DSM 5 Test B Part 2

Question 1

101. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding selective mutism?
102. It is a communication disorder in the DSM-5 category of neurodevelopmental disorders.
103. It is typically an act of defiance and may be effectively treated with behavior modification.
104. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.
105. It results from trauma and treatment typically involves therapy focused on overcoming the trauma.

Answer 1

Correct Answer: 3. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.

Feedback: Selective mutism (SM) involves a consistent failure to speak in specific social situations when speaking is expected (e.g., the classroom), in spite of speaking in other situations (e.g., at home). As a result, this disturbance interferes with educational or occupational achievement, or with social communication. Selective mutism is an anxiety disorder. The failure to speak in children with selective mutism (SM) is related to fear and anxiety, not willfulness or disobedience (ruling out Response 2). Typical treatments include some combination of behavioral therapy, cognitive behavioral therapy, individual therapy, family therapy, and medication. Behavioral therapy for SM usually includes desensitization and relaxation protocols, of which guided imagery is sometimes a part (Response 3, correct answer). SSRIs (e.g., Paxil) are commonly prescribed for their anti-anxiety effects, although other antidepressants are sometimes used. Selective mutism is not considered a communication disorder, an example of which includes childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering). The communication disorders are listed in the DSM-5 category of neurodevelopmental disorders (Response 1). Selective mutism is also not related to a history of trauma (ruling out Response 4).

Question 2

103. People suffering from amnesia may experience impairment in all of the following cognitive functions except:
104. immediate memory.
105. anterograde memory.
106. long-term memory.
107. source memory.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: 1. immediate memory.

Feedback: Studies have indicated that immediate memory, which is another name for sensory memory, tends to remain intact in amnesia. All the other types of memory listed may be impaired in amnesia. Anterograde memory (Response 2) refers to the ability to remember new information. Source memory (Response 4) refers to the ability to remember the context in which material was learned.

Question 3

106. Marlatt’s approach to the treatment of substance abuse:
107. is an abstinence-based model akin to AA which views relapse as a setback.
108. sees relapse as a natural part of recovery that can be minimized but not avoided.
109. focuses on treating the whole family as a dysfunctional unit, rather than simply working with the identified patient.
110. sees substance use as a defense against experiencing painful underlying affect.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: 2. sees relapse as a natural part of recovery that can be minimized but not avoided.

Feedback: Marlatt is a Cognitive Behavioral Therapist who is well known for his model of relapse prevention. Unlike AA and other abstinence-based programs, he attempts to minimize the effects of relapses by teaching recovering addicts to view them as inevitable experiences which can be learned from. Part of his model also includes encouraging addicts to attribute relapses to external factors rather than to internal ones. High risk factors are identified for relapses (e.g., boredom or marital arguments) and new methods for dealing with them are developed (e.g., listening to music or calling a friend).

Question 4

108. Criterion contamination refers to:
109. obtaining a spuriously high validity coefficient because ratings on the criterion are contaminated by knowledge of ratings on a predictor.
110. obtaining an underestimate of the validity coefficient because criterion ratings are contaminated by knowledge of predictor ratings.
111. carryover effects of measuring people repeatedly on the same criterion following successive exposure to a series of interventions.
112. the tendency for criterion-related validity to be contaminated when reliability is unacceptably low.

Answer 4

Correct Answer:1. obtaining a spuriously high validity coefficient because ratings on the criterion are contaminated by knowledge of ratings on a predictor.

Feedback: Criterion contamination occurs when the rating given on the criterion is affected by knowledge of the score on the predictor. For example, in an attempt to correlate IQ with grades, criterion contamination would occur if the teacher giving the grades (the criterion) had knowledge of his students’ IQ scores (the predictor). The teacher might inflate the grades of the high IQ students as compared to the low IQ students, causing a spuriously (falsely) high correlation between IQ and grades. Response 2, then, is the opposite of what actually occurs. Carryover effects (Response 3) are a threat to external validity when repeated measures are used, and are not relevant here. Response 4 makes little sense as worded. Reliability always affects validity and very low reliability would always pose a problem.

Question 5

111. When a child misbehaves, you remove her from all potentially reinforcing stimuli. Your behavior is based on:
112. classical extinction.
113. operant extinction.
114. reciprocal inhibition.
115. the Premack principle.

Answer 5

Correct Answer: 2. operant extinction.

The question describes the technique of “time out” which is based on operant extinction. Operant extinction occurs when reinforcement is withheld. Initially, there may be a “response burst” or “extinction burst” during which the behavior actually increases but, eventually, extinction leads to the termination of the behavior. In the Premack Principle (Response 4), participating in a high frequency behavior (watching TV) is made contingent on emitting a low frequency behavior (cleaning the bedroom). You might have been able to eliminate classical extinction (Response 1) by recognizing that issues of reinforcement are not part of the classical conditioning paradigm. Classical extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, thereby loosening the pairing of the conditioned stimulus with the conditioned response. According to the concept of reciprocal inhibition (Response 3), also a term from classical conditioning, two incompatible responses cannot be experienced at the same time (e.g., anxiety and relaxation); instead, the stronger response will inhibit the weaker one.

Question 6

112. As compared to a person on a variable interval schedule of reinforcement, a person on a variable ratio schedule:
113. will respond at a fairly constant low rate.
114. will show brief post-reinforcement pauses.
115. can better predict when reinforcement will take place.
116. will have his or her behavior show greater resistance to extinction.

Answer 6

4. will have his or her behavior show greater resistance to extinction.

Feedback: Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction. In other words, when responses are no longer reinforced, the person on the variable ratio schedule of reinforcement will continue to respond at higher rates and for a longer time than people on any other schedule of reinforcement. Under both types of variable schedules of reinforcement, a person responds in a fairly steady manner, however, the response rate is higher for variable ratio as compared to variable interval (ruling out Response 1). Fixed schedules result in post-reinforcement pauses (Response 2). Only in a fixed schedule can the person predict when reinforcement will take place; variable schedules of reinforcement by their nature result in unpredictability in terms of when reinforcement will take place (Response 3).

Question 7

113. Which of the following statements is true regarding the course of ADHD?
114. Persons diagnosed with the disorder as children continue to experience the full disorder in adulthood.
115. Children with ADHD that are treated with stimulants are at increased risk for drug and alcohol problems.
116. Use of stimulant medications improves the long-term course of the disorder.
117. Children with aggression or unremitting severe symptoms of ADHD are at increased risk for developing antisocial personality disorder.

