du++on 1

Question 1

A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of pes anserinus bursitis. The physical therapist selects ultrasound as part of the intervention. The ultrasound should be applied to the area:

A. proximal to the lateral femoral condyle

B. proximal to the medial femoral condyle

C. distal to the medial tibial condyle

D. distal to the lateral tibial condyle

Answer 1

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: This is the area where the tendons of the pes anserinus insert.

Question 2

Which of the following is the best exercise to correct a Trendelenburg gait pattern?

A. Bridging with Straight Leg Raise

B. Bridging

C. Bridging with resisted abduction

D. Wall squats

Answer 2

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: This exercise is designed to strengthen the gluteus meduius, weakness of which causes the Trendelenberg gait pattern.

Question 3

The physical therapy intervention for a patient with Parkinson’s disease includes therapeutic exercise. The desired response to exercise for this patient is:

A. Increased isotonic and isometric strength

B. Improved initiation of movement and reciprocal motion

C. improved range of motion and joint stability

D. increased proximal and distal stability

Answer 3

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dysfunctions related to Parkinson’s disease include problems with initiation of movement and reciprocal motion.

Question 4

An elderly female patient with poor vision is being prepared for discharge after a 3 week hospitalization. The best intervention strategy for this patient to increase her ambulation level and safety is to:

A. instruct the patient to keep curtains and window shades closed to avoid glare.

B. Recommend that the patient change the color of her walls to bright yellow.

C. practice walking in areas of high illumination and strong color contrasts.

D. teach the patient to walk while not looking at her feet at all times.

Answer 4

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is important to prepare the patient for difficult situations.

Question 5

Which of the following is a contraindication to a 1-MHz ultrasound at 1.5 watts/cm²?

A. Over an injured tendon

B. Over an injured muscle belly

C. Over a non-cemented metal implant

D. Over an inflamed bursa

Answer 5

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The use of ultrasound over metal components is contraindicated.

Question 6

You are instructed to provide electrical stimulation to a 58 year old patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the right lower extremity. What is the most suitable type of electrical stimulation to promote wound healing?

A. Transcutaneous electrical stimulation

B. Direct current

C. Iontophoresis

D. Biphasic pulsed current

Answer 6

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The use of direct current is the preferred form of electrical stimulation for wound healing.

Question 7

After an above knee amputation, a patient cannot accept the loss of her leg. She reports being constantly tired, weepy, and has no energy to do anything. She also reports dificulty with sleeping. The BEST action you can take is:

A. tell the patient’s husband to monitor her behavior

B. request her primary physician to refer her for a psychological evaluation.

C. tell the patient to stop over-reacting, and to get on with her therapy.

D. observe her closely for possible suicide

Answer 7

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This patient is demonstrating obvious signs of depression and the physician should be notified.

Question 8

A physical therapy plan of care for a newborn with Erb palsy would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. splinting the shoulder in abduction and external rotation, and forearm supination.

B. facilitate awareness of the involved upper extremity.

C. gentle ROM following the immobilization to prevent contractures

D. partial immobilization of limb across upper abdomen for 1-2 weeks

Answer 8

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Erb palsyis associated with a lack of shoulder motion – the affected arm is held adducted, pronated, and internally rotated.

Question 9

A patient is referred to physical therapy for stretching of the right sternocleidomastoid muscle. The MOST effective method to stretch the muscle is by positioning the head and neck into:

A. extension, left side-bending, and right rotation.

B. flexion, left side-bending, and left rotation.

C. extension, right side-bending, and left rotation.

D. flexion, right side-bending, and left rotation.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The right sternocleidomastoid muscleproducers flexion right side bending and left rotation – it should therefore be stretched in the opposite directions.

Question 10

A patient with an above-knee amputation is having great difficulty wrapping his residual limb. Your BEST course of action is to:

A. use a shrinker.

B. Spend more time teaching the patient proper wrapping.

C. Apply a temporary prosthesis

D. Consider recommending the application of an Unna’s paste dressing.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Shrinkers provide a degree of independence with those individuals who are not able to properly wrap the residual limb.

Question 11

You are applying mechanical cervical traction to patient diagnosed with cervical radiculitis using a cervical halter. During the traction, the patient complains of pain in the area of the TMJ. You should: A. discontinue the treatment

B. Replace the halter with a sliding device to take pressure off the TMJ

C. decrease the traction poundage

D. Increase the treatment time

Answer 11

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The sliding device applies no pressure to the TMJ

Question 12

A 12-year old girl has sustained full thickness burns to both arms and is now beginning to develop hypertrophic scars. The most appropriate intervention to manage these scars is:

A. ace wrapping the affected areas

B. surgical resection

C. excision followed by autografts.

D. custom made pressure garments.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Although expensive, these garments apply an even pressure and help prevent scarring

Question 13

You have been consulted about a child in the elementary school system who has moderate extensor spasticity and limited head control. The MOST appropriate positioning device would be a:

A. Supine stander

B. wheelchair with a back wedge and head supports.

C. HKAFOs

D. Prone stander

Answer 13

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: All of the other alternatives do not address the child’s limited head control or the spasticity.

Question 14

A patient has lumbar spinal stenosis encroaching on the spinal cord. Which of the following activities should you instruct the patient to avoid?
A. rowing.
B. bicycling.
C. Tai Chi.
D. All of these activities can be performed

Answer 14

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of these activities would be appropriate provided that the patient is able to avoid spinal extension

Question 15

The best course of action for a patient with symptoms of an early stage of ankylosing spondylitis include:
A. Strengthening the anterior chest muscles, and stretching of scapular stabilizers.

