PLUS either Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) or ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

alt: FQ if beta-lactam allergy present

34
Q

When do the kidneys start to compensate in an acid-base disturbance? lungs?

A

kidney compensation occurs with in 12-24 hours

lung compensation occurs within minutes

35
Q

What are the 5 components of an ABG?

A

pH
PaCO2
PaO2
HCO3
O2Sat

36
Q

_____ assesses respiratory component of acid/base regulation vs _____ assesses the metabolic component of the acid/base regulation

A

PaCO2 - assesses respiratory component

HCO3 - assesses the metabolic component

37
Q

What is O2Sat?

A

oxygen saturation of hgb

38
Q

** What are the normal values of pH, PaCO2 and HCO3? **In order to be consider compensated, what must be true?

A

compensated the pH must be in the normal value range: 7.35-7.45

39
Q

What is a common cause of respiratory acidosis?

A

alveolar hypoventilation from obseity, COPD, sleep apnea

aka something is preventing the exhalation of CO2, CO2 is being retained and thus acidosis

40
Q

If arterial Pco2 chronically exceeds _____ mm Hg, the respiratory center may be _____, therefore, stimulation for breathing comes from hypoxemia. What should you NOT do to these patients?

A

60 to 70

depressed

give excessive amounts of O2 because it could decrease respiratory drive in these patients

41
Q

What is a major cause of respiratory alkalosis?

A

Alveolar hyperventilation

aka breathing too fast, think anxiety attacks

breathing CO2 out too fast causes pH to rise

42
Q

What can alveolar hyperventilation lead to?

A

decrease in CO2 leads to decrease H+ resulting in an imbalance of cations and anions. The negatively charged proteins bind Ca++ (calcium) leading to an ionized hypocalcemia

43
Q

frothy pink sputum instantly should think _____

A

heart failure

44
Q

What agent is preferred in PE with severe renal insufficiency?

45
Q

Where is aspiration PNA more likely?

A

RIGHT lower lobe

46
Q

PNA: out pt, uncomplicated, no cormorbities CAP. What abx?

A

azithromycin or doxy

47
Q

PNA: Out pt, with cormorb, CAP. What abx?

A

levo or augementin PLUS azithro

48
Q

In pt CAP non ICU. What abx?

A

levo or ceftriazone PLUS axithro

49
Q

In pt CAP ICU. What abx?

A

ceftriaxone PLUS levo PLUS vanc (MRSA)

50
Q

In pt HCAP. What abx?

A

levo PLUS cefepime OR pip/taz (add vanc or linezolid for MRSA)

51
Q

aspiration PNA, what abx?

A

Levo PLUS clinda

52
Q

What is an empyema? What abx?

A

a collection of pus in the pleural space, the cavity between the lung and the chest wall

pip/taz (+/-Vanc for MRSA), admit and consult pulm

53
Q

Lung abscess. What abx?

A

clinda PLUS ceftriaxone