DSM 5 Test C

Question 1

4. Which of the following would most likely reduce subsequent hospitalizations for patients with schizophrenia?
5. Removal of the patient from the family and placement in a structured environment.
6. Employment for the patient.
7. Improvement in communication within the family.
8. Ongoing support for family members.

Answer 1

Correct Answer: 3. Improvement in communication within the family.

Feedback: This question is referring to the phenomenon of expressed emotion (EE) and its relationship to mental illness. Research has found that a high level of EE in families tends to result in greater incidence of relapse in cases of schizophrenia. EE is manifested by a critical, hostile and emotionally over-involved communication style between family members. While it may seem that removal from such a family (Response 1) might be helpful, it would be better to help family members develop a more supportive communication style so the patient can benefit from the positive aspects of family involvement. While ongoing support for family members (Response 4) is generally recommended when patients suffer from chronic mental illness, family support, in and of itself does not reduce relapse rate. Employment (Response 2) is a very good predictor of prognosis (outcome), yet employment does not reduce further hospitalizations.

Question 2

7. Which of the following theories is an expansion of Maslow's work?

1. ERG theory.

2. Two-Factor theory. 

3. Acquired needs theory. 

4. VIE theory.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: 2. Two-Factor theory.

Feedback: Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory is an extension of Maslow’s work, and divides Maslow’s five needs into upper level needs (motivators) and lower level needs (hygiene factors). Although ERG theory (Response 1) is also based on Maslow’s theory, it is not really an expansion, but rather a modification. For example, ERG theory includes three needs (existence, relatedness and growth), which are not arranged hierarchically. The theory includes the notion of frustration-regression, and also posits that satisfying a need can make the need even stronger. Acquired needs theory (Response 3) is based on McClelland’s experiments with the TAT, and includes three work-related needs: nAch, nAff, and nPow. Vroom’s VIE theory (Response 4) asserts that people will behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy of success and rewards.

Question 3

10. Which of the following is a criterion-based score?

1. Percentile.

2. Percentage. 

3. Standard score.

4. IQ score.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: 2. Percentage.

Feedback: A criterion-based or criterion-referenced score describes how a person did in relationship to some external criterion. Percentage correct tells us exactly how well the person did on the test, or how much of the criterion was mastered. By contrast, norm-referenced scores only give us information on how a person did relative to other test takers; they say nothing about how much of the criterion was mastered. Percentile ranks (Response 1), standard scores (Response 3) and IQ scores (Response 4) are all norm-referenced scores.

Question 4

16. Jane believes that her car accident was the other driver's fault, but blames David's car accident on his driving style. This is an example of:

1. a self-serving bias. ?

2. an actor-observer bias. 

3. the fundamental attribution error.

4. self-perception theory.

Answer 4

Correct Answer: 2. an actor-observer bias.

Feedback: According to the actor-observer bias, when faced with a negative outcome, people attribute their own actions to situational factors but attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors. In this question, Jane attributes her car accident to a situational factor (the other driver hitting her), but attributes David’s accident to a dispositional factor (David’s own driving style). The self-serving bias (Response 1) occurs when one attributes one’s own successes to dispositional factors, while attributing one’s own failures to situational factors. The fundamental attribution error (Response 3) refers to a bias toward attributing the behavior of others to dispositional causes, while underestimating the role of situational variables. This bias does not address attributions made about the self. Self-perception theory (Response 4) is a theory about attitudes, and states that people infer their attitudes from watching their own behavior.

Question 5

28. Research on altruism in children has found that all of the following child-rearing practices contribute to the development of altruism in children except:
29. encouragement of autonomy.
30. assignment of responsibility.
31. modeling of positive behaviors.
32. inductive discipline.

Answer 5

Correct Answer: 1. encouragement of autonomy. Feedback: Research on altruism in children has found that parental child-rearing practices that include assignment of responsibility, modeling of positive behaviors, and inductive discipline (Responses 2, 3, and 4), contribute to the development of altruism. Inductive discipline involves the parent calling the child’s attention to the negative consequences for others of the child’s bad behavior, mobilizing in the child both empathy for others as well as recognition of responsibility for his/her own actions. Encouragement of autonomy (Response 1) has not been found to contribute to the development of altruism.

Question 6

30. Which of the following demographics are most highly correlated with suicide?
31. White, male, middle SES.
32. Minority, male, low SES.
33. White, male, low SES.
34. White, female, low SES.

Answer 6

Correct Answer: 1. White, male, middle SES.

Feedback: Individuals with middle to high socioeconomic status (SES) are more likely to commit suicide than those who are low SES. Also, white males are more likely to commit suicide than minorities or females.

Question 7

31. Damage to the parietal lobe would most likely result in problems with:
32. vision.
33. hearing.
34. touch.
35. executive functions.

Answer 7

Correct Answer: 3. touch.

Feedback: The parietal lobes are involved with somatosensory processing, including light touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. The primary visual cortex (Response 1) is in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex (Response 2) is in the temporal lobe. Executive functions (Response 4) such as judgment and planning are associated with the frontal lobes.

Question 8

35. Which of the following is most likely to be the correlation of the IQ scores of two sisters?
36. .10.
37. .25.
38. .50.
39. .75.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: 3. .50.

Feedback: The correlation of IQ scores for siblings reared together is about .50. For siblings reared apart, the correlation drops to approximately .25 (Response 2). The correlation for identical twins is about .75 (Response 4). The correlation of IQ scores of parent and child is between .40 and .45.

Question 9

37. Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to:
38. reduce ratee-based sources of error.
39. reduce the halo effect.
40. improve the accuracy of performance ratings.
41. eliminate unfair discrimination.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: 3. improve the accuracy of performance ratings.

Feedback: Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to improve the accuracy of performance ratings. FOR training provides raters with common performance standards (references) to help raters become clear on what constitutes “good” and “bad” behavior. This type of training also tends to improve agreement among raters. Such training may in fact reduce ratee-based sources of error (Response 1), such as personal biases and the halo effect (Response 2); it may also decrease the effect of biases that lead to unfair discrimination (Response 4), but the goal of FOR training is broader than the elimination of any one specific source of error.

Question 10

38. An employee is referred to you through an EAP program by his supervisor. Two weeks later the supervisor asks you whether that employee has made an appointment with you, and if so, what was discussed. You should:
39. answer the question about attendance but not about session content.
40. answer the question about attendance and session content.
41. not answer any questions because the employee is entitled to a confidential relationship.
42. answer questions only if the employee’s job is dependent on attending the sessions.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: 1. answer the question about attendance but not about session content.

Feedback: Employees are often under the false impression that EAP therapy relationships are fully confidential. A supervisor who may have even casually suggested an employee contact an EAP program is entitled to know what visits were made. The supervisor, however, is not entitled to know the content of such visits.

Question 11

39. A physician would be likely to take the greatest care in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant to someone with:
40. schizophrenia.
41. panic disorder.
42. chronic pain.
43. bipolar disorder.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: 4. bipolar disorder.

Feedback: Both panic disorder (Response 2) and chronic pain problems (Response 3) may be treated prophylactically with tricyclic antidepressants. There is little concern in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant to someone who has schizophrenia (Response 1) and is depressed. The most significant concern in prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant is for someone who has bipolar disorder, because a tricyclic can potentially trigger a manic episode. There is need for caution with the SSRIs and MAOIs as well; these antidepressants can also potentially trigger a manic episode in someone with bipolar disorder.

Question 12

41. In which of the following situations would a researcher most likely decide to use an ANCOVA (Analysis of Covariance)?
42. When in designing a study an extraneous variable is anticipated.
43. When unexpected differences are uncovered among treatment groups with regard to an extraneous variable.
44. To remove the effects of an extraneous variable in the correlation of two continuous variables.
45. To transform a moderator variable into another IV.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: 2. When unexpected differences are uncovered among treatment groups with regard to an extraneous variable.