B. spinal extension and rib expansion exercises, and education about the maintenance of proper posture to prevent deformity.

C. Pain management, abdominal strengthening, and referral to a psychologist.

D. Cardiovascular conditioning, and weight bearing exercises.

Answer 15

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ankylosing spondylitis results in a gradual loss of spinal extension, and rib expansion

Question 16

You are about to perform an ice massage for an acutely sprained knee. This is the first time the patient has had an ice massage. In order to repare the patient, you should tell the patient he/she will experience:
A. Intense cold, then burning, and then aching, followed by numbness.

B. aching, then numbness, and then burning, followed by intense cold.

C. burning, then intense cold, and then aching, followed by numbness.

D. numbness, then aching, and then intense cold, followed by burning.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The typical sequence experienced by the patient when ice is applied is cold, then burning, then aching, and then numbness.

Question 17

Which of the following is not a benefit of a post-operative rigid dressing?
A. limits the development of post-operative edema

B. allows for earlier ambulation

C. allows for earlier fitting of a prosthesis

D. allows for daily wound inspection and dressing changes

Answer 17

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: As their name suggests, rigid dressings do not allow for wound inspections or for dressing changes.

Question 18

You are setting up a patient on electrical stimulation for the purposes of muscle re-education. The most appropriate on:off time ratio is: 
A. 5:1  
B. 15:1  
C. 1:5 
D. 1:15

Answer 18

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: This is the correct on:off time ratio used with muscle reeducation.

Question 19

A patient with suspected nerve root impingement has been referred to you for a trial of mechanical lumbar traction. The patient is a 170 pound male.  The most appropriate amount of force to initiate the session is: 
A. 20 lbs.  
B. 35 lbs.  
C. 60 lbs. 
D. 85 lbs.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: B Rationale: 25-50lbs is the recommended initial weight for lumbar traction. 50% of the body weight is required for vertebral separation.

Question 20

20. You are preparing to perform joint mobilizations on a patient’s proximal radioulnar joint. How would you position the joint to place it in the loose packed position? A. 10 degrees flexion, 10 degrees pronation B. 20 degrees flexion, 45 degrees supination C. 45 degrees flexion, 20 degrees supination D. 70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination

Answer 20

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: This is the loose pack position for the proximal radioulnar joint.

Question 21

You begin treating a patient status post total shoulder reconstruction is examined in physical therapy. The referring physician insists on a very specific post-operative protocol. If you decide to deviate from the established protocol, the most appropriate action is for you to:

A. read the patient’s operating report

B. complete a thorough examination

C. carefully document any modification

D. contact the referring physician

Answer 21

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Whenever an intervention deviates from a physician’s order, the physician must be first consulted

Question 22

You are examining a patient following a total knee replacement. The patient asks you about the benefits of a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine. All of the following are reported benefits from a CPM, except:

A. increase in vascular dynamics

B. prevention of muscle atrophy

C. increases in range of motion

Answer 22

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Because the CPM only provides passive range of motion, there are no strengthening benefits.

Question 23

Which of the following cryotherapeutic agents provides the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling?

A. frozen gel packs

B. ice massage

C. fluori-methane spray

D. cold water bath

Answer 23

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Of the modalities listed, ice massage provides the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling.

Question 24

A patient has been referred to your department for paraffin treatments for a chonic hand injury.  When using the dip and wrap method, the most appropriate number of times to dip the hand would be: 
A. 1-3  
B. 2-4  
C. 4-6 
D. 6-10

Answer 24

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: 6-10 dips are recommended using the dip and wrap method.

Question 25

A 35-year-old wheelchair bound patient is being discharged home from your hospital. In preparation for discharge, you visit the home and find he will require a ramp that will allow entry into the patient’s house.  What is the maximum recommended grade for the ramp? 
A. 6.2 % 
B. 8.3 %  
C. 9.5 % 
D. 10.4 %

Answer 25

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: According to ADA, the grade of a ramp should be no greater than 8.3%.

Question 26

You are preparing to stretch the glenohumeral capsule of a patient. Which grades of oscillation are the most appropriate for stretching maneuvers? 
A. I, II  
B. I, III  
C. II, III 
D. III, IV

Answer 26

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Under the Maitland system, grades III and IV impart a stretch.

Question 27

You are mobilizing a patient’s left shoulder using a large-amplitude movement occurring from near the beginning of available range to near the end of available range. What grade mobilization, according to Maitland, is being performed? 
A. Grade I  
B. Grade II  
C. Grade III 
D. Grade IV

Answer 27

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Under the Maitland system, a grades II mobilization occurs from near the beginning of available range to near the end of available range.

Question 28

A local primary care physician is looking to refer patients with incontinence to your department. Knowing that this is an area of specialty, the physician asks if you know which muscles need to be the focus of the strengthening program to maintain a strong pelvic floor. Which of the following muscles would be included in your reply?

A. Gemellus inferior, obturator internus, and pubococcygeus

B. Obturator internus, pubococcygeus, and coccygeus

C. Rectus abdominis, iliococcygeus, and internal oblique

D. Iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and coccygeus

Answer 28

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Of those lited the Iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and coccygeus are all pelvic floor muscles.