Answer 7

4. Children with aggression or unremitting severe symptoms of ADHD are at increased risk for developing antisocial personality disorder.

Feedback: Research suggests that the risk of developing antisocial personality disorder is greater for children with ADHD who have concomitant aggressive symptoms or who have symptoms of ADHD that severely impair functioning. While a significant proportion of children with ADHD remain impaired into adulthood, for others, the disorder remits by adulthood (ruling out Response 1). There is no indication that use of stimulants raises the risk of future drug and alcohol use disorders (Response 2). The research so far has not suggested that use of

Question 8

116. A 72-year-old client with long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension recently experienced a stroke, with resulting weakness of her left hand and arm. The client would probably also demonstrate:
117. left visual field damage and visuospatial deficits.
118. right visual field damage and visuospatial deficits.
119. left visual field damage and language deficits.
120. right visual field damage and language deficits.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: 1. left visual field damage and visuospatial deficits.

Feedback: The weakness in the left arm and hand would indicate damage to the right hemisphere, since each side of the body is controlled by the opposite hemisphere. Damage to the right hemisphere would affect functioning on the left side of the body, therefore this person can be expected to have deficits in the left visual field, as well as deficits in visuospatial abilities (the latter function is also controlled by the right hemisphere). Response 2 is only partially correct; the person would have visuospatial deficits, but not right visual field damage. Language deficits (Responses 3 and 4) would be expected with damage to the left hemisphere, not the right.

Question 9

117. According to Sue & Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a client who is more comfortable with his or her own race and less comfortable with others is likely to be in the stage of:
118. dissonance.
119. introspection.
120. conformity.
121. immersion.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: 4. immersion.

Feedback: In the stage called resistance and immersion, the culturally different person experiences a strong sense of identification with, and commitment to, his or her minority group, and rejects the dominant values of society and culture. In the conformity (Response 3) stage, which is the first stage of this model, the minority person is distinguished by unequivocal preference for the dominant culture’s values and the tendency to adopt negative stereotypes about his or her own minority culture as well as all other minority groups. In the dissonance stage (Response 1), the person experiences a growing awareness that not all values of the dominant group are beneficial, which leads to questioning and challenging of attitudes and beliefs. In the introspection stage (Response 2), the person begins to discover that the level of intensity of negative feelings directed toward the majority culture is draining, and also recognizes that many elements of the majority culture are highly functional and desirable.

Question 10

118. Howard’s meta-analytic studies of psychotherapy outcome have found that by the end of six months of treatment ____ percent of client’s are measurably improved:
119. 25.
120. 50.
122. 90.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: 3. 75

Feedback: Howard et al (1986) found that 50% of patients were measurable improved by the end of the eighth session (Response 2), and that 75% of patients were measurably improved by the end of six months.

Question 11

122. According to Piaget, when a child is not able to see that there is the same amount of water when it is poured from a container of one shape into a container of a different shape, he is in the pre-operational state. This is a consequence of:
123. irreversibility.
124. centration.
125. conservation.
126. phenomenalistic causality.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: 1. irreversibility.

Feedback: According to Piaget’s Stage Theory, one of the characteristics of the pre-operational stage is irreversibility (Response 1) which refers to the inability to mentally undo something. In this case, the water was poured into a different container in front of the child, who was then unable to think back to the initial stage of the action. Centration (Response 2) is another aspect of the pre-operational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on only one aspect when observing a stimulus. In this situation, centration is also occurring, when the child focuses only on the level of the water. Nevertheless, irreversibility is the better answer because the key difficulty the child experiences in this scenario is the inability to think back to the initial situation. Phenomenalistic causality (Response 4) is also associated with the pre-operational stage and involves a sense of magical thinking where events that co-occur in time are thought to be causally connected. Conservation (Response 3) is the ability to recognize that objects conserve their characteristics regardless of a change in shape or form, a development associated with the concrete operational stage. In this scenario the child is unable to conserve.

Question 12

126. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, job context factors have an effect on:
127. dissatisfaction but not satisfaction
128. satisfaction but not dissatisfaction.
129. both satisfaction and dissatisfaction.
130. neither satisfaction nor dissatisfaction.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: 1. dissatisfaction but not satisfaction

Feedback: Herzberg’s two-factor or motivator-hygiene theory proposes that there are different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction in the workplace. He divides needs into upper and lower level needs. Lower level needs, also called hygiene factors or dissatisfiers, relate to job context, such as pay, working conditions, and supervision. They result in dissatisfaction when they are not adequate, but do not produce satisfaction. Upper level needs, called motivators or satisfiers, relate to job content and include needs for achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. It is thought that meeting these needs increases satisfaction and motivation, but failing to meet these needs does not result in dissatisfaction.

Question 13

128. Thermal biofeedback is commonly used to treat migraine headaches. In general, the research has demonstrated that:
129. thermal biofeedback is more effective than relaxation procedures.
130. relaxation procedures are more effective than thermal biofeedback.
131. thermal biofeedback paired with relaxation is more effective than self-monitoring.
132. thermal biofeedback is as effective as self-monitoring.

Answer 13

Feedback: Most research has found that relaxation training and biofeedback are about equally effective in the treatment of migraine headaches (ruling out Responses 1and 2). In clinical practice and research, the two treatments are often combined, sometimes called biofeedback-assisted relaxation training. This combined treatment has been shown to be quite effective, and to be more effective than self-monitoring (Response 4). [In research on treatment of migraine headaches, self-monitoring is commonly the control condition.] Although biofeedback combined with relaxation training is probably more effective than either approach alone, the research has not yet demonstrated this conclusively.

Correct Answer: 3. thermal biofeedback paired with relaxation is more effective than self-monitoring.

Question 14

129. Which theorist believes that maladaptive behavior results from people’s attempts to make up for perceived or real disabilities as children?
130. Freud.
131. Adler.
132. Horney.
133. Jung.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: 2. Adler.

Feedback: Adler originated the notion of the inferiority complex. He believed that children experience a sense of inadequacy, based on both real and perceived limitations. To overcome these feelings of inadequacy and achieve a sense of mastery, they develop a lifestyle (personality), which can be either adaptive or maladaptive. In Adlerian therapy, the lifestyle is examined: mistaken goals and faulty assumptions are discovered and, ideally, modified to be more personally and socially constructive. Adlerian Psychology is also known as Individual Psychology.

Question 15

130. According to research, bullying is best thought of as:
131. a normal aspect of childhood.
132. a risk factor for other violent behaviors.
133. an indication of underlying depression and low self-esteem.
134. an indication of conduct disorder or antisocial personality disorder.