Feedback: The ANCOVA is similar to the analysis of variance (ANOVA), with an additional element of co-varying out an extraneous variable, a variable that correlates with the outcome measure. An ANCOVA is typically most appropriate only when the extraneous variable is unanticipated. If the variable is anticipated (Response 1), it should be accounted for directly in the research design, usually through a randomized block ANOVA. A randomized block ANOVA transforms an extraneous variable, one that moderates the relationship between the IV and DV, into another IV to be studied (Response 4). In this way, interaction effects can also be studied and more information is yielded than in an ANCOVA. You might have been able to eliminate Response 3 by recognizing that the correlation of two continuous variables deals with correlation coefficients, not variations of the ANOVA, which are tests of difference. Removing the effects of an extraneous variable in a correlation (Response 3) is the definition of partial correlation.

Question 13

44. According to psychoanalytic theory, mania:
45. is a defense against depression. ???
46. involves an eruption of id impulses into the ego.
47. involves a collapse of the superego.
48. is a regression from the paranoid-schizoid position to the depressive position.

Answer 13

Correct Answer: 1. is a defense against depression.

Feedback: To answer this question correctly, you would either need to be familiar with psychoanalytic theory, or you might be able to guess by thinking about your own clinical experience. Manic or hypomanic behavior can mask an underlying depression. An eruption of id impulses into the ego (Response 2) would result in anxiety and an attempt at bolstering defense mechanisms. Response 4 refers to Melanie Klein’s work but actually reverses the sequence of positions. Klein posited that the paranoid-schizoid position comes first and is followed by the depressive position.

Question 14

46. The brain wave that is most prominent as you are taking this practice test is:
47. alpha.
48. beta.
49. delta.
50. theta.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: 2. beta.

Feedback: Beta waves are present during alert activity (and we hope you’re alert as you take this practice test!). Alpha waves (Response 1) occur when a person closes his eyes and relaxes. Delta waves (Response 3) occur during deep sleep (stages 3 and 4). As the individual drifts into Stage 1 sleep, there is a predominance of theta waves (Response 4).

Question 15

49. Which of the following statements best represents George Kelly’s Personal Construct Theory?
50. People experience the world as unified meaningful wholes, not as affective or cognitive fragments.
51. People tend to make dispositional explanations for the behavior of others, while they make situational explanations for their own behavior.
52. People experience the world based on their anticipation of future events, which in turn is based on their past experience.
53. People are motivated to change their thinking when they experience awareness of inconsistency among their constructs.

Answer 15

Correct Answer: 3. People experience the world based on their anticipation of future events, which in turn is based on their past experience.

Feedback: George Kelly is known for describing ordinary people as scientists, who are constantly forming, testing, and revising hypotheses about the world around them. His Personal Construct Theory is based on the fundamental postulate that “a person’s processes are psychologically channelized by the ways in which he anticipates events,” meaning that we perceive the world according to what we expect to see. According to Kelly, these expectations are based on our past experiences. As our experiences change, we revise our expectations. Gestalt theory posited that people experience the world in whole, not affective or cognitive fragments (Response 1). The tendency to attribute negative outcomes to dispositional factors in others, while attributing these same negative outcomes to situational factors in ourselves, defines the actor-observer bias (Response 2). Cognitive Dissonance theory posits that people change their attitudes to match their behavior because they experience dissonance when they become aware of inconsistencies among their cognitions (Response 4).

Question 16

55. The current trend in organizations is toward:
56. hierarchical organizational structure and increasing centralization.
57. multidimensional organizational structure and increasing centralization.
58. hierarchical organizational structure and decreasing centralization.
59. multidimensional organizational structure and decreasing centralization.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: 4. multidimensional organizational structure and decreasing centralization.

Feedback: Centralized communication networks (Responses 1 and 2) are like a wheel or a chain, with one person in the middle who gets all the information. In decentralized communication networks, all members communicate with one another. Overall, the management trend is toward more decentralization. There are four common organizational structures: 1) traditional, also known as hierarchical, is the typical bureaucracy; 2) project, is centered on specific products or services; 3) team, is centered on work teams or groups that report to upper level managers; and 4) multidimensional, which involves more than one type of structure (e.g., both traditional and team). Overall, the trend is away from traditional organizational structure and toward broadly sharing authority and decision-making power.

Question 17

58. In the DSM-5, personality disorders:
59. are coded on Axis II, while other mental disorders are coded on Axis I.
60. are diagnosed based on a categorical model.
61. are diagnosed based on a dimensional model.
62. are not diagnosed in children.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: 2. are diagnosed based on a categorical model.

Feedback: The DSM-5 moved to a nonaxial documentation of diagnosis, eliminating Axis I – Axis V (ruling out Response 1). The diagnostic approach of the DSM-5 represents a categorical perspective (Response 2, correct answer); as applied to personality disorders that would imply that personality disorders are qualitatively distinct clinical syndromes. In Section III of the DSM-5, emerging measures and models, an alternative DSM-5 model for personality disorders based on a dimensional model is described (Response 3). The DSM-5 notes that personality disorders may be diagnosed in children and adolescents (Response 4), with the exception of antisocial personality disorder which cannot be diagnosed in individuals younger than age 18.

Question 18

59. In a chi-square test, measuring subjects twice (pre-intervention and post-intervention) results in a violation of:
60. homoscedasticity.
61. normality.
62. random assignment.
63. independence.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: 4. independence.

Feedback: The chi-square test requires independence of observations, thus you cannot measure subjects twice or use any kind of repeated measures. Because the chi square test is non-parametric, it does not require normality (Response 2) or homoscedasticity (Response 1). Random assignment (Response 3) is not a concern here. Random assignment is the hallmark of true experimental research; the lack of random assignment in a quasi-experimental design can pose a threat to internal validity.

Question 19

60. For many people, mid-life is characterized by:
61. an increasing preoccupation with death.
62. a shift in perspective from “time since birth” to “time until death.”
63. a crisis in identity and values.
64. no significant changes for people who are generally happy.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: 2. a shift in perspective from “time since birth” to “time until death.”

Feedback: This question refers to Levinson’s theory expressed in his book Seasons of a Man’s Life. According to this theory, mid-life is characterized by an awareness of one’s mortality, and the time that one has left to live. This is different from a preoccupation with death itself (Response 1), which a person of any age could experience. A crisis in identity and values may occur in mid-life, though this could also occur at another age as well (e.g., a crisis over one’s sexual identity). Response 4 is incorrect; even happy people typically have concerns about getting older.

Question 20

66. The case of Larry P. v. Riles most directly dealt with:
67. racial and cultural biases in IQ testing for job candidates.
68. racial and cultural biases in IQ testing for school children.
69. equal educational opportunities for all children.
70. hospital privileges for psychologists.

Answer 20

Correct Answer: 2. racial and cultural biases in IQ testing for school children.

Feedback: Larry P. v. Riles argued that use of IQ tests resulted in the placement of a disproportionate amount of minority students in classes for the educable mentally retarded (EMR). Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971) dealt with biases in testing in industry (Response 1). Equal educational opportunities (Response 3) were the focus of Brown v. Board of Education (1954). Hospital privileges for psychologists in California resulted from CAPP v. Rank (1990).

Question 21

69. Infant tests of intelligence are:
70. good predictors of intelligence in later years.
71. poor predictors of intelligence in later years.
72. good predictors of intelligence in later years for high scorers.
73. good predictors of intelligence in later years for low scorers.

Answer 21

Correct Answer: 4. good predictors of intelligence in later years for low scorers.

Feedback: Infant intelligence tests are generally not reliable predictors of intelligence in later years, primarily due to the fact that they assess areas (e.g. sensorimotor functioning) that are not covered in child or adult intelligence tests. However, they are good predictors of intelligence in later years for those who are low scorers. This finding makes intuitive sense, in that if an infant has not mastered tasks and functions appropriate for his age, it is unlikely that he or she will perform well in intelligence tests in later years.

Question 22

70. Which of the following statements best summarizes a psychologist’s responsibility when using animals in research?
71. Psychologists ensure the humane treatment of animals and not subject them to pain or death.
72. Psychologists may only use animals in research when alternative methods are unavailable and it is justified by the prospective value of the research.
73. Psychologists must ensure the humane treatment of animals and only subject them to pain or death if alternative methods are unavailable and it is justified by the prospective value of the research.
74. Psychologists must make reasonable efforts to minimize the pain and discomfort of animals.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: 3. Psychologists must ensure the humane treatment of animals and only subject them to pain or death if alternative methods are unavailable and it is justified by the prospective value of the research.