Question 29

A patient is referred to physical therapy with a history of temporomandibular joint pain and difficulty closing her mouth against minimal resistance. Which of the following muscles would not be a target for strengthening to help close the mouth?

A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Masseter
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Temporalis

Answer 29

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The lateral pterygoid opens the mouth.

Question 30

You are about to perform a postural drainage technique on a patient using percussions. Which of the following is not an indication for postural drainage with percussion?
A. To loosen and mobilize secretions

B. To utilize the shape and direction of the lung segments in order to help with drainage

C. To safely apply forces over bony prominences such as the scapula, spinous processes, and clavicles

D. To help clear airways in conditions such as cystic fibrosis

Answer 30

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Percussion techniques should not be performed over bony prominences such as the scapula, spinous processes, and clavicles.

Question 31

You are providing patient education to a 78-year-old man who received a cemented right total hip arthroplasty (THA) 24 hours ago. You noted from the operating report that the surgeon used a posterolateral incision. Which precaution would you not stress to the patient?

A. Avoid hip flexion beyond 90 degrees

B. Avoid hip adduction past midline

C. Avoid any hip abduction

D. Avoid hip internal rotation beyond neutral when hip is flexed

Answer 31

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hip abduction should not be avoided completely.

Question 32

One of your goals of treatment is to increase the knee flexion range of motion of a patient. You decide to use the proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) technique of hold-relax to help reach your goals. To which muscle group would you apply the hold-relax?

A. Hamstrings
B. Quadriceps
C. Hip flexors
D. Anterior tibialis

Answer 32

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The hamstrings serve to flex the knee (and extend the hip). The quadriceps would be used if a contract-relax technique was employed.

Question 33

You are teaching a patient how to use a cane to assist with ambulation. The cane is usually used: 
A. Opposite the involved side  
B. On the involved side  
C. Only during the stance phase 
D. As needed

Answer 33

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Placing the cane on the opposite side to the involved allows the forces to be better dissipated and allows the user to shift their weight off the involved side during the stance.

Question 34

A 70 year-old patient has a pressue ulcer on the medial malleolus of his ankle. Upon inspection, you notice that the ankle is swollen, red, and painful with a moderate to high amount of exudate. Of the following dressings, which would be the BEST for this wound? A. Gauze
B. Hydrogel
C. Semi-permeable
D. calcium alginate dressing

Answer 34

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Calcium alginate dressings are better suited to wounds with a moderate to high amount of exudate.

Question 35

You are treating a patient admitted to the intensive care burn unit 48 hours ago with an acute deep partial-thickness burn covering 25% of the total body. As the treating physical therapist, what should be your major concern for this patient? 
A. Fluid balance  
B. Comforting the family  
C. Initiating range of motion 
D. Nutritional status

Answer 35

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: All of the other alternatives, while being of some concern to the PT, are not a major concern as they are the responsibility of other service

Question 36

While playing soccer approximately two months ago, your patient had an inversion sprain of the calcaneofibular and anterior talofibular ligaments of the right ankle. The ankle is still painful, and very limited in motion. You decide to use ultrasound. The ultrasound treatment parameters should consist of: 
A. continuous US at 3 MHz.  
B. continuous US at 1 MHz.  
C. pulsed US at 1 MHz 
D. pulsed US at 3 MHz

Answer 36

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Based on the symptoms, the 3 Mhz would be a better choice as it is less invasive/more superficial.

Question 37

Your patient is recovering from a right CVA. During gait analysis you observe lateral trunk bending toward the left during midstance on the left leg. Of the following, what would you do to help correct this deviation?
A. strengthen the hip abductors on the right side

B. strengthen the hip abductors on the left side

C. Strengthen the hip extensors on the right side

D. Strengthen the hip extensors on the left side

Answer 37

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The lateral trunk bending to the left is a compensatory motion for a weak gluteus muscle on the same side.

Question 38

You are treating a patient whose chief complaint is difficultly with ballistic movements and who fatigues easily. The optimal exercise prescription for this patient is:
A. low intensity workloads for short durations to help develop slow twitch fibers.

B. high intensity workloads for long durations to help develop fast and slow twitch fibers.

C. high intensity workloads for short durations to help develop fast twitch fibers.

D. low intensity workloads for long durations to help develop slow twitch fibers.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ballistic movements involve fast-twitch fibers, which in turn are strengthened using high intensity exercises.

Question 39

Your patient is recovering from an Achilles tendon strain and is planning to train for a marathon. Her history indicates that she has Type I (IDDM) diabetes, controlled with twice daily insulin injections. In order to minimize the risk of a hypoglycemic event during exercise, you should advise the patient to:
A. avoid exercise if her blood glucose is above 300 or below 100

B. decrease her carbohydrate intake for 8 hours before her training sessions

C. exercise daily for 40-50 minutes to achieve proper glucose control

D. Carry on as normal

Answer 39

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: While exercises has many benefits for patients with diabetes, it is important to avoid exercising when the levels are indicating hypoglycemia (100) or hyperglycemia (300).

Question 40

A patient is having difficulty learning how to coordinate herself for a transfer from bed to chair. Which of the following types of feedback would provide the best help?

A. Emphasize guided movements
B. Emphasize knowledge of results and visual inputs
C. Emphasize knowledge of performance and proprioceptive inputs
D. Encourage her by telling her that practice makes perfect

Answer 40

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Knowledge of results can contribute to the development of motor skills, while visual input is key for developing coordination skills .