Answer 15

Correct Answer: 2. a risk factor for other violent behaviors.

Feedback: According to the research conducted by the National Institute of Child Health and Human Development, bullying may suggest involvement in other violent behavior at present or involvement in more violent behaviors in the future (e.g., carrying a weapon, fighting). Victims of bullying may also be at risk for engaging in violent behaviors themselves. Experts do not consider bullying to be a normal aspect of childhood (ruling out Response 1). There is mixed support for the idea that bullying indicates depression or self-esteem problems (Response 3), with this idea generally falling out of favor among experts. Antisocial personality disorder (Response 4) cannot be diagnosed until a person is at least 18 years old, and requires evidence of conduct disorder prior to age 15. Bullying is one criterion of conduct disorder; however, the diagnosis requires that additional criteria are met (e.g., destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, serious violation of rules).

Question 16

133. It is thought that self-mutilation among survivors of sexual abuse:
134. is rare, but may be a precursor to suicide.
135. may be an attempt to elicit additional support and empathy from the therapist.
136. may be an attempt to cope with emotional pain.
137. may be an attempt to seek secondary gain.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: 3. may be an attempt to cope with emotional pain.

Feedback: Some patients who self-mutilate report that the infliction of physical pain is an attempt to deaden the overwhelming emotional pain experienced. By contrast, others note that the infliction of physical pain is the only means they have to feel anything when they are in a numbed, emotionless state – the pain actually helps them to feel more alive. Thus, self-mutilation among survivors of sexual abuse appears to be an attempt to cope with pain. Self-mutilation is common in survivors of sexual assault, and typically does not suggest suicidality (ruling out Response 1). Self-mutilation is not an attempt to elicit support (Response 2), nor is it an attempt to seek secondary gain (e.g., financial compensation/disability).

Question 17

136. Your patient has been overlooked for a promotion, and complains about “stupid management who can’t see my talent.” His response could best be described as:
137. emic.
138. etic.
139. alloplastic.
140. autoplastic.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: 3. alloplastic.

Feedback: Alloplastic reactions to stress involve trying to change the external environment or blaming the external environment, as the patient does in this scenario. Autoplastic reactions to stress involve trying to change oneself or blaming oneself (Response 4). If the patient were using an autoplastic defense, he might say that he wasn’t as smart as the other employees or that he was going to try to improve his performance. Some theorists argue that people with personality disorders use alloplastic defenses whereas neurotic people use autoplastic defenses. Emic and etic are terms borrowed from anthropology to describe different approaches to human behavior. Etic (Response 2), refers to a non-culture specific approach that looks for universal principles, described in the work of Maslow. Emic (Response 1) involves a culture specific approach, as seen in the work of Carol Gilligan.

Question 18

137. When running an ANOVA, a pooled error term is justified when:
138. sample size is unequal.
139. variance is equal.
140. all cells have the same number of subjects.
141. homoscedasticity is violated.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: 2. variance is equal

Feedback: This is a difficult question, requiring an advanced understanding of statistics. It is best to simply know that a pooled error term is used when there is homogeneity of variance (i.e., the variance is equal). When variance is not equal, a separate error term should be used. Homoscedasticity also refers to equal variance. If it were violated (Response 4), the variance would not be equal and a pooled error term could not be used. A mnemonic here might be: when things are equal, they can be pooled together; when unequal, they must be treated separately. Sample size (Response 1) and the number of subjects per cell (Response 3) are not the determining factors in the use of a pooled error term.

Question 19

140. A child is diagnosed with specific learning disorder with impairment in mathematics but actually does not have the disorder. The most likely explanation for this misdiagnosis is:
141. the student’s lack of interest in math.
142. the student’s being a girl.
143. poor instruction by the teacher.
144. peer pressure.

Answer 19

Correct Answer: 3. poor instruction by the teacher

Feedback: According to the DSM-5, a specific learning disorder with impairment in mathematics is diagnosed when a student’s performance on an individually administered test of math achievement is substantially below what would be expected based on age. The criterion for substantially below is an achievement test score that is at least 1.5 standard deviations (SD) below the population mean for age (below the 7th percentile), not better accounted for by intellectual disabilities. Math achievement is highly dependent on the quality of instruction; a significant number of children diagnosed with specific learning disorder with impairment in mathematics do not have a disorder but simply have not received appropriate instruction.

Question 20

141. You receive a subpoena for your records. Your best course of action would be to:
142. comply with the subpoena if your client consents to the release of the records.
143. comply with the subpoena and release the records to the judge.
144. bring the records to the court at the appointed time.
145. seek legal consultation.

Answer 20

Feedback: When you receive a subpoena for your records, you must bring them to court at the appointed time. You could release the records if the client consents (Response 1). If the client does not want the records released, you would assert privilege, rather than turn over the records (Response 2), and the judge would decide if the situation warrants an exception to privilege or not. You may want to seek legal consultation (Response 4), but this alone is not sufficient.

Correct Answer: 3. bring the records to the court at the appointed time.

Question 21

143. In a single-subject research design, which of the following is the most significant problem?
144. Autocorrelation.
145. Multicollinearity.
146. Regression to the mean.
147. Practice effects.

Answer 21

Correct Answer: 1. Autocorrelation.

Feedback: When the same subject is measured repeatedly, the measures demonstrate a high degree of correlation, which is termed autocorrelation. Autocorrelation can either appear to enhance or to decrease the effect of the independent variable. Multicollinearity (Response 2) is a problem in multiple regression analysis when the predictors are highly correlated. Response 3 and 4 are general threats to internal validity and are not relevant here. While single-subject designs do involve repeatedly measuring subjects, the measures are not always tests (e.g., the measure can be frequency of observed behavior); hence, practice effects (Response 4) are not always a problem.

Question 22

145. A company wants to make major changes in customer relations and hires a consultant to help implement these changes according to the principles of organizational development. This consultant meets with certain employees who are resistant to the recent changes to help them implement the new customer relations procedures. This is an example of:
146. program-centered administrative consultation.
147. consultee-centered administrative consultation.
148. consultee-centered case consultation.
149. client-centered case consultation.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: 2. consultee-centered administrative consultation

Feedback: This scenario depicts an example of consultee-centered administrative consultation. In this situation, the consultant is working with employees in order to improve the implementation of a program. In addition, this consultant is specifically addressing the employees’ attitudes toward how the program is being conducted. In program-centered administrative consultation (Response 1), the focus is on the program itself, for example, how to develop a program for customer relations. In consultee-centered case consultation (Response 3), the consultant works with the consultee on his or her difficulties with patients. In client-centered case consultation (Response 4), the focus is on helping the consultee with a particular patient.