Feedback: Section 8.09 of the APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) describes several responsibilities of psychologists when using animals in research. Psychologists must ensure than animals are treated humanely. Animals may be subjected to pain, stress and even death (ruling out Response 1) but only under two conditions: 1) alternative methods are not available; and 2) the pain is justified by the prospective value of the research. These conditions are not the requirements for using animals in general (ruling out Response 2). It is true that reasonable efforts must be made to minimize the pain and discomfort of animals (Response 4), however, this requirement is not the best summary of a psychologist’s overall responsibilities.

Question 23

73. Cuento therapy involves incorporation of:
74. Spanish language folktales.
75. anatomically correct dolls with children who are incest survivors.
76. curanderos (folk healers).
77. music and movement into therapy.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: 1. Spanish language folktales.

Feedback: What?! You haven’t heard of Cuento therapy? You may have been able to narrow down the Responses to 1 and 3 because “Cuento” sounds Spanish. Developed by Malgady, Rogler and Costantino (1990), and originally studied with Puerto Rican clients, Cuento therapy use Spanish-language folktales in which positive models are presented to children and adolescents to help them address problem areas such as anxiety, low self-esteem, acculturative stress, and acting out.

Question 24

74. A key principle underlying Montessori schools is that:
75. cognitive development is enhanced by social learning and development.
76. cognitive development is enhanced by exposure to sensory-motor stimuli.
77. children should not be pushed to excel, that they will perform best without pressure.
78. learning will be optimized if children are grouped with others of varying age and ability levels.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: 2. cognitive development is enhanced by exposure to sensory-motor stimuli.

Feedback: Although all of the responses to this question describe elements of Montessori schooling, the key principle underlying Montessori schools is that maximum learning comes from manipulation of materials (sensory-motor stimuli), rather than through traditional classroom instruction and rote learning. Children in Montessori schools are grouped with peers of different ages and abilities (e.g., 3 to 5 year-olds, 6 to 9 year-olds, and 10 and up), because it is believed that the older children can facilitate learning in the younger ones. Thus, over the years of their schooling children have the experience of being the youngest and later of being the oldest. Children are not pushed to excel, but rather are encouraged to perform at their potential, with learning goals that are individually tailored.

Question 25

75. According to APA’s 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines, in the absence of superseding requirements, psychologists may:
76. retain a full set of records for three years, and a partial set of records for an additional 12 years.
77. retain a full set of records on all patients for seven years after the last date of service delivery.
78. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for either seven years after the last date of service or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later.
79. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for seven years after the minor reaches the age of majority.

Answer 25

Correct Answer: 3. retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors retain a full set of records for either seven years after the last date of service or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later.

Feedback: APA’s 2007 Record Keeping Guidelines note that in the absence of superseding guidelines (e.g., state law) psychologists may retain a full set of records for adults for seven years after the last date of service delivery, and for minors psychologist may retain a full set of records for either seven years or three years after the minor reaches the age of majority whichever is later.

Question 26

76. Biofeedback involves which of the following?
77. Operant conditioning and the sympathetic nervous system.
78. Operant conditioning and the parasympathetic nervous system.
79. Classical conditioning and the sympathetic nervous system.
80. Classical conditioning and the parasympathetic nervous system.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: 1. Operant conditioning and the sympathetic nervous system.

Feedback: In biofeedback, the patient is given feedback about the status of certain biological functions, and is taught to regulate them through either visual or auditory reinforcement. In this sense, biofeedback involves operant conditioning of biological functions. Furthermore, in biofeedback, the patient regulates involuntary functions of the sympathetic branch of the ANS, with the goal of decreasing sympathetic arousal.

Question 27

79. A fear is classically conditioned to a previously neutral stimulus. When the conditioned stimulus is paired with a second neutral stimulus, the person will experience:
80. more fear as compared with both the unconditioned stimulus and the first neutral stimulus.
81. less fear as compared with both the unconditioned stimulus and the first neutral stimulus.
82. less fear as compared with the unconditioned stimulus and more fear as compared with the first neutral stimulus.
83. no fear, since this is backward conditioning.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: 2. less fear as compared with both the unconditioned stimulus and the first neutral stimulus.

Feedback: This scenario describes higher-order conditioning. In general, a conditioned response is of less intensity and magnitude than an unconditioned response. Furthermore, a higher-order conditioned response is of even less magnitude than the original conditioned response. This scenario does not describe backward conditioning, which involves presenting a US first, followed by the neutral stimulus (Response 4).

Question 28

80. According to nigrescence models, the deracinated person is most likely to be in which of the following stages?
81. Preencounter.
82. Encounter.
83. Immersion-emersion.
84. Internalization.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: 1. Preencounter.

Feedback: A person is thought to be deracinated (without race) when he views being Black as an obstacle, and strongly prefers the dominant culture’s values. These characteristics are most closely associated with the first stage of Cross’s model, preencounter (called conformity in other models). Encounter (also known as dissonance) is the second stage and involves conflict between old self-deprecating attitudes and newly emerging appreciating attitudes (Response 2). In immersion-emersion, (also called resistance and immersion), there is generally a strong identification with the minority group, and rejection of the values of the dominant culture (Response 3). In the final stage of internalization (also called integrative awareness), there is an acceptance and valuing of the self as well as the dominant culture (Response 4).

Question 29

85. What is the basis of Edgar Schein’s career model?
86. Career Anchors.
87. Career Rainbow.
88. Technical/Functional Competence.
89. Personality-Job Fit.

Answer 29

Correct Answer: 1. Career Anchors.

Feedback: Schein developed a theory of Career Anchors according to which a person’s self-concept acts as an anchor, or stabilizing force, determining what future occupational decisions will be made. His research showed that people’s self-concepts or “career anchors” revolved around one of eight categories: autonomy/independence, security/stability, technical/functional competence (Response 3), general managerial competence, entrepreneurial creativity, service/dedication to a cause, pure challenge, and lifestyle. Donald Super’s theory revolves around the Career Rainbow (Response 2). John Holland developed a theory of Personality-Job Fit (Response 4).

Question 30

86. The greatest benefit to the company from implementing flextime is:
87. improved physical and mental health of employees.
88. decreased tardiness and absenteeism.
89. increased morale and quality of work.
90. increased morale and quantity of work.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: 2. decreased tardiness and absenteeism.

Feedback: The findings on the benefits of flextime are mixed. While some say it increases morale and productivity, it has most consistently been associated with decreased tardiness and absenteeism.

Question 31

87. Which of the following situations does not constitute an exception to confidentiality?
88. Court-ordered treatment.
89. Court-appointed evaluation.
90. Reporting child abuse.
91. Involuntarily hospitalizing a suicidal patient.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: 1. Court-ordered treatment.

Feedback: In court-ordered treatment, the patient is entitled to a confidential relationship, even though referred by the court. The therapist must obtain a signed release of information in order to inform the court of any aspects of the patient’s treatment. All three other responses involve exceptions to confidentiality. The results of a court-appointed evaluation (Response 2) are disclosed to the court without a release of information from the patient. Although the patient doesn’t have to consent to the release of information, he must be informed that the results will be shared. Confidentiality may be breached in order to make a child abuse report (Response 3), and it is also frequently breached in order to initiate an involuntary hospitalization.

Question 32

89. A teaching assistant is asked to observe a hyperactive student’s on-task behavior. She would most likely be using:
90. interval recording.
91. content sampling.
92. event recording.
93. purposive sampling.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: 1. interval recording.

Feedback: Interval recording is used when a behavior is not discrete and has no clear beginning or end, because in such instances it is not possible to measure the number of times a child is on-task. Instead, the time period of observation is divided into smaller intervals, for example an hour is divided into twelve five-minute intervals. There are two methods of interval sampling: either the observer notes whether the behavior was present at the moment the interval ends (momentary time sampling), or the observer notes whether the behavior was present for the entire duration of the interval (whole-interval sampling). Event recording (Response 3), also called frequency recording, is used for discrete, easily measured behaviors such as a child making her bed. In event recording, the observer simply records the number of times the target behavior occurs. Content sampling (Response 2) is a source of error when assessing the reliability of a test, in particular, alternate forms reliability and split-half reliability. Purposive sampling (Response 4) is a sampling procedure for selecting subjects. It involves selecting a particular sample because it is believed to be representative of the population (e.g., test marketing a new product in Los Angeles because it is believed that how Angelinos view the product will be similar to how people in the rest of the country will view the product).