Question 41

Your patient presents with left shoulder pain after painting her dining room ceiling two days before. You determine that she has acute subdeltoid bursitis and therefore decide that the best intervention initially is to:
A. Use modalities to reduce pain and inflammation and instruct the patient in pendulum exercises

B. Initiate rotator cuff strengthening exercises

C. Begin correction of muscle imbalances

D. Order a TENs unit for the patient

Answer 41

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The first priority with this patient is to control the pain and inflammation.

Question 42

As a home health physicial therapist, you have been asked to treat a teenage girl with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Which of the following interventions would NOT be appropriate for this patient?
A. inspiratory muscle training

B. secretion removal techniques

C. exercises and activities designed to increase endurance

D. breathing techniques designed to decrease inspiratory volumes

Answer 42

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All would be appropriate except that the goal would be to increase inspiratory volumes

Question 43

You are treating a woman who was referred to your clinic with a diagnosis of stress incontinence and who reports loss of control with coughing or laughing. Which of the following interventions would be best for this patient?
A. functional electrical stimulation three times a week
B. behavioral modification techniques
C. Instruction on Kegel exercises to be performed several times a day
D. using a biofeedback unit one hour a week

Answer 43

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Stress incontinence involving loss of control during valsalva type activities responds well to a strengthening program to address weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.

Question 44

You have been consulted to treat a patient with a 4 cm stage III decubitus ulcer over the right heel You note a green/yellow, pungent exudate at the wound site and opt to use electrical stimulation. Your choice of polarity and electrode placement would be:
A. The cathode is placed in the wound
B. The anode is placed in the wound
C. The cathode is placed proximal to the wound
D. The cathode is placed proximal to the wound

Answer 44

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: This is the correct choice of polarity–cathode (negative pole), which is used to stimulate production of granulation tissue or to promote antimicrobial or anti-inflammatory effects, and the correct placement.

Question 45

You are designing an exercise program for cardiac rehabilitation. All of the following activities would be considered to be within the 3-6 MET levels except:

A. Walking at a moderate or brisk pace of 3 to 4.5 mph on a level surface inside or outside

B. Roller skating or in-line skating at a leisurely pace

C. Water aerobics

D. Mountain climbing, rock climbing, rapelling

Answer 45

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: This is the only description of activities that fit the 3-6 MET level.

Question 46

You are monitoring a cardiac patient during an exercise session. All of the following would be expected to occur physiologically with this patient at a given workload, except:

A. both HR and systolic/diastolic BP will increase

B. HR will be higher while systolic BP will be lower

C. Systolic and diastolic BP will both increase

D. The patient will tire the longer the exercise duration

Answer 46

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: As with HR, a linear increase in systolic pressure is expected with increasing levels of work.

Question 47

You are treating a patient who has a complete spinal cord injury at the level of C6. As part of your intervention you decide to instruct the family in exercises to maintain the patient’s passive range of motion. What should you instruct the family to do?

A. Focus on ranging only those muscles that assist with specific functional needs

B. Maintain the normal ROM of all of the patient’s muscles

C. Emphaize flexibilty of the low back extensors and hamstrings while maintaining normal ROM in the other areas

D. Avoid range of motion to certain areas to promote stability, e.g. shoulders

Answer 47

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to only range those joints where flexibility is needed and to allow other joints to become more stable.

Question 48

While performing an ultrasound treatment on a patient’s lateral epicondyle using an intensity of 1.5 W/cm², the patient reports an increase in symptoms in the treatment area. Based on this feedback, what be the most appropriate action?
A. Change the ultrasound frequency

B. Add more transmission gel and continue

C. Decrease the ultrasound intensity

D. Increase the size of the treatment area

Answer 48

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Of those listed, decreasing the ultrasound intensity is the only option that addresses the issue while not changing the purpose of the treatment.

Question 49

You are monitoring the exercise of a patient with a diagnosis of myocardial ischemia and coronary artery disease. This patient’s ECG changes would be expected to include:

A. bradycardia with ST segment depression

B. significant arrhythmias early on in exercise with a shortened QRS segment

C. tachycardia at a relatively low intensity of exercise and ST segment depression

D. tachycardia early on in exercise with ST segment elevation

Answer 49

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia occurs as the diseased heart works harder to pump blood. The ST segment connects the QRS complex and the T wave and can be depressed in ischemia.

Question 50

During your examination of an athlete, you noticed that the patient could not fully dorsiflex his right ankle while the right knee was positioned in full extension. When ankle dorsiflexion is tested with the knee flexed, the range of motion remains the same. Your evaluation and subsequent focus of treatment should be on which structure?

A. adaptive shortening of the right hamstrings
B. adaptive shortening of the right gastrocnemius
C. adaptive shortening of the right soleus
D. adaptive shortening of the right hip flexors

Answer 50

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Because the gastrocnemius is a two joint muscle, its effect on ankle dorsiflexion is altered with the introduction of knee flexion, whereas the length of the soleus muscle is not altered.

Question 51

You are treating a 16-year-old basketball player who sustained a Grade II inversion ankle sprain 16 days ago. Interventions for this phase of rehabilitation (early subacute) should include:

A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation (RICE) and crutch training

B. lower extremity functional strengthening specific to soccer

C. open-chain lower extremity exercises and contrast baths

D. the fitting of an orthosis, closed-chain lower extremity strengthening, cardiovascular, and proprioceptive exercis

Answer 51

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Given the stage of healing, the patient should be moving toward a functional progression while still protecting the injury site.