Question 23

146. Brainstorming is most likely to be effective when done:
147. in a large group format.
148. by individuals independently.
149. in a small group format.
150. in the presence of the company president.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: 2. by individuals independently.

Feedback: Overall, it has been found that when people brainstorm alone, they come up with better solutions than when they brainstorm in a group.

Question 24

151. The Primary Mental Abilities Test:
152. is a multifaceted test of intelligence.
153. is a test that predicts vocational success.
154. is a broad-based aptitude test.
155. is a test of both short- and long-term memory.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: 1. is a multifaceted test of intelligence.

Feedback: The Primary Mental Abilities Test was developed by Thurstone, and is a multifaceted test of intelligence (Response 1) which is based on the premise that intelligence is multifactored (e.g., verbal comprehension, reasoning, perceptual speed).

Question 25

153. John is getting a low grade in high school biology. He is offered the opportunity to earn extra credit by dissecting a frog, an action he opposes on moral grounds. When Laura finds out that John did in fact dissect a frog, she says that she’s always known he was like that. Laura’s statement is an example of:
154. a situational attribution.
155. the actor-observer bias.
156. the fundamental attribution error.
157. a hedonic attribution.

Answer 25

Feedback: When Laura says that John is “like that,” she is making a dispositional or internal attribution (ruling out Response 1). Her behavior is an example of the fundamental attribution error, because she attributes John’s action to an internal cause (his personality) rather than a situational cause (needing to raise his grade). The actor-observer bias (Response 2) occurs when an attribution is made both about oneself and about another person (typically around a negative outcome). People tend to attribute their own actions to situational factors, while minimizing the role of dispositional elements (e.g., “I failed the test because it was hard”), and attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors (e.g., “He failed the test because he isn’t smart”). Hedonic bias (Response 4), also known as the self-serving bias, proposes that people attribute their successes to internal factors and attribute their failures to external factors. Response 2 and 4 don’t apply here because Laura is not making any attributions about her own behavior.

Correct Answer: 3. the fundamental attribution error.

Question 26

155. The association between two variables, when each variable’s association with another variable has been removed, is known as:
156. analysis of covariance.
157. partial correlation.
158. semi-partial correlation.
159. coefficient of determination.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: 2. partial correlation.

Feedback: This is a tricky question that would be difficult to guess correctly. A partial correlation is the correlation (“association”) between two variables when the association between a third variable and each of the two original variables has been partialed out (“removed”). In a semi-partial correlation (Response 3), the association with the third variable is partialed out for only one of the two initial variables. Analysis of Covariance or ANCOVA (Response 1) uses a similar process, but ANCOVAs, which are a variant of ANOVAs, examine the difference between groups whereas this question calls for a measure of association or correlation. Finally, the coefficient of determination (Response 4) is the term for the proportion of variance shared by two variables and is the square of the correlation coefficient.

Question 27

156. The theory of motivation most closely associated with fairness and unfairness is:
157. acquired needs theory.
158. expectancy theory.
159. two-factor theory.
160. equity theory.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: 4. equity theory.

Feedback: If you were unfamiliar with these theories, you may have been able to guess simply by associating the word equity with equitable or fair. Adams’ equity theory proposes that people look at the ratio of self inputs/self outcomes as compared with other’s inputs/other’s outcomes. Inequity is seen as a motivating state that spurs people to alter their behavior. McClelland’s acquired needs theory (Response 1) describes three significant work-related needs. nAch is the desire to do something better, solve problems, and master tasks. nAff is the desire to establish and maintain friendly relations. nPower is the desire to control, influence, and be responsible for others. Most important to this theory is that these needs are acquired over time, and research has confirmed that people can be trained to think more like high nAch. General expectancy theory (Response 2), sometimes called VIE theory, proposes that people behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow. The three facets of this theory include: first, employees decide how likely their work efforts will result in the desired achievement on task performance (expectancy); second, how likely rewards will follow (instrumentality), and third what value the rewards have to the person (valence). Herzberg’s two-factor theory, or motivator-hygiene theory (Response 3), looks at different sources of satisfaction and dissatisfaction in the workplace.

Question 28

157. Apraxia and left-right confusion indicate damage to the:
158. frontal lobe.
159. temporal lobe.
160. parietal lobe.
161. occipital lobe.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: 3. parietal lobe.

Feedback: Apraxia (a disturbance in carrying out motor activities) and left-right confusion indicate damage to the parietal lobe. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory areas that process somatosensory information including light touch, pain, heat, and proprioception (the ability to locate one’s body parts). People with parietal lobe damage frequently experience apraxias in dressing. The frontal lobes (Response 1) control planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the primary auditory cortex, and are also involved in emotional behavior and memory. The occipital lobes (Response 4) house the primary visual cortex.

Question 29

158. A key distinction between traditional assessment and behavioral assessment is that:
159. behavioral assessment tends to be ongoing.
160. traditional assessment typically involves pre and post testing.
161. behavioral assessment may have limited face validity.
162. traditional assessment is frequently unreliable.

Answer 29

Correct Answer: 1. behavioral assessment tends to be ongoing.

Feedback: As the design of single-subject research suggests, behavioral assessment tends to be ongoing. For example, the frequency of an autistic child’s head-banging is recorded in every therapy session or the Beck Depression Inventory is given to an adult with depression at the start of every psychotherapy session. Traditional assessment batteries tend to be completed at one time (perhaps over the course of several sessions), and do not typically include pre and post testing (Response 2). Behavioral assessment generally has better face validity than traditional assessment, eliminating Response 3. For example, in the case of an agoraphobic patient, behavioral assessment might measure frequency of leaving the house whereas traditional assessment might include the MMPI which has many seemingly irrelevant items, such as “Do you read mechanics magazines?” Finally, the measures most commonly used in traditional assessment have undergone rigorous testing to ensure reliability (Response 4).

Question 30

159. It is through play that the child develops:
160. skills for rest, relaxation, and managing stress.
161. the capacity for trust, closeness, and warmth.
162. mastery of language skills and abilities.
163. mastery of difficult feelings.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: 4. mastery of difficult feelings.

Feedback: The most significant aspects of child’s play is that it allows the child to try out new roles, and master difficult feelings and situations. While play can be relaxing, it is not thought to facilitate development of stress management skills in children (Response 1). The capacity for trust, closeness, and warmth comes from early parenting experiences, especially during the first year (Response 2). Mastery of language (Response 3) is thought to take place independently of play.