Question 33

90. A traditional neuroleptic would best treat:
91. avolition.
92. bizarre delusions.
93. thought disorder.
94. poverty of speech.

Answer 33

Correct Answer: 2. bizarre delusions.

Feedback: Traditional neuroleptics (antipsychotics), such as Haldol and Thorazine, are especially good at treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized thinking. They are not very good at treating the negative symptoms, such as flat affect, avolition (Response 1), also known as lack of motivation, and poverty of speech (Response 4), also known as alogia. The atypical antipsychotics, such as Risperdal, were originally viewed as a breakthrough in the treatment of negative symptoms; however, recent large-scale research studies indicate this is not the case. Thought disorder (Response 3) is a term sometimes applied to psychotic disorders, and is too broad to be a good answer for this question. HINT: One way to approach this question is to recognize that Responses 1 and 4 are both negative symptoms; it’s unlikely that a drug would be good at treating one but not the other. You could therefore eliminate both responses.

Question 34

96. The Solomon Four-Group design is used:
97. to control for carryover effects when repeated measures are used.
98. to control for the effects of testing.
99. to control for the effects of history and failure to return to baseline in single-subject designs.
100. to control for the effects of experimenter expectancies and demand characteristics.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: 2. to control for the effects of testing.

Feedback: The Solomon Four-Group is a type of research design that controls for the effects of testing (also called practice effects). Subjects are divided into four groups: the first group is tested before and after treatment (pretest/intervention/posttest); the second group is tested twice without any treatment (pretest/no intervention/posttest); the third group is treated and measured afterwards (intervention/posttest); and the fourth is only tested once (posttest). The design accounts for all possible effects of testing. The Latin Square is the most sophisticated counterbalancing design and controls for carryover effects when repeated measures are used (Response 1). Multiple baseline designs eliminate the threat of history and failure to return to baselines (as well as ethical concerns) in single-subject designs (Response 3). Experiment expectances and demand characteristics (Response 4) are controlled by making experiments double-blind.

Question 35

97. According to the DSM-5, bipolar I disorder includes, at minimum:
98. a manic episode.
99. a manic or hypomanic episode.
100. a manic and major depressive episode.
101. a manic or mixed episode.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: 1. a manic episode.

Feedback: According to the DSM-5, the essential feature of bipolar I disorder is the occurrence of at least one manic episode (Response 1, correct answer). The manic episode may be preceded or followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes, but other mood episodes are not necessary for the diagnosis. The DSM-5 eliminated the concept of the mixed episode. The DSM-5 has added the specifier “with mixed features” that can be applied to a manic, hypomanic, or depressive episode; however, a depressive or hypomanic episode alone with mixed features does not qualify the individual for bipolar I disorder. The diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when there has been at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode, and there has never been a manic episode.

Question 36

98. A client is a defendant in a legal proceeding. Her psychologist receives a subpoena to release the woman’s treatment records, however, the woman refuses to have her records released. What should the psychologist do?
99. Talk to the plaintiff’s attorney.
100. Ignore the subpoena.
101. Release the records.
102. Appear in court.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: 4. Appear in court.

Feedback: When a psychologist receives a subpoena but the patient does not want the records released, the psychologist needs to appear in court and assert privilege. If the court does not believe that privilege should be maintained, a court order is issued to disclose the records. The psychologist must then comply with the court order and release the records; otherwise, he will be held in contempt of the court and will face legal action. It is never acceptable to ignore a subpoena (Response 2). In most cases, it is considered risky and poor judgment to contact the plaintiff’s attorney (Response 1). Unless there is a court order, releasing the records against the patient’s wishes would constitute an unacceptable breach of confidentiality.

Question 37

99. Research on job enrichment has indicated that:
100. it is preferred by all employees.
101. it is preferred by managerial level employees only.
102. it is preferred by employees high in growth need.
103. results have been mixed regarding individual preferences.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: 3. it is preferred by employees high in growth need.

Feedback: Job enrichment, which involves increasing a worker’s responsibilities, is not preferred by all employees. Those in favor of job enrichment tend to be high in growth-need, as well as knowledge and skill of their job. Job enrichment tends to result in increased satisfaction and performance, as well as decreased turnover and absenteeism.

Question 38

104. A therapist who is treating a client of a different cultural background should address the role of folk healers by:
105. referring the client out to a folk healer.
106. seeking consultation.
107. involving the folk healer in treatment, as needed.
108. focusing on research-based interventions.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: 3. involving the folk healer in treatment, as needed.

Feedback: In treating patients from a different cultural background, it is always important to understand the patient’s world view, view of therapy, and what the patient believes is going to help him. If the person has experience with and believes in folk healers, it would be important to work with the folk healer, incorporating his role into the treatment plan. Referring the client out (Response 1) negates the importance of collaboration, and might deprive the patient of needed psychological services. Seeking consultation (Response 2) is frequently appropriate when dealing with clients from a different cultural background, however, this question is specifically asking about the role of folk healers. Focusing only on research-based interventions (Response 4) would have the effect of minimizing the role of the folk healer since there is not a large body of empirical literature regarding folk healing.

Question 39

105. What are the benefits of a realistic job preview?
106. It reduces misconceptions about the job.
107. It is helpful for selecting managers.
108. It exposes managers to different aspects of the organization.
109. It increases longevity of employment.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: 4. It increases longevity of employment.

Feedback: Realistic job previews have been found to reduce turnover by up to 20% by providing applicants with an accurate picture of a specific job (Response 4). While realistic job previews are designed to help overly optimistic or unrealistic employees see things more realistically, thus reducing misconceptions about the job, the ultimate goal of the preview of to increase longevity of employment. A realistic job preview can be given to any type of employee; it is not exclusive to managers (ruling out Responses 2 and 3).

Question 40

106. A person with Klinefelter’s syndrome:
107. is a woman with an extra X chromosome.
108. is a woman missing an X chromosome.
109. is a man with an extra X chromosome.
110. is a man with an extra Y chromosome.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: 3. is a man with an extra X chromosome.

Feedback: Klinefelter’s syndrome is a condition in which a mutation in the cell division process of one of the parent’s gametes results in a male infant who has an extra X chromosome (XXY). The most common symptom of Klinefelter’s syndrome is infertility. There may also be abnormal development of secondary sex characteristics such as less body hair, less muscle development or partial breast development. Response 1 describes a woman with Triple X Syndrome (XXX), which may result in infertility. Response 2 describes a woman with Turner’s syndrome (XO), a chromosomal abnormality that may result in abnormal development of secondary sexual characteristics (e.g., no menstruation, no ovulation) and infertility. Response 4 describes a male with XYY syndrome, a rare abnormality that results in men that may be taller and may have behavioral problems or learning disabilities.

Question 41

108. According to the DSM-5, the rate of major depressive disorder in men and women is:
109. about equal
110. 1.5 – 3:1
111. 1:1.5 – 3
112. about equal, but the presentation is different

Answer 41

Correct Answer: 3. 1:1.5 – 3

Feedback: According to the DSM-5, the rate of major depressive disorder is equal in prepubertal girls and boys; it is 1.5 to 3 times higher in females than in males beginning in early adolescence. To answer this question correctly you not only needed to know that rates of major depressive disorder are higher in women than men, but you needed to carefully read the question (the question was looking at the ratio of men to women) and to understand how to interpret the ratios. The correct ratio is 1:1.5 – 3 (Response 3). Said another way, for every one man, from 1.5 to 3 women develop major depressive disorder.

Question 42

109. When taking an MAO inhibitor, such as Nardil, a patient is advised to avoid all of the following foods except:
110. Chianti.
111. fava beans.
112. smoked meats.
113. cream cheese.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: 4. cream cheese.