Question 52

You are instructing a patient diagnosed with lymphedema on how to self-administer intermittent compression to the right lower extremity at home. Your recommended treatment time for home administration would be:

A. Up to 8 hours/day

B. Up to 1 hour/day

C. Up to 3 hours/day

D. Up to 4 hours/day

Answer 52

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The recommended time for the application of intermittent compression is up to eight hours per d

Question 53

In an effort to help control pain during a debriding procedure on a patient, you decide to apply TENS during the procedure using the brief intense mode. What on the parameters you should set in terms of frequency and pulse width?

A. Frequency: 1-4 Hz; pulse width: 250+ µs

B. Frequency: 80 Hz; pulse width: 150 µs

C. Frequency: 10 Hz; pulse width: 150 µs

D. Frequency: 10 Hz; pulse width: 200-500 µs

Answer 53

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: These are the correct parameters for the brief intense mode.

Question 54

You have been treating a 16-year-old soccer player following an ACL repair. After 4 weeks of treatment the patient still complains of pain and instability even though he reports he reports being compliant with his home exercise program and wearing his brace. The original referral was for 7 to 8 weeks of physical therapy. Your next step should be to:

A. discuss your findings and refer the patient back to his referring physician

B. complete the full 8 weeks of treatment and document the patient’s lack of improvement

C. Discharge the patient

D. Continue treating the patient and give him more time to improve

Answer 54

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is making no progress despite indicating being compliant with the program. It would therefore be prudent to contact the physician and discuss your findings.

Question 55

During your examination of a patient with chronic shoulder pain, you observe excessive winging of the scapula during overhead motion. The overall focus of your intervention should be:

A. strengthening the rotator cuff muscles

B. strengthening of the rhomboids and middle trapezius

C. strengthening of middle and lower trapezius and the serratus anterior

D. Stretching the middle and upper trapezius muscles

Answer 55

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Winging of the scapula is indicative of a weak serratus anterior, and the middle and lower trapezius

Question 56

While examining a patient you notice color changes in the skin during position changes of the foot. Specifically, pallor develops during elevation of the leg and hyperemia develops when the limb is then positioned in the dependent position. Based on your findings, you decide to treat this patient for:

A. chronic venous insufficiency

B. arterial insufficiency

C. Raynaud’s phenomena

D. Buerger’s disease

Answer 56

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pallor developing with leg elevation which is then replaced with hyperemia when the leg is placed in the dependent position (rubor of dependency) is diagnostic for arterial insufficiency.

Question 57

One of your findings during the gait assessment of a patient is that he ambulates with a Trendelenburg gait. The best intervention to correct this problem is:

A. Strengthening the quadratus lumborum
B. Core strengthening program
C. Strengthening the gluteus maximus
D. Strengthening the gluteus medius

Answer 57

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The Trendelenburg sign is associated with weakness of the gluteus medius

Question 58

You are treating a patient who has limited right trunk rotation in sitting, which you have determined to be caused by left thoracic facet joint capsular tightness. Following a specific joint mobilization to the affected thoracic facet joint, you educate the patient in the following exercise to reinforce your mobilization and improve right rotation in sitting:

A. Lumbar extension combined with right trunk rotation

B. Lumbar flexion combined with right trunk rotation

C. Lumbar flexion combined with left trunk rotation

D. Lumbar extension combined with left trunk rotation

Answer 58

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The combined motion of lumber flexion and right trunk rotation stretches the left thoracic facet joints more than any of the other movements.

Question 59

You are treating a patient with a closing restriction at the right joint of C5 on C6. Which of the following describes the most specific technique you could use?

A. Position the patient’s head and neck in neutral, apply central P/A pressure on the spinous process of C5

B. Position the patient’s head and neck in flexion, and left rotation and apply central P/A pressure on the spinous process of C5

C. Position the patient’s head and neck in extension and right rotation, and apply P/A pressure on the facet joint of C6 in the direction of the plane of the C5-6 joint

D. Position the patient’s head and neck in extension and left rotation, and apply P/A pressure on the facet joint of C6 in the direction of the plane of the C5-6 joint

Answer 59

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Position the patient’s head and neck in the combined position of extension and right rotation places the closing restriction on the right side at its end range, thereby facilitating the mobilization technique

Question 60

You are treating a patient for generalized weakness following a prolonged period on bedrest. The patient is able to ambulate well on the level, but is having difficulty with ascending stairs. Although he is able to position his foot on the step, he is unable to climb the stairs without pulling hard on the railing. Which of the following muscles will need to be strengthened to help this patient climb the stairs?

A. Hip and knee extensors

B. Biceps and triceps of both upper extremities

C. Hip extensors and core muscles

D. Hip and knee flexors

Answer 60

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hip and knee extension strength is necessary for ascending stairs, which involves the patient’s ability to straighten the knee and then extend the hip.

Question 61

You are treating a patient with a transtibial amputation fitted with a PTB prosthesis who is learning to walk. During your gait analysis you notice that this patient is having difficulty maintaining prosthetic stability during the phase from heelstrike to footflat. Based on these findings which muscle group will you decide to strengthen?

A. Trunk extensors
B. Knee extensors
C. Knee flexors
D. Hip flexors

Answer 61

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The knee extensors are involved during the phrase from heel strike to foot flat.