Question 31

160. Which of the following exemplifies an approach-avoidance conflict?
161. A woman decides to quit her job because she finds it too stressful.
162. A woman is offered a job that pays much more than her current job, but she likes her current job.
163. A man is offered a job that pays well, but requires long hours and extensive travel.
164. A man who is looking for a job declines two offers that he does not like.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: 3. A man is offered a job that pays well, but requires long hours and extensive travel.

Feedback: In the approach-avoidance conflict a person must choose whether to do something that will have both desirable and undesirable results. In this situation, the approach-avoidance conflict is whether to take a job that pays well (desirable results), yet requires long hours and extensive travel (undesirable results). In an approach-approach conflict a person must choose between two favorable alternatives (Response 2). In an avoidance-avoidance conflict, the person has to choose between two unpleasant alternatives, both of which lead to negative results. In Responses 1 and 4, there are no indications of conflict.

Question 32

161. Ms. Novice is a psychology intern treating a patient with borderline personality disorder. For the last three months, the patient has complained in every session that Ms. Novice is inexperienced, that nothing she has said has helped him, and that he doubts she will ever be of any use to him. Frustrated by the apparent lack of progress, Ms. Novice goes into her next supervision session and suggests that she obtain an outside consultation on this case. Her supervisor would be most accurate if she tells Ms. Novice that her suggestion is an example of:
162. countertransference.
163. acting out.
164. identification.
165. parallel process.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: 4. parallel process.

Feedback:Parallel process occurs when a therapist feels and acts toward her supervisor in a manner similar to how her patient acts and feels towards her. In other words, the process of supervision is paralleling the process of therapy. In this example, Ms. Novice is feeling (and complaining) that her supervisor is not helpful just as her patient is complaining that Ms. Novice is not helpful. Although Ms. Novice’s feeling and behavior may stem from countertransference (Response 1) or projective identification parallel process more fully explains what is happening in this scenario. Projective identification (Response 3) involves both loving and hateful feelings being transferred from the client into the therapist, in an unconscious attempt to evoke empathy and understanding. Acting out (Response 2) refers to a patient’s acting on transference feelings (e.g., coming late, missing sessions, not paying) as opposed to talking about the transference in session.

Question 33

163. Sex with a former psychotherapy patient is ethically permissible:
164. “in the most unusual circumstances.”
165. after two years from the time of termination.
166. when the psychologist determines that there is no potential for harm to the former patient.
167. after two years from the time of termination and “in the most unusual circumstances.”

Answer 33

Correct Answer: 4. after two years from the time of termination and “in the most unusual circumstances.”

Feedback: This may be a difficult question because all of the responses contain a kernel of truth, but only one response is the best answer. The Ethics Code states that sex with former patients is only acceptable when two conditions are both met: 1) at least two years have passed; and 2) “the most unusual circumstances” exist. Either condition by itself (Responses 1 and 2) is insufficient. The psychologist still carries the burden to show that no exploitation of the client has occurred in light of seven factors: time passed since termination, the nature and duration of treatment, circumstances of termination, personal history of the client, the client’s current mental status, likelihood of adverse impact (Response 3), and sexual statements made during treatment.

Question 34

166. Fifty subjects are given a boring book to read, and are then asked to say they liked the book when they speak to a confederate posing as a book reviewer. Half of the people (Group A) are paid $5 to tell the lie, and the other half of the people (Group B) are paid $50. What will happen when the subjects are asked to report their true reactions to the book?
167. Group A will report greater liking for the book than will group B.
168. Group B will report greater liking for the book than will group A.
169. Both groups will say they enjoyed the book equally.
170. Neither group will say that they enjoyed the book.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: 1. Group A will report greater liking for the book than will group B.

Feedback: This question is about Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory. According to this theory, people experience dissonance when they hold conflicting cognitions, or when they behave in a manner which conflicts with existing cognitions. In order to resolve this unpleasant feeling of dissonance, people change their cognitions. Here, those paid $5 experience dissonance between their attitude (the book is boring) and their behavior (lying for a mere $5); they therefore feel discomfort and change their attitude to reduce the discomfort. By contrast, those paid $50 experience much less dissonance between their attitude (the book is boring) and their behavior (it’s worth $50 to lie); they therefore have no incentive to change their cognitions.

Question 35

167. According to Deci, the effects of extrinsic rewards on intrinsic motivation is such that:
168. extrinsic rewards decrease intrinsic motivation.
169. intrinsic motivation may not be decreased when the extrinsic reward is based on competency.
170. intrinsic motivation may not be decreased when the extrinsic reward serves only a controlling function.
171. there is no conclusive evidence with regard to the effects of extrinsic rewards on intrinsic motivation.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: 2. intrinsic motivation may not be decreased when the extrinsic reward is based on competency.

Feedback: Again, you may not have ever heard of Deci, however, you might have been able to apply logic and the process of elimination to this question. Research indicates that extrinsic rewards can sometimes decrease intrinsic motivation (ruling out Response 1 which is too absolute). In the classic study, children were given artist’s paper and felt-tipped pens. One group was promised a “Good Player” certificate for their drawings; the second group received an unexpected reward when they were done; and the third group was not promised and did not receive a reward. A few weeks later, the same children were allowed to draw during free-play time. The group that was promised and received the reward showed significantly less interest in drawing than the other two groups, indicating that an extrinsic reward lowered intrinsic motivation. However, sometimes extrinsic rewards can actually increase intrinsic motivation. For example, receiving a raise at work can work as positive feedback about one’s performance and thereby increase intrinsic motivation. Deci points out that it depends on whether the rewards are used to control (in which case intrinsic motivation decreases) or inform (in which case intrinsic motivation increases).

Question 36

168. An example of cluster sampling is:
169. dividing the California population into groups based on income levels and then randomly selecting equal-sized samples from the groups.
170. randomly selecting Californians from different income levels in proportion to their representation in the population.
171. dividing the population into groups based on California counties and then randomly selecting samples from randomly selected counties.
172. selecting from the population of California such that each person has an equal likelihood of being selected.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: 3. dividing the population into groups based on California counties and then randomly selecting samples from randomly selected counties.

Feedback: Cluster sampling involves identifying naturally occurring groups or clusters (e.g., schools in a school district, counties in a state) and then randomly selecting certain of these clusters. Typically, all the subjects within the selected clusters are then sampled. Alternatively, subjects may be randomly selected from the clusters (Response 3). Response 1 describes stratified random sampling. Response 2 describes proportional sampling. Response 4 describes simple random sampling.