Feedback: Patients receiving Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (a type of antidepressant) must avoid foods high in Tyramine, because eating such foods can cause a life-threatening hypertensive crisis, possibly even a stroke. Foods that must be avoided altogether include alcohol (Response 1), fava or broad beans (Response 2), aged cheese (cream and cottage cheeses are okay), liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats (Response 3), packaged soups, yeast supplements, meat extracts, and summer sausage. Although there is no easy way to remember all this, it does help to recognize that aged and fermented foods are prominent on the list of prohibited foods.

Question 43

113. Taylor-Russell tables demonstrate that to optimize your incremental validity you would want:
114. both a base rate and a selection ratio of about .5.
115. both a base rate and a selection ratio of about .1.
116. a base rate of .1 and a selection ratio of .5.
117. a base rate of .5 and a selection ratio of .1.

Answer 43

Correct Answer: 4. a base rate of .5 and a selection ratio of .1.

Feedback: Incremental validity is the proportion of improvement in the success rate achieved by adding a predictor test (over and above the starting base rate). The base rate is the rate of selecting successful employees without a predictor test. The selection ratio is the ratio of the number of openings to the number of applicants (e.g., one opening for every 10 applicants is 1:10 or .1). So, incremental validity refers to how much using a predictor test improves our ability to select successful employees. According to the Taylor-Russell tables, incremental validity is optimized when the base rate is moderate (about .5) and the selection rate is low (close to .1). In other words, a good predictor test will make the biggest difference when there has been moderate success at choosing successful employees without the predictor test, and there is a large pool of applicants with relatively few openings.

Question 44

115. Which of the following terms is applied to the view that in order to understand a person, one must understand his environment and cultural background?
116. Etic.
117. Emic.
118. Nomothetic.
119. Idiographic.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: 2. Emic.

Feedback: An emic perspective is one that focuses on understanding a person within the context of his specific cultural background. An etic view (Response 1) assumes that there are universal principles underlying personality, psychopathology, and psychotherapy. A nomothetic approach (Response 3) involves observations of groups. An idiographic approach (Response 4), by contrast, involves closely observing one or a few individuals (e.g., Piaget’s developed his theories on relatively few children).

Question 45

116. A client who works for the U.S. Postal Service reports significant conflict at work. He says, “I’m fed up with being mistreated, and plan to kill my boss at work.” You should:
117. attempt to deescalate the situation, and uphold confidentiality since the client-therapist relationship will otherwise be violated. (b/c may not be full plan/intent with follow-up…)
118. report this threat to the police.
119. report this threat to the police and his boss.
120. report this threat to the police, his boss, and the postmaster.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: 4. report this threat to the police, his boss, and the postmaster.

Feedback: Based on the Tarasoff ruling, the therapist has the duty to warn when the therapist hears a threat made directly by the therapist’s client toward a reasonably identifiable victim. The therapist is required not only to notify the police (Response 2), but the intended victim as well (Response 3). In this scenario, however, an additional requirement applies. Whenever it is foreseeable that other people may be harmed in the course of the client’s action, the other people must also be warned. Here, because the person is threatening to kill someone at the post office, the postmaster must be notified. The ethical obligation and legal requirement to prevent harm takes priority over confidentiality in such a situation (Response 1).

Question 46

117. Which stage of the sexual response cycle is the technique of sensate focus designed to affect?
118. Orgasm.
119. Excitement.
120. Plateau.
121. Resolution.

Answer 46

Correct Answer: 2. Excitement.

Feedback: Master’s and Johnson divide the sexual response cycle into four stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. In the excitement phase, arousal is initiated either through physical factors (e.g., touching) or psychological factors (e.g., fantasy). It is this stage that sensate focus is designed to affect. Based on counter-conditioning, sensate focus techniques replace performance anxiety with pleasure. The plateau phase (Response 3) involves further increases in stimulation and physiological functions (e.g., heart rate, respiration). During the orgasm phase (Response 1), the person experiences an intense and pleasurable release of tension, and ejaculation occurs in the male. The resolution stage (Response 4) involves a gradual return to preexcitement levels.

Question 47

125. The latent trait model or item response theory is an alternative to classical test theory. Item response theory is based on the premise that:
126. total variability in test takers’ scores can be explained by a combination of the test’s reliability and error variability.
127. differences between two persons in terms of percentage correct obtained on the same exam reflect differences in underlying latent traits.
128. when test content is of varying difficulty, uniform scales of measurement can be applied to persons of different ability levels.
129. the test taker’s response to a given item will indicate the extent of the latent trait possessed.

Answer 47

Correct Answer: 3. when test content is of varying difficulty, uniform scales of measurement can be applied to persons of different ability levels.

Feedback: According to item response theory (latent trait model), it is assumed that item performance is related to the amount of the respondent’s latent trait, e.g., statistics ability. Latent trait models are used to establish a uniform scale of measurement that can be applied to individuals of varying ability and to test content of varying difficulty. Response 1 accurately describes the premise of classical test theory. Response 2 is more in line with classical test theory than item response theory. The determination as to how much of a latent trait is possessed requires analyzing the responses to all items, not just one (Response 4).

Question 48

126. The key elements of Self-Instructional Therapy are:
127. graded practice, coping statements, reinforcement.
128. coping statements, skill development, self-reinforcement. (has self in it)
129. problem-solving, graded practice, cognitive restructuring. (1st gut reaction choice)
130. repetition, graded practice, cognitive restructuring.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: 4. repetition, graded practice, cognitive restructuring.

Feedback: Meichenbaum’s Self-Instructional Therapy combines graduated practice with elements of Rational-Emotive Theory, and involves repeated practice of a targeted task. The five-step procedure begins with the therapist modeling a task and verbalizing the steps out loud, and ends with the client performing the task while thinking the task through. Self-Instructional Therapy helps a person who lacks adaptive cognitions in performing tasks to develop such cognitions, hence, it is a form of cognitive restructuring. Self-Instructional Training involves helping the client learn to think about how to perform a task, rather than problem-solving (Response 3). Coping statements and skill development are key elements of Meichenbaum’s Stress Inoculation Training (Responses 1 and 2).

Question 49

128. A husband and wife have decided to use mediation to help end their marriage. At the end of the mediation process, both people are satisfied with the terms of the divorce settlement. This is an example of:
129. informational justice.
130. distributive justice.
131. procedural justice.
132. interpersonal justice.

Answer 49

Correct Answer: 2. distributive justice.

Feedback: Distributive or outcome justice has its roots in social equity theory and refers to the satisfaction of participants in a process (e.g., mediation) when they believe that the outcome of the process is both fair and favorable. In this question the outcome (terms of the divorce settlement) determined the participants’ satisfaction. Procedural justice (Response 3) refers to participants’ satisfaction based on the perceived fairness of the process used to come to a decision. For example, if the couple was satisfied with the mediation because they felt the mediator was successfully impartial or that they had equal opportunity to be heard, this would be an example of procedural justice. A more recent development of research is the theory of interactional justice. Interactional justice is defined as the quality of interpersonal treatment received during the process, and reflects concerns about the fairness of non-procedural aspects of interaction. The two components of interactional justice are informational justice and interpersonal justice. Informational justice (Response 1) refers to the appropriateness of the explanation given for the procedures used, while interpersonal justice (Response 4) refers to the manner in which people are treated by authority figures in the decision making process (e.g., whether they are treated with politeness, dignity, and respect).

Question 50

129. The prevalence of obsessive-compulsive disorder in girls is:
130. roughly equivalent to that of boys.
131. slightly lower than that of boys.
132. much lower than that of boys.
133. slightly higher than that of boys.

Answer 50

Correct Answer: 3. much lower than that of boys.

Feedback: Because OCD is almost equally common in men and women (in adulthood, females are slightly more commonly affected), most of us would guess that the prevalence rates would be equal in boys and girls (Response 1). As it turns out, males have an earlier age of onset of OCD than females, with nearly 25% of males having an onset before age 10. As a result, males are more commonly affected in childhood (Response 3, correct answer).

Question 51

131. The procedure of protocol analysis involves:
132. looking at differences obtained in contrasting research protocols.
133. having people focus on their self-statements in an attempt to modify their typical protocols.
134. having people verbalize their thought process as they perform a task.
135. a type of multiple baseline single subject design in which responses to multiple protocols are analyzed.