Question 62

You are treating a patient diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder. You decide to use joint mobilizations as part of your intervention plan. Which of the following mobilization techniques would be the most effective to use to help restore shoulder abduction?

A. Posterior glide at 90 degrees of abduction
B. Inferior glide at 30 degrees of abduction
C. General distraction technique
D. Inferior glide at 55 degrees of abduction

Answer 62

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Shoulder abduction involves an inferior glide of the humerus on the glenoid and the joint is placed in its loose packed position.

Question 63

Your examination of a patient reporting right buttock and right posterior thigh pain reveals muscle spasms of the right piriformis muscle. You decide to use ultrasound to the right piriformis to help reduce the spasm. Which would be the most effective ultrasound setting in this case?

A. 3 MHz continuous at 1.5 W/cm²
B. 1 MHz continuous at 1.0 W/cm².
C. 1 MHz pulsed at 1.0 W/cm²
D. 3 MHz pulsed at 1.0 W/cm²

Answer 63

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Greater penetration is achieved with 1 MHz versus 3 MHz and with continuous versus pulsed

Question 64

You are treating a patient who has been diagnosed with acute synovitis of the right temporomandibular (TMJ) joint. Your early intervention should focus on:

A. gentle mobilizations to the right TMJ and patient education on posture, a soft food diet, and the application of ice at home

B. ROM exercises and grade III joint mobilizations to the TMJ

C. the issuing of a TENS unit to help control pain

D. application of an intraoral appliance

Answer 64

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is in the acute stage of healing, therefore the focus should be on controlling the pain and inflammatio

Question 65

You are treating a patient with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) of the right upper extremity. Which of the following interventions should be avoided with this patient?

A. Passive range of motion of the right upper extremity

B. Gradual exercising of the right upper extremity

C. Ice or heat applications

D. Joint protection techniques

Answer 65

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Ice or heat applications should be avoided in most cases because they can cause over stimulation of nerve endings, resulting in increased discomfort.

Question 66

You are trying to teach a 15-year-old patient to use crutches and non-weightbearing on the right, but the patient is having difficulty due to weakness of the upper quadrant muscles. Which of the following muscles would be the most important to strengthen?

A. deltoid, biceps, and brachialis

B. lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

C. upper trapezius, rhomboids and serratus anterior

D. deltoid, upper trapezius and levator scapulae

Answer 66

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: All of these muscles are involved when using crutches.

Question 67

Your patient has atrophy of the quadriceps of his right lower extremity due to a long-standing knee injury. You decide to use electrical stimulation to increase the patient’s quadriceps strength. Which of the following electrode placement and stimulation protocol should you use?

A. Small electrodes, widely spaced; 10 secs on 10 secs off.

B. Small electrodes, closely spaced; 10 secs on, 30 secs off.

C. Large electrodes, closely spaced; 10 secs on, 30 secs off.

D. Large electrodes, widely spaced; 10 secs on, 30 secs off.

Answer 67

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Larger electrodes widely spaced allow for deeper penetration. The 10 seconds on, 30 seconds off ratio is appropriate for muscle strengthening

Question 68

. A patient is referred to you for a course of iontophoresis for Achilles tendonitis. The patient arrives with the pain medication to be applied, which has a positive charge. The correct current type, polarity and active electrode placement is:

A. Low volt continuous current with the anode placed distal on the tendon.

B. Monophasic current with the cathode placed on the tendon.

C. Low level current with the anode placed on the tendon.

D. Biphasic current with the cathode placed proximal on the tendon.

Answer 68

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Like poles repel, therefore the positive pole (anode) should be used for any medication with a positive charge

Question 69

You are treating a patient who has a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis. As part of the patient’s education, you should recommend the following sleeping position

A. Sleep on your stomach

B. Sleep on your back

C. Sleep on your side with a pillow between your bent knees

D. The sleeping position shouldn’t be an issue

Answer 69

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sleeping on the side with the knees bent places the lumbar spine in flexion which helps widen the intervertebral foramen.

Question 70

You are about to discharge a patient with a C7 spinal cord injury. Which of the following would be challenging but obtainable goals for this patient?

A. Independent w/ all ADLs; may need adaptive aids for bowel care

B. Independent pressure relief

C. May have limited walking with bracing

D. Independent slide board transfer

Answer 70

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A patient with a C7 spinal cord injury should be able to achieve independence with all activities of daily living, but may need adaptive aids for bowel care

Question 71

To design an intervention for a patient with poor motor control of the lower extremities you must consider the correct sequence for the 4 stages of control, which are:

A. Mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill
B. Mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill
C. Stability, controlled stability, mobility, skill
D. Skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility

Answer 71

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This sequence is based on Rood’s concept of levels of control throughout activities

Question 72

When considering to use high-voltage or direct current, all of the following are true statements about high-voltage, except

A. It can be used to stimulate peripheral nerves
B. It is in effective in stimulating the denervated tissues
C. It is an effective current for iontophoresis
D. It effects superficial and deep tissues

Answer 72

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: High voltage current is not effective for use with iontophoresis

Question 73

You are setting up a patient for a specific type of electrical stimulation where the intensity is produced in a burst mode that has a 50 percent duty cycle, with a pulse width range of 50-200 µs, and an interburst interval of 10 ms. What type of electrical stimulation are you planning to use? A. TENS B. Russian C. Hi-volt D. FES

Answer 73

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These are the parameters for Russian stimulation

Question 74

You are planning to use the acupuncture mode of a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation unit to help control a patient’s low back pain. Which of the following parameters on the unit produce this type of stimulation?