Question 37

169. As opposed to a transactional leader, a transformational leader is more likely to:
170. provide individualized rewards to workers for exceptional productivity.
171. troubleshoot problems with a worker’s performance before the next performance evaluation.
172. allow workers to work on their own without close supervision or leadership.
173. focus on empowering workers through inspiration and charisma.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: 4. focus on empowering workers through inspiration and charisma.

Feedback: Transactional leaders are more traditional leaders. They focus on the transactions or social exchanges between supervisor and worker. For example, they reward or punish worker behavior (Response 1). Troubleshooting (Response 2) and allowing autonomy (Response 3) would also be consistent with transactional leaders. Transformational leaders, by contrast, focus on creating a vision, inspiring, and motivating workers.

Question 38

171. Violence is the major cause of death among adolescents. The factor that accounts for the largest number of these violent deaths is:
172. homicide among Caucasian males.
173. homicide among African American males.
174. suicide among Caucasian males.
175. suicide among African American males.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: 2. homicide among African American males.

Feedback: Homicide among African American males account for the largest proportion of adolescent deaths due to violence. It is estimated that over half of the deaths among African American males between the ages of 15 and 24 are the result of homicide.

Question 39

172. Schizoaffective disorder involves:
173. alternating periods of major mood episodes with symptoms of schizophrenia.
174. the concurrent presence of a major mood episode with symptoms of schizophrenia; additionally there are delusions or hallucinations present for at least two weeks without mood symptoms.
175. the concurrent presence of symptoms of schizophrenia with a major mood episode; additionally there is a major mood episode for at least two weeks without delusions or hallucinations.
176. a form of schizophrenia in which mood symptoms are very prominent.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: 2. the concurrent presence of a major mood episode with symptoms of schizophrenia; additionally there are delusions or hallucinations present for at least two weeks without mood symptoms.

Feedback: DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for schizoaffective disorder include an uninterrupted period of illness during which there has been a major mood episode (e.g., major depressive or manic) concurrent with the symptoms of schizophrenia. In addition, during that period of illness, there have been delusions or hallucinations for at least 2 weeks without prominent mood symptoms. A key aspect of the DSM-5 definition is that mood and psychotic symptoms need to be concurrent (ruling out Response 1). Response 3 is the exact reverse of the criteria. Schizoaffective disorder is not a form of schizophrenia (Response 4); rather it is considered a schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder. HINT: the disorder’s name “schizoaffective” suggests that the “schizo” or symptoms of schizophrenia predominate.

Question 40

173. Treatment of sex offenders is a controversial area, both in research and public policy. Which of the following statements best summarizes the current state of research in this area?
174. Treatment only works in the short-term.
175. Treatment is only effective among the less serious offenders.
176. Treatment reduces the recidivism rate.
177. Treatment increases the recidivism rate.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: 3. Treatment reduces the recidivism rate.

Feedback: The recidivism rate is the rate of re-offending. Overall, treatment for sex offenders is not nearly as effective as we would like it to be, but it does show some successes. One review of the literature, for example, showed that treatment reduced recidivism rates by 30% over the course of seven years. Although this is a significant reduction, the vast majority of offenders do offend again. Still, it is inaccurate to simply say that treatment only works in the short-term (Response 1). It is true that treatment success is less for hardcore sex offenders (Response 2), but nevertheless there is still some reduction in recidivism among these offenders.

Question 41

175. An assistant professor is being considered for advancement to full professor status. The Dean notes that two complaints of sexual harassment have been lodged against her. Neither complaint has been heard by the appropriate body and neither has been resolved. The Dean recommends that these complaints be ignored when deciding on the professor’s advancement. Based on the American Psychological Association’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct, how would the Dean’s recommendation be viewed?
176. As legal, but not ethical.
177. As ethical.
178. As unethical.
179. Not enough information is provided to make a clear decision.

Answer 41

Correct Answer: 2. As ethical.

Feedback: The Ethics Code prohibits using a complaint of sexual harassment as grounds for denying academic admittance or advancement, employment, tenure, or promotion. However, the manner in which the compliant is resolved (e.g., a conviction of sexual harassment) may be factored into these decisions.

Question 42

176. Which of the following factors are most likely to contribute to aggressive behavior by people who are not typically violent?
177. Conformity and unanimity.
178. Deindividuation and unanimity.
179. Conformity and anonymity.
180. Deindividuation and anonymity.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: 4. Deindividuation and anonymity

Feedback: This question is based on Zimbardo’s study of the influence of groups on individual behavior. Based on his work, it has been found that deindividuation and anonymity contribute to aggressive behavior by typically placid individuals. Deindividuation refers to the process of suspending one’s private self-identity and adopting instead the identity of the group, along with decreased self-awareness and self-regulation. The critical factor in deindividuation is anonymity. Unanimity is a factor that is crucial in conformity, and not deindividuation. Conformity is the process of changing one’s behavior as a result of real or imagined group pressure, and is not thought to be the critical factor in deindividuation.

Question 43

177. Parents who allow their children freedom and do not provide firm guidelines tend to have children who are:
178. independent and self-confident.
179. moody and irritable.
180. aggressive and submissive.
181. self-centered and impulsive.

Answer 43

Correct Answer: 4. self-centered and impulsive.

Feedback: Permissive or laissez-faire parents who allow their children to regulate their own lives and provide few firm guidelines tend to have children who are impulsive, self-centered, and who act out. Authoritative parents tend to have children who are independent and self-confident (Response 1). Authoritative parents are firm, fair, and reasonable. Moodiness and irritability (Response 2) tend to result from authoritarian parenting, which is characterized by parents who are controlling and require unquestioned obedience. Authoritarian parenting can also result in aggressive and submissive behaviors in children (Response 3).

Question 44

178. On the MMPI-2, a low K indicates:
179. openness.
180. guardedness.
181. malingering.
182. random responding.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: 1. openness.

Feedback: The K scale on the MMPI measures guardedness or defensiveness. Based on the elevation on the K scale, a certain number of points are added to some of the clinical scales to correct for degree of guardedness. A low score on scale K suggests openness, while a high score on scale K indicates guardedness (Response 2). A high score on the F scale, which reflects infrequently endorsed items, could indicate malingering (Response 3) or random responding (Responses 4).