Answer 51

Correct Answer: 3. having people verbalize their thought process as they perform a task.

Feedback: A protocol analysis involves subjects verbalizing their thought process as they perform a task. The goal is to better understand the person’s cognitive process, especially concerning problem-solving, although it is understood that the process of verbalizing may actually alter the cognitive process. The other responses do not apply to protocol analysis.

Question 52

135. Your supervisor assigns you a project in which you have very little interest. Cognitive Dissonance Theory predicts that you would be most likely to change your opinion of this project if:
136. you are given a bonus in exchange for doing this project.
137. the project greatly benefits your colleagues.
138. you complete the project on your own time at home.
139. you have expertise with this type of project.

Answer 52

Correct Answer: 3. you complete the project on your own time at home.

Feedback: According to Cognitive Dissonance Theory, if a person holds a belief that is inconsistent with his or her other actions or other views, the person will experience dissonance, or discomfort. The person will then attempt to resolve the dissonance by changing the problematic belief. In this scenario, you believe that you disinterested in the project. You are most likely to change this belief if you do something that is inconsistent with the belief. Out of the choices given, doing the project on your own time would be most inconsistent with disinterest in the project.

Question 53

138. A patient of yours is a college student. She receives an ‘A’ on her final in an honors calculus class. When she reports this to you, she shrugs and says, “I’m okay at Math, I guess.” Her behavior is an example of which of the following cognitive distortions?
139. Tunnel vision.
140. Magnification.
141. Labeling.
142. Fortune telling.

Answer 53

Correct Answer: 2. Magnification.

Feedback: Cognitive therapists have identified numerous common cognitive distortions. The distortion of magnification/minimization is often, as here, abbreviated to magnification. It refers to magnifying one’s problems or perceiving something as more important than it is. It also refers to minimizing one’s positive qualities or seeing something as less important than it is. Here, the patient is clearly minimizing her mathematics ability. Tunnel vision (Response 1) refers to seeing only the negative aspects of a situation. For example, this student receives all A’s except for one B+, and she becomes very upset about the one B+. In labeling (Response 3), a person’s entire character is labeled based on one incident, for example, someone who forgets something one time is “an idiot.” Fortune telling (Response 4) refers to anticipating that events will turn out badly.

Question 54

139. Dr. Kay, a psychologist, conducts a seminar on treatment for Agoraphobia. A woman who attended the seminar approaches Dr. Kay and asks for clinic referrals for her daughter who suffers from Agoraphobia. Dr. Kay gives the woman the name of a clinic that provides treatment for this disorder. Three months later, Dr. Kay receives a letter from the woman, stating that she is going to file a lawsuit against him for negligence. The letter alleges that after receiving treatment from the clinic recommended by Dr. Kay, her daughter’s condition has deteriorated. In this situation, Dr. Kay’s actions are:
140. unethical, because he referred the daughter to the clinic.
141. unethical, because the daughter has suffered emotional damage.
142. ethical, because the clinic is responsible for the daughter’s condition.
143. ethical, because there was no professional relationship with the daughter.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: 4. ethical, because there was no professional relationship with the daughter.

Feedback: One of the conditions that must be present to demonstrate negligent treatment is a professional relationship between the therapist and client. In this situation, the psychologist never had any contact with the daughter, nor did he have a therapeutic relationship with either the daughter or mother.

Question 55

140. In a hierarchy of activities that are reinforced, a particular activity is reinforced by any activity above it in the hierarchy, and would also reinforce an activity below it. This model was developed by:
141. Skinner.
142. Premack.
143. Tolman.
144. Wolpe.

Answer 55

Correct Answer: 2. Premack.

Feedback: This question is addressing the Premack principle, which states that a frequently occurring activity (i.e., one that is high on the hierarchy) can be used to reinforced a low frequency activity (one that is lower on the hierarchy). This is an operant concept, and while Skinner (Response 1) is a proponent of operant conditioning, this particular model was developed by Premack. Tolman (Response 3) is associated with latent learning. Wolpe (Response 4) developed systematic desensitization, which is a technique based on classical conditioning.

Question 56

146. Credibility and giving are processes that are important for which of the following?
147. The development of altruism in children.
148. Effective leadership.
149. Persuasion.
150. Working with ethnic minority clients.

Answer 56

Correct Answer: 4. Working with ethnic minority clients.

Feedback: Stanley Sue and Nolan Zane describe credibility and giving as the two basic processes that are important to consider when working with ethnic minority clients. Credibility has to do with the client perceiving the therapist as trustworthy and effective, which is strongly related to the degree to which the therapist is able to intervene in a culturally consistent manner. Giving is the client’s perception that something was received from the therapy session; the client feels like he received a gift or some direct benefit from the therapist.

Question 57

148. Which of the following statements is true regarding Fiedler’s Contingency Theory?
149. Low LPC leaders perform best in highly favorable situations and are task oriented.
150. High LPC leaders perform best in highly unfavorable situations and are relationship oriented.
151. Low LPC leaders perform best in moderately favorable situations and are relationship oriented.
152. High LPC leaders perform best in moderately favorable situations and are task oriented.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: 1. Low LPC leaders perform best in highly favorable situations and are task oriented.

Feedback: Fiedler’s Contingency Theory looks at how a leader rates a least preferred coworker (LPC). A low LPC leader is someone who assigns low ratings to a least preferred coworker. Low LPC leaders perform best in highly favorable or highly unfavorable situations and are task oriented. A high LPC leader is someone who rates a least preferred coworker highly. High LPC leaders work best under moderately favorable situations, and are relationship oriented.

Question 58

150. The key aspect in constructing a test to be used for aid in diagnosis is:
151. standardization.
152. reliability.
153. generalizability.
154. validity.

Answer 58

Correct Answer: 4. validity.

Feedback: If a test is created to aid in diagnosis (e.g., the MCMI), the most critical aspect would be whether the test is valid; whether it is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring. Of course, the test would have to be reliable (Response 2), but that would not be sufficient. Standardization (Response 1) and generalizability (Response 3) are also important, but neither one is as critical as validity.

Question 59

152. In weighting variables in a multiple regression equation, the researcher uses:
153. factor analysis.
154. covariance.
155. line of best fit.
156. multiple cutoff.

Answer 59

Correct Answer: 3. line of best fit.

Feedback: Regression or prediction equations are calculated based on the line of best fit. A scatter plot is graphed and then a straight line is made which best matches or fits the data, using a process called the least squares criterion. The equation for this line is then the regression equation. Factor analysis (Response 1) is not involved in multiple regression; it is the statistical analysis of the structure of a construct or test. Covariance (Response 2) means that two variables are correlated: they “covary” or vary together. Multiple cutoff (Response 4) describes a testing situation in which a subject must meet the cutoff on each subtest in order to pass the overall test.

Question 60

156. Studies on the nature of teachers’ interactions with students have shown that:
157. the teacher’s gender has an impact on the nature of his or her interactions with students.
158. the gender of both the teacher and the students influence their interactions.
159. the gender of the students, but not that of the teacher, has an impact on the teacher’s interactions with students.
160. the impact of gender on teacher and student interactions is modified by age, with the gender of students having greater impact on interactions with younger children, and less impact on interactions with adolescents.

Answer 60

Correct Answer: 3. the gender of the students, but not that of the teacher, has an impact on the teacher’s interactions with students.

Feedback: Overall, teacher gender has not been found to have a substantial impact on teachers’ interaction with students (Responses 1 and 2). Instead, the gender of the students has been found to affect the interactions. Specifically, both male and female teachers generally interact more with male students than with female students. Much of these interactions, however, are negative or critical in tone.

Question 61

160. According to Theory Y:
161. workers function best under an autocratic leader.
162. workers can demonstrate responsibility on the job if they are given incentives.
163. group decision making is critical to successful work performance.
164. workers can be expected to seek challenges on the job.

Answer 61

Correct Answer: 4. workers can be expected to seek challenges on the job.