A. Low intensity, duration of 50 µsec, and a frequency of 60 Hz
B. High intensity, duration of 150 µsec, and a frequency of 2 Hz
C. Low intensity, duration of 120 µsec, and a frequency of 80 Hz
D. High intensity, duration of 120 µsec, and a frequency of 100 Hz

Answer 74

Correct Answer: B Rationale: These are the parameters for the acupuncture mode of a TENS unit.

Question 75

A patient has been referred to your facility for aquatic therapy. Which of the following information derived from the patient would be considered a contraindication to aquatic therapy?

A. chronic pain
B. cerebral palsy
C. multiple sclerosis
D. urinary tract infection

Answer 75

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A urinary tract infection would be a contraindication for aquatic therapy due to the likelihood of contamination

Question 76

A patient you are treating requires an ambulation device to help with gait. Which of the following assistive devices provides the least stability?

A. Lofstrand crutches
B. walker
C. wheel walker
D. axillary crutches

Answer 76

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Of the assistive devices listed, Lofstrand crutches offer the least amount of stability

Question 77

While treating a patient with a T4 spinal cord injury, the patient begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia while exercising in the supine position. What would be the best course of immediate action?
A. Check the patient’s catheter for blockage
B. Sit the patient up
C. elevate the patient’s legs
D. Monitor the patient’s blood pressure

Answer 77

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia produces a sympathetic response resulting in a rise in blood pressure. Sitting may cause a pooling of blood in the lower extremities thereby lowering blood pressure.

In other BR questions about autonomic dysreflexia, there’s no mention if patient being in supine kaya check catheter ang best answer pag ganun.

Question 78

Which of the following initial goals would be the least important for a patient who is being treated for extensive full thickness burns

A. A reduction in the risk of infection and complications
B. A reduction in the risk of secondary impairments
C. Enhancement of wound and soft tissue healing
D. Achievement of good to normal strength

Answer 78

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Compared to the other goals, the achievement of good to normal strength is not a priority.

Question 79

You are designing an ulcer prevention program for a patient who spends a lot of time in the seated position. Which of the following bony prominences would be the major focus of your intervention?

A. Vertebral spinous processes
B. Ischial tuberosities
C. Spines of the scapulae
D. Sacrum

Answer 79

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The sacrum is the most vulnerable bony prominence for skin breakdown while in a seated position.

Question 80

You are assiting a patient with bed to chair transfers. In order to complete the task you have to provide the patient with 50% assist. How would you document this level of assist?

A. Minimal assist
B. Moderate assist
C. Contact guard
D. Maximal assist

Answer 80

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This is the definition of a moderate assist.

Question 81

All of the following are considerations when treating a patient with a transfemoral amputation, except:

A. Balance and stability
B. Difficulty rising from a seated position
C. Prosthetic comfort while sitting
D. prevent hip flexion, adduction and internal rotation contractures

Answer 81

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to prevent hip flexion, abduction and external rotation contractures.

Question 82

You have been asked to help design a new local business so that it meets ADA requirements. According to the ADA, what are the requirments for doorway dimensions?

A. Minimum width of 32 inches, maximum depth of 24 inches

B. Minimum width of 20 inches, maximum depth of 36 inches

C. Minimum width of 36 inches, maximum depth of 28 inches

D. Minimum width of 34 inches, maximum depth of 30 inches

Answer 82

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: These are the ADA requirements for doorway dimensions

Question 83

You have just finished treating a patient with a small, purulent wound located on her right malleolus using whirlpool irrigation. Disinfection of the whirlpool can best be achieved with:

A. Sterile water
B. Povidone-iodine
C. Epsom salts
D. Bleach

Answer 83

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Povidone-iodineis a water-soluble chemical that works through disruption of the pathogen cell walls

Question 84

A patient, who has a family history of coronary artery disease, is referred to you to begin an exercise program to improve her cardiac health. Which of the following would be the most accurate measure of exercise intensity to monitor during the first exercise session?

A. MET levels
B. Blood pressure
C. Heart rate
D. Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

Answer 84

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Of the measures listed, the monitoring of heart rate would be the most important in this patient.

Question 85

A concerned mother brings her 2 month-old infant to be examined at Early Intervention because she has noticed that, although the infant had been taking steps in supported standing at two weeks, the infant appears unable to do the same now. You should:

A. Refer the mother and her infant to a pediatric neurologist.
B. Express your concerns and perform a full developmental exam
C. explain that this is normal and that she should not be concerned
D. Recommend a CT scan of the infant’s brain

Answer 85

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: This is a normal developmental finding so the parent should be reassured.

Question 86

You are progressing a patient through an exercise program to restore normal function of the shoulder. The best PNF diagonal pattern to improve function of the shoulder is:

A. D1 flexion
B. D2 flexion
C. D1 extension
D. D2 extension

Answer 86

Correct Answer: B R

ationale: D2 flexion involves shoulder flexion-abduction-external rotation – all key movements of the shoulder

Question 87

You are instructing a patient on how to use a reciprocating gait orthosis (RGO) with a walker. What is the correct sequence?