Question 45

179. The statement, “We feel sorry because we cry, angry because we strike, afraid because we tremble” is associated with:
180. William James.
181. Walter Cannon.
182. Stanley Schacter.
183. Abraham Maslow.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: 1. William James.

Feedback: This statement was made by William James in 1890, and is the underlying premise of the James-Lange theory of emotion. According to this theory, a person perceives an event (sees a bear), the body reacts (the person runs away), and then the person interprets the bodily changes as a specific emotion (so I must be afraid). By contrast, the Cannon-Bard Theory (Response 2) proposes that during perception of an emotion-provoking stimulus (seeing a bear), the thalamus sends simultaneous signals to the body (allowing the person to run) and the cortex (producing the emotion of fear). Therefore, the body’s response is not a necessary or even a major factor in emotion. Schacter’s two-factor theory of emotion (Response 3) attributes emotion to two factors: physical arousal and a cognitive labeling of the arousal. He proposes that people look to external rather than internal cues to differentiate and label emotions. For example, if someone cries at a wedding, he interprets the emotion as joy; if the same person cries at a funeral, he interprets the emotion as sadness. Maslow (Response 4) did not develop a theory of emotions.

Question 46

180. You are working with a patient diagnosed with alcohol use disorder. You recommend that each day that goes by that he doesn’t drink he does something nice for himself (e.g., goes to a movie, goes out to dinner, etc.). You are making this recommendation based on your knowledge of the effects of:
181. a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement.
182. DRO.
183. negative reinforcement.
184. classical conditioning.

Answer 46

Correct Answer: 2. DRO.

Feedback: In this situation you are recommending to your patient that he reinforce or reward himself daily for engaging in behaviors other than drinking. This is the basis of DRO (differential reinforcement of other behaviors). In a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement, reinforcement is possible only after a fixed period of time has elapsed, provided the person emits the target behavior (Response 1). The main reasons that DRO is the better response here is that we are trying to eliminate or reduce the target behavior (problem drinking) by reinforcing alternate behaviors. We are not reinforcing the target behavior as with a fixed interval schedule of reinforcement. Similarly, negative reinforcement is also an attempt to increase target behavior. Negative reinforcement involves relief, or the removal of something annoying or aversive after the target behavior is performed (Response 3). Classical conditioning involves learning based on pairing a conditioned stimulus (CS) and an unconditioned stimulus (US), which is not the case here (Response 4).

Question 47

181. You appear on a national television show as an expert in anxiety. An audience member reports that she gets nervous around people and asks for your advice. Which of the following would be your best course of action?
182. Provide her with a list of licensed psychologists in her area.
183. Clarify that you must establish a therapeutic relationship with her before you can give her advice.
184. Help her link current feelings of anxiety with past experiences.
185. Describe current research findings regarding social anxiety.

Answer 47

Correct Answer: 4. Describe current research findings regarding social anxiety.

Feedback: The Ethics Code provides clear guidelines for media psychologists. According to standard 5.04, the statements of media psychologists must be based on appropriate psychological literature and practice, must be consistent with the Ethics Code, and must make clear that there is no therapeutic relationship established (the opposite of Response 2). Although referring her to psychologists (Response 1) may be appropriate, it is usually something done off the air and does not address the key ethical issue here. Encouraging the woman to delve into her past (Response 3) is inappropriate in this setting and clearly would give the impression that psychotherapy was being provided.

Question 48

182. In developmental theory, the term decalage refers to:
183. risk factors for the development of psychopathology.
184. unevenness in development.
185. decreasing brain plasticity that occurs around age seven or eight.
186. inability for some persons to reach the highest stages of development.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: 2. unevenness in development.

Feedback: Decalage refers to unevenness in development in any area, but it is most commonly applied to cognitive, emotional, and moral development. An example of decalage is a mentally retarded teenager who has the cognitive capacities of a second grader, and the normal sexual urges of an adolescent.

Question 49

184. Referent power refers to power that comes from viewing another as:
185. the boss.
186. a colleague.
187. a role model.
188. an expert.

Answer 49

Correct Answer: 3. a role model.

Feedback: Referent power is one of Raven and French’s five types of power. Referent power is the power we give someone because we like the person or view him or her as a role model. A boss (Response 1) would have legitimate power (i.e., based on hierarchy), and an expert would have expert power (Response 4).

Question 50

185. The All-State School of Clinical Psychology requires students to receive at least one year of individual psychotherapy before their doctoral degrees are granted. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, this requirement is:
186. ethical, as long as this requirement has been made clear in descriptions of the doctoral program (e.g., brochures, application materials).
187. unethical, as psychotherapy cannot be made a requirement for a doctoral degree.
188. ethical, as long as no multiple relationships result.
189. ethical, as long as alternative methods of accruing credit are made available to those who do not wish to seek psychotherapy.

Answer 50

Correct Answer: 1. ethical, as long as this requirement has been made clear in descriptions of the doctoral program (e.g., brochures, application materials).

Feedback: The 2002 APA Ethics Code provides more safeguards and protections for students in educational programs that require psychotherapy. It is not considered unethical to require psychotherapy (ruling out Response 2). However, the requirement must be clearly spelled out in descriptions of the training program’s content. In addition, students must have the option of choosing providers who are not affiliated with the program. They may never receive therapy from faculty who evaluate or are likely to evaluate the students’ academic performance. While avoiding potentially harmful multiple relationships is important (Response 3), this alone does not make the therapy requirement ethical. Students do not have to have the option of other methods of accruing credit (Response 4); such a provision governs student participation in research projects.

Question 51

186. Tonic-clonic seizures are associated with:
187. petit mal seizures.
188. grand mal seizures.
189. complex partial seizures.
190. Jacksonian seizures.

Answer 51

Correct Answer: 2. grand mal seizures.

Feedback: A tonic-clonic convulsion refers to a seizure in which there is a tonic stage (characterized by continuous tension or contraction) followed by a clonic stage (rapid involuntary alternate muscular contractions and relaxation). Tonic clonic seizures occur during one type of generalized seizure, the grand mal seizures. A second form of generalized seizure is the petit mal seizure, also referred to as absence seizure (Response 1). Petit mal seizures occur most frequently in children. Lasting from 1 to 10 seconds, these seizures begin with a brief change in level of consciousness, followed by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements. Posture is retained and pre-seizure activity is returned to without difficulty. Partial seizures include the Jacksonian seizure (Response 4), characterized by an initially localized motor seizure, with a spread of abnormal activity to adjacent brain areas, and complex partial seizures (Response 3), which are frequently preceded by an aura, and usually include purposeless behavior (e.g., aimless wandering), lip smacking, and unintelligible speech.