Feedback: Theory Y states that workers are industrious, creative, and seek challenge and responsibility. Response 1 describes Theory X, which proposes that workers are lazy and have no ambition, and must therefore be controlled and directed. Response 2 is also more characteristic of Theory X, since it states that workers need incentives, or external reinforcement, in order to show responsibility. Response 3 is an element of Theory Z, which considers lifelong employment, slow promotion, and group decision making to be critical in organizational management.

Question 62

163. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of intelligence?
164. It is a three strata model, with general intelligence at the top level, broad cognitive abilities in the middle, and narrow cognitive abilities at the bottom.
165. It is a triarchic theory that focuses on the process of intelligence, not the product.
166. It proposes that intelligence is a single factor.
167. It posits four basic underlying factors to the construct of intelligence.

Answer 62

Correct Answer: 1. It is a three strata model, with general intelligence at the top level, broad cognitive abilities in the middle, and narrow cognitive abilities at the bottom.

Feedback: The Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory is considered by many to be the most empirically validated theory of human intelligence. It is the foundation for the Woodcock-Johnson III (WJ-III) battery, a popular test of general aptitude and school achievement, and has been used to guide the development of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-IV (WISC-IV), the most established test of children’s intelligence. According to this theory, intelligence can be understood in three levels: general intelligence or “g” (stratum III); about ten broad cognitive abilities, such as fluid reasoning, short-term memory, visual processing, reading and writing (stratum II); and finally, about 70 narrow cognitive abilities (stratum I). This theory, based on the original work of Cattell, has gone through much development and there is some variance in the way it can be presented. For example, Horn and Carroll disagree over the validity of the general intelligence factor. Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of intelligence focuses on process rather than product (Response 2). Spearman proposed that intelligence is a single factor “g” (Response 3). The WISC-IV has eliminated Verbal IQ (VIQ) and Performance IQ (PIQ), and instead Full Scale IQ (FSIQ) is comprised of four indices or factors: Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI), Perceptual Reasoning Index (PCI), Working Memory Index (WMI) and Processing Speed Index (PSI) (Response 4).

Question 63

171. Indifference and euphoria suggest damage to:
172. the frontal lobes.
173. the temporal lobes.
174. the right hemisphere.
175. the left hemisphere.

Answer 63

Correct Answer: 3. the right hemisphere.

Feedback: Indifference and euphoria suggest right hemisphere damage. Other affective abnormalities that may result from right hemisphere damage include depression, hysteria, florid manic excitement, and impulsivity. The right hemisphere is also involved with perceptual, visuospatial, artistic, musical, and intuitive activities. The left hemisphere (Response 4) is responsible for language in most people. Damage to the left hemisphere typically results in difficulty with speech (comprehension or expression). The left hemisphere is also responsible for rational, logical, analytical and abstract thinking. The frontal lobes (Response 1) play a critical role in inhibition, planning and initiative, judgment, and higher mental functions (e.g., cognitive flexibility). The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the primary auditory cortex. Along with several other attached brain structures (e.g., amygdala and hippocampus), the temporal lobes are involved in emotional behavior and memory.

Question 64

173. Research has demonstrated that cooperative learning classes:
174. have generally not been found to be effective, and any gains tend to be short-lived.
175. are effective for high ability students, and may or may not be effective for low ability students.
176. are effective for low ability students, and may or may not be effective for high ability students.
177. are effective for high ability students, but not for low ability students.

Answer 64

Correct Answer: 3. are effective for low ability students, and may or may not be effective for high ability students.

Feedback: In cooperative learning classes, students of different ability levels and cultural backgrounds work together on completing assignments and projects. Research has demonstrated that these classes help low ability students improve their academic functioning, but it remains unclear whether these classes benefit high ability students.

Cooperative learning programs have been found to be very effective in terms of reducing cultural biases and stereotypes.

Question 65

174. You are working on developing a new test. To optimize your reliability you should:
175. utilize a heterogeneous sample.
176. utilize a homogeneous sample.
177. measure subjects on the same test at two different points in time.
178. measure subjects on two similar versions of the test at two different points in time.

Answer 65

Correct Answer: 1. utilize a heterogeneous sample.

Feedback: There are several factors that specifically increase reliability: more items on a test, homogeneity of the items, an unrestricted range of scores that results from a more heterogeneous sample, and difficulty of guessing. Measuring subjects on the same test at two points in time simply describes test-retest reliability (Response 3). Measuring subjects on two similar versions of the test at two different points in time describes alternate-forms reliability (Response 4).

Question 66

179. A Jacksonian Seizure is:
180. a petit mal seizure.
181. a complex partial seizure.
182. a tonic/clonic seizure.
183. a simple partial seizure.

Answer 66

Correct Answer: 4. a simple partial seizure.

Feedback: A simple partial seizure begins focally in one hemisphere and does not impair the level of consciousness. This type of seizure may involve virtually any brain function (e.g., jerking of an extremity, abnormal sensation in one part of the body, a feeling of deja-vu, etc.). A Jacksonian Seizure is a type of simple partial seizure (Response 4) where there is a brief alteration in movement, sensation or nerve function that starts in one part of the body, then spreads to another, oftentimes beginning in an extremity and “marching” up the limb. A simple partial seizure is differentiated from a complex partial seizure (Response 2) in that the latter involves either a pronounced change in consciousness or outright loss of consciousness in addition to the other disruptions described. A tonic/clonic or grand mal seizure (Response 3), a type of generalized seizure, involves a tonic stage, which is characterized by continuous tension or contraction, followed by a clonic stage of rapid, involuntary, alternating muscular contractions, and relaxation. A petit mal seizure (Response 1), also a generalized seizure, is characterized by a brief change in the level of consciousness, a transitional period of twitching or eye-rolling and a return to normal functioning.

Question 67

180. What differentiates higher-order conditioning from stimulus generalization?
181. Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from the US to other similar stimuli.
182. Higher-order conditioning involves pairing the US with a neutral stimulus.
183. Stimulus generalization involves making different responses to the same stimulus.
184. Higher-order conditioning involves pairing the CS with a neutral stimulus.

Answer 67

Correct Answer: 4. Higher-order conditioning involves pairing the CS with a neutral stimulus.

Feedback: Higher-order conditioning involves the deliberate pairing of a conditioned stimulus (CS) with a new neutral stimulus, one that is typically unrelated. Stimulus generalization involves generalizing from the CS to other neutral stimuli that are similar. Response 1 is incorrect, because stimulus generalization involves generalizing to other stimuli from the CS, not the US. Response 2 is incorrect, since higher-order conditioning does not involve the US; rather, the pairing involves the CS. Response 3 describes response generalization (an operant concept), not stimulus generalization.

Question 68

181. Which of the following is not true about Intermittent Explosive Disorder?
182. The disorder requires several discrete episodes or failure to resist aggressive impulses that result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property.
183. The aggressive acts are impulsive and typically not premeditated.
184. This disorder may be associated with neurological/neurobiological abnormalities.
185. The individual may exhibit aggressiveness between explosive episodes.

Answer 68

Correct Answer: 1. The disorder requires several discrete episodes or failure to resist aggressive impulses that result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property.

Feedback: The question is asking for the incorrect statement. The diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder changed somewhat in the DSM-5. According to the DSM-5, intermittent explosive disorder is characterized by recurrent outbursts resulting from a failure to control aggressive impulses, as manifest by either of the following: verbal aggression (e.g., tirades, verbal arguments) or physical aggression toward property, animals, or people, occurring twice weekly for a period of 3 months, in which the physical aggression does not cause property damage or physical injury; or three behavioral outbursts involving damage or physical injury within a 12-month period. Thus, an individual may be diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder when there is only verbal aggression or physical aggression that does not cause damage or physical injury; the disorder does not requires serious assaultive acts or destruction of property (Response 1, correct answer) The aggressive outbursts are impulsive are not premeditated (Response 2). Some signs of neurological abnormalities may be associated with this disorder (Response 3). Signs of generalized aggressiveness or impulsivity may be present between explosive episodes (Response 4).

Question 69

185. Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive changes associated with aging?
186. Crystallized intelligence peaks in the fifth or sixth decade and thereafter declines.
187. Fluid intelligence peaks in the fourth or fifth decade and thereafter declines.
188. Psychomotor speed declines with aging, while attention and concentration remain relatively unimpaired.
189. The ability to reason and use logic in ecologically-valid assessments does not appear to be greatly affected by aging.