A. She should shift her weight onto her walker and one leg, extend the upper trunk, and swing her other leg through

B. She should shift her weight onto her walker, extend the upper trunk, and swing both legs forward together to approach the walker

C. She should shift her weight onto one leg, and swing her other leg through while leaning on the walker

D. You should not be teaching a patient to use a reciprocating gait orthosis with a walker

Answer 87

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: As its name suggests, the RGO is designed to permit a reciprocal gait when accompanied with a weight shift

Question 88

You are treating a patient with a diagnosis of TMJ dysfunction. The patient is unaware when she is clenching her jaw during periods of stress. You decide to use biofeedback to help teach the patient when she is clenching her teeth. Initially, the biofeedback protocol should consist of:

A. low detection sensitivity with recording electrodes placed closely together.

B. high detection sensitivity with recording electrodes placed closely together.

C. low detection sensitivity with recording electrodes placed far apart.

D. high detection sensitivity with recording electrodes placed far apart.

Answer 88

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The electrodes are placed closely together and the sensitivity of the biofeedback unit is set at a low sensitivity setting and adjusted so that the patient can perform the repetitions at a ratio of two thirds of the maximal muscle contraction.

Question 89

You are treating a 25-year-old female athlete with a diagnosis of patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the patient’s intervention you decide to use both open and closed kinetic chain exercises. Which of the following exercises places the most stress on the patellofemoral joint?

A. Closed kinetic chain exercises involving 90 degrees of knee flexion

B. Open kinetic chain exercises performed between 25 and 90 degrees of knee flexion

C. Open kinetic chain exercises performed between 120 and 90 degrees of knee flexion

D. Closed kinetic chain exercises involving greater than 120 degrees of knee flexion

Answer 89

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Closed kinetic chain exercises involving greater than 120° of knee flexion place a very significant amount of force through the patellofemoral joint.

Question 90

All of the following are complications that the physical therapist must take into consideration when designing an intervention plan for a patient with a diagnosis of spina bifida, except:

A. Neurogenic bowel and bladder
B. Myelodysplasia
C. Arnold-Chiari deformity
D. All are associated complications of spina bifida

Answer 90

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All are associated complications

Question 91

All of the following would be appropriate goals when treating a patient diagnosed with Down syndrome, except:

A. Minimizing gross motor delay
B. Encouraging oral motor function
C. Management of obesity through exercise
D. Management of hypertonia

Answer 91

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with Down syndrome have difficulties with hypotonia, not hypertonia

Question 92

All of the following would be appropriate interventions for a patient diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, except:

A. Customized wheelchair to help maintain alignment of the spine and pelvis

B. Adaptive devices, such as a wheelchair table to maximize upper extremity mobility

C. Strengthening of the shoulder depressors and biceps to help with transfers

D. Brace prescription, such as ankle-foot orthoses and knee-ankle-foot orthoses, to prolong the period of ambulation and delay wheelchair dependency

Answer 92

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Should include strengthening of triceps, not biceps, to help with transfers.

Question 93

All of the following are appropriate goals when prescribing strengthening exercises for a patient diagnosed with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, except:

A. avoiding muscle substitutions
B. Minimizing atrophy
C. Minimizing deformity
D. Minimizing stability

Answer 93

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Strengthening exercises in this patient population are designed to decrease instability.

Question 94

All of the following are appropriate goals when prescribing exercises for a patient diagnosed with spinal muscular atrophy (SMA), except:

A. Prevent contractures
B. Prevent deformity
C. Decrease spasticity
D. Prevent secondary complications such as scoliosis

Answer 94

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: SMA is a disease involving degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, and will therefore not manifest with spasticity.

Question 95

All of the following are absolute contraindications for exercise in the adult population, except:

A. Severe coronary artery disease with unstable angina pectoris
B. Uncontrolled hypertension
C. Acute thrombophlebitis
D. Patients older than 85 years old

Answer 95

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Increasing age is not a contraindication for exercise.

Question 96

All of the following would be considered good advice to give to a patient diagnosed with hypertension, except:

A. Lose weight if overweight
B. Maintain adequate intake of dietary potassium
C. Stop smoking
D. Reduce sodium intake to no more than 200 mmol/d

Answer 96

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Recommendation is no more than 100 mmol/d for sodium.

Question 97

When designing an intervention plan for a patient diagnosed with a CVA, all of the following are primary impairments associated with stroke, except:

A. Visual changes, including neglect and visual field deficits
B. Changes in emotional status
C. Pain
D. All are primary impairments associated with stroke

Answer 97

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: These are all primary impairments associated with the stroke

Question 98

You are teaching a 20-year-old patient diagnosed with L3 paraplegia how to ambulate using an adaptive device. What type of equipment would be the most appropriate for this patient?

A. bilateral hip-knee-ankle-foot orthoses and crutches B. bilateral knee-ankle-foot orthoses and crutches
C. bilateral ankle-foot orthoses and crutches
D. You should not be teaching a patient with L3 paraplegia to ambulate

Answer 98

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bilateral knee and ankle foot orthoses and crutches would be appropriate for this level of spinal cord injury.

Question 99

You are treating a patient who is recovering from a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus, resulting in atrophy of the deltoid muscle. Which nerve was likely damaged by the fracture?

A. Axillary nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Dorsal scapular nerve
D. Long thoracic nerve

Answer 99

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The accessory nerve is commonly injured with a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus

Question 100

You are treating a patient who sustained an injury to the area of the wrist known as the anatomical snuff-box. Which of the following structures DO NOT pass through the snuff-box?

A. Extensor pollicis longus
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor pollicis brevis
D. Abductor pollicis longus

Answer 100

Correct Answer: B