Answer 69

Correct Answer: 4. The ability to reason and use logic in ecologically-valid assessments does not appear to be greatly affected by aging.

Feedback: The ability to reason and use logic appears to remain intact among aging adults, especially when evaluated in day-to-day, practically relevant or ecologically valid situations. In laboratory-based evaluations, this ability does appear to decline with aging. Crystallized intelligence (knowledge gained through experience) actually improves with age (Response 1). Fluid intelligence (novel problem-solving) peaks in adolescence, and shows the greatest decline with aging (Response 2). Attention and concentration, especially on complex tasks, show signs of decline with aging, as does psychomotor speed (Response 3).

Question 70

186. A researcher looks at several variables (study time, graduate school GPA, anxiety level) in an attempt to predict who is likely to pass the EPPP. The researcher will analyze her results using a:
187. multiple regression.
188. multiple cutoff.
189. discriminant analysis.
190. path analysis.

Answer 70

Correct Answer: 3. discriminant analysis.

Feedback: A discriminant analysis is required when several independent variables are used to predict group membership. Group membership is another way of saying discrete categories. In this case, three continuous variables are being used to predict whether subjects belong in the “pass exam” or “fail exam” category. Multiple regression (Response 1) is appropriate when several independent variables are used to predict one continuous dependent variable (e.g., EPPP score). In a test with multiple cutoff (Response 2), a subject can only pass the overall test if he meets the cutoff on each subtest. Path analysis (Response 4) applies multiple regression techniques to test a theoretical model that specifies causal links among variables.

Question 71

188. Children with autism spectrum disorder show relative strength on:
189. the Embedded Figures Test.
190. the TONI-3 test.
191. Raven’s Progressive Matrices.
192. the Stanford-Binet.

Answer 71

Correct Answer: 1. the Embedded Figures Test.

Feedback: A significant body of research has found that children with autism spectrum disorder perform better in relation to their general mental age on the Embedded Figures Test (EFT). The EFT measures cognitive functioning by having the examinee try to locate simple geometrical shapes that are hidden in more complex diagrams. The TONI-3 (Response 2) or Test of Nonverbal Intelligence measures intelligence, aptitude, abstract reasoning, and problem solving completely free of the use of language. It is particularly well suited for individuals who are known or believed to have disorders of communication or thinking that may result from intellectual disability, deafness, developmental disabilities, autism spectrum disorder, cerebral palsy, stroke, disease, head injury, or other neurological impairment. Raven’s Progressive Matrices (Response 3) is generally thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. It is also suited for individuals with severe motor impairments and speech limitations. Spearman himself considered Raven’s Progressive Matrices to be the best non-verbal measure of the “g factor.” The Stanford-Binet (Response 4) is a widely used test of intelligence requiring verbal skills with a low floor (e.g., IQ scores can be obtained in the teens) and high ceiling (e.g., IQ score of 180+ can be obtained), making it the test of choice for assessing both giftedness and intellectual disability.

Question 72

190. Group decision-making is most likely to be adversely affected by:
191. social loafing and social inhibition.
192. social comparison and deindividuation.
193. response polarization and groupthink.
194. risky shift and diffusion of responsibility.

Answer 72

Correct Answer: 3. response polarization and groupthink.

Feedback: Response polarization and groupthink are two factors that can negatively impact group decision-making. Response polarization, also known as group polarization, describes the tendency for people in groups to become more extreme in their views. As a result, group members tend to make decisions that are more extreme than they would if they were on their own. Groupthink occurs in highly cohesive groups when group members seek unanimity, ignoring important information and suspending individual critical thinking. Response 4 is incorrect because while risky shift is relevant to group decision-making, diffusion of responsibility is not. Risky shift describes the process whereby a group makes riskier decisions in comparison with decisions made by the individual members. Diffusion of responsibility is the tendency to assume that someone else will respond to a situation and take action. Responses 1 and 2 are incorrect because they contain concepts that do not apply to group decision-making. Social loafing refers to the tendency to work less hard on a task when one is in a group, and occurs when people perceive that their individual efforts will not be subject to individual evaluation. Social inhibition occurs when task performance is compromised by the presence of others. Social comparison describes the tendency of people to evaluate their own actions or beliefs by comparing them with the actions and beliefs of others. Deindividuation refers to the process of suspending one’s private self-identity and adopting the identity of a group, resulting in decreased self-awareness and self-regulation.

Question 73

192. A psychologist’s contract with a managed care company is abruptly terminated by the company. Which of the following statements best describes the psychologist’s ethical obligation according to APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002)?
193. Patients should not be terminated until they have been provided with pre-termination counseling.
194. The psychologist must continue to see those patients who are in crisis.
195. The psychologist may terminate the patients immediately or as soon as is practically feasible, provided that the limits of their care through the managed care company were made clear at the time of informed consent.
196. The psychologist does not have to provide pretermination counseling if the actions of the managed care company preclude pretermination counseling.

Answer 73

Correct Answer: 4. The psychologist does not have to provide pretermination counseling if the actions of the managed care company preclude pretermination counseling.

Feedback: The 2002 APA Ethics Code addresses the issue of termination and managed care contracts in two places. On the topic of “interruption of services,” the Ethics Code states that psychologists should make plans for continuation of care “unless otherwise covered by contract.” This provision is intended to clarify that psychologists are not abandoning clients and do not have further ethical responsibilities when a managed care company restricts the number of sessions or requires termination. On the topic of “terminating therapy,” the Ethics Code states that are exceptions to the requirement for pretermination counseling. One exception occurs when the actions of third-party payors (e.g., managed care company) preclude such counseling (ruling out Response 1). The responsibility for patients who are in crisis (Response 2) falls to the managed care company. Although any known limits to care should be disclosed at the time of informed consent (Response 3), that disclosure is not necessary in order for the psychologist to comply with the managed care company’s termination of services.

Question 74

195. The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome tend to:
196. be most visible in the first three years of life and may gradually decline thereafter.
197. be permanent.
198. be most visible in infancy and early childhood, but diminish in adolescence and adulthood.
199. emerge most dramatically at puberty.

Answer 74

Correct Answer: 2. be permanent.

Feedback: Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) results from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. Its permanent effects include facial abnormalities, including wide-set and narrow eyes, growth problems, central nervous system abnormalities, and decreased intelligence. Individuals with FAS frequently have problems with learning, memory, attention span, communication, vision, or hearing.

Question 75

198. A man exhibits shallow emotionality, dysphoria when not the focus of attention, dramatic speech, and eccentric appearance. In addition, he has many acquaintances but few close friends. These symptoms are most suggestive of:
199. borderline personality disorder.
200. narcissistic personality disorder.
201. histrionic personality disorder.
202. schizotypal personality disorder.

Answer 75

Correct Answer: 3. histrionic personality disorder.

Feedback: The hallmark of histrionic personality disorder is excessive emotionality and attention-seeking, involving discomfort when not the center of attention, sexually seductive/provocative behavior, rapidly shifting and shallow expressions of emotion, use of physical appearance to draw attention, speaking dramatically but without substance, and exaggerating emotion (Response 3). Borderline personality disorder (Response 1) is characterized by instability in the areas of mood, interpersonal relationships, and self-image, as well as significant impulsivity. Although this disorder can also involve attention seeking, its hallmarks are instability and impulsivity, neither of which is prominent in this scenario. Narcissistic personality disorder (Response 2) is characterized by a pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy. Persons with narcissistic personality disorder seek admiration, whereas persons with histrionic personality disorder seek attention, even attention based on their weaknesses. Schizotypal personality disorder (Response 4) involves deficits in interpersonal functioning marked by discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships, as well as by peculiarities in cognition, ideation, appearance, and behavior.

Question 76

200. What is the general consensus about confidentiality following the death of the client?
201. Confidentiality survives the death of the client.
202. Confidentiality does not survive the death of the client.
203. The patient’s next of kin has the right to waive confidentiality.
204. The therapist has the right to waive confidentiality.

Answer 76

Correct Answer: 1. Confidentiality survives the death of the client.

Feedback: Most professional groups, including the APA, consider that confidentiality continues even after the person is deceased.