Question 52

187. A manager has decided to perform a utility analysis in his department in order to measure:
188. the costs versus the benefits of implementing a training program.
189. the improvement in productivity from implementing a training program.
190. the cost-effectiveness of each of several different training programs.
191. employee performance.

Answer 52

Correct Answer: 2. the improvement in productivity from implementing a training program.

Feedback: Utility analysis is a quantitative research method that measures the effectiveness of an intervention in the workplace in terms of the dollar value of the benefits generated. This dollar value is determined based on the improvement in worker productivity. Response 1 refers to a cost-benefit analysis in which the costs and benefits of a new project or training program are compared. Response 3 describes a cost-effectiveness analysis which is a technique for selecting among competing options, for example, selecting among several different training programs based on what gives the greatest return for the least amount of money.

Question 53

188. A 42-year-old woman who works as a secretary comes to see you for what she calls a social phobia. She reports that her anxiety around others is extreme. She has seen many psychologists in the past. Your treatment does not seem to be helping her, yet she reports enjoying the feeling that she is in the “hands of a good doctor.” After two months, you see her at a party in a group of five people, laughing and telling a story. What diagnosis should you suspect?
189. Malingering.
190. Dissociative identity disorder.
191. Factitious disorder.
192. Illness anxiety disorder.

Answer 53

Correct Answer: 3. Factitious disorder.

Feedback: Factitious disorder is characterized by intentional feigning of physical or psychological symptoms, or by creation of injury or disease. The individual presents self (or other) as ill, impaired, or injured, and there is an absence of external incentives (e.g., compensation, disability) for the behavior. The motivation in factitious disorder is to assume the patient role. The information in this question suggests that the patient is feigning her symptoms and that she enjoys being a patient. Malingering (Response 1) involves feigning of symptoms for secondary gain (e.g., compensation). There is far too little evidence to suggest dissociative identity disorder (Response 2). Illness anxiety disorder (Response 4) involves a preoccupation with the fear of having, or the idea that one has a serious disease.

Question 54

189. What does the research indicate about risk factors in development?
190. Girls are more vulnerable to risk factors in their early years, while boys are more vulnerable in their later years.
191. Boys and girls are both more vulnerable to risk factors in childhood, as compared to adolescence.
192. Boys tend to be more resilient and less vulnerable to risk factors.
193. Girls tend to have a broader repertoire of coping abilities than boys.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: 4. Girls tend to have a broader repertoire of coping abilities than boys.

Feedback: In general, girls appear to possess a wider range of coping skills than boys, especially in forming relationships (ruling out Response 3). Overall, boys appear more vulnerable to risk factors from the prenatal period to about age ten, while girls grow more vulnerable to risk factors during their teens (ruling out Responses 1 and 2).

Question 55

190. According to Beck’s cognitive theory of depression:
191. cognitive distortions only occur during depression.
192. cognitive distortions are gradually made.
193. only depressed individuals have cognitive distortions about relationships.
194. depressed individuals manifest the depressive triad of distortions: guilt, anxiety, and hopelessness.

Answer 55

Correct Answer: 2. cognitive distortions are gradually made.

Feedback: Even if you don’t know the correct answer to this question, you may be able to arrive at it through a process of elimination. Cognitive distortions do not occur only during depression; they are present in other disorders and, to some extent, in non-depressed individuals (Responses 1 and 3). The depressive triad includes a negative view of the self, of the world, and of the future (Response 4). Eliminating these responses leaves Response 2 as the correct answer. Response 2 implies that cognitive distortions are developed over time and after a series of experiences.

Question 56

191. You are a psychologist assisting the defense and are called upon by the prosecution to testify as a fact witness. In this scenario, your most appropriate course of action would be to:
192. refuse to do so since this would create a conflict of interest.
193. do so only with your client’s consent.
194. refuse to do so since this would be considered a compromise of professional judgment and objectivity.
195. do so only after clarifying role expectations and extent of confidentiality.

Answer 56

Correct Answer: 4. do so only after clarifying role expectations and extent of confidentiality.

Feedback: The Ethics Code explicitly describes the appropriate course of action in this situation. When psychologists are called on to serve in more than one role in a legal proceeding (for example, as consultant or expert for one party or for the court and as a fact witness) they should clarify role expectations and the extent of confidentiality in advance.

Question 57

192. All of the following are components of Lazarus’s theory of emotion, stress, and coping except:
193. primary appraisal.
194. secondary appraisal.
195. tertiary appraisal.
196. re-appraisal.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: 3. tertiary appraisal.

Feedback: Lazarus attempted to explain the relationship between emotions, stress, and coping with his theory of cognitive appraisal. In primary appraisal, a situation is initially judged as being positive, stressful, or irrelevant to personal well-being. Secondary appraisal involves an evaluation of the resources the individual has available to cope with the situation. The individual then goes through a process of re-appraisal as both the stimulus situation and coping strategies are monitored, and primary and secondary appraisals are modified as necessary. A person suffers stress when he believes he lacks the resources to deal with difficult events, but he does not suffer stress if he believes he has such resources. Stress and coping are thus intimately related to each other and to cognitive factors. Tertiary appraisal is not a component of Lazarus’s theory.

Question 58

196. Results of studies on bilingual children have shown that:
197. bilingual children show cognitive deficits and learning difficulties.
198. the impact of bilingualism on cognitive development depends largely on the age of the child and the degree of exposure to different languages.
199. bilingual children generally do not exhibit cognitive deficits and tend to have greater cognitive flexibility.
200. there are no significant differences between bilingual and monolingual children in terms of cognitive development.

Answer 58

Correct Answer: 3. bilingual children generally do not exhibit cognitive deficits and tend to have greater cognitive flexibility.

Feedback: Although it was previously believed that bilingual children suffered deficiencies in language and cognitive development, recent research has indicated that knowledge of two languages may in fact increase cognitive flexibility.

Question 59

198. Behavioral marital therapy focuses on:
199. enhancement of independent functioning.
200. self-monitoring and self-management.
201. behavior exchange and communication/problem-solving.
202. marital contracts and participant modeling.

Answer 59

Correct Answer: 3. behavior exchange and communication/problem-solving.

Feedback: Behavioral marital therapy is rooted in social learning theory and behavioral analysis. This theory contends that maladaptive behavior is a result of deficient reward exchanges and communication problems. Thus, treatment is based on changing reinforcement for concrete behaviors (in terms of interpersonal consequences), and improving communication.

Question 60

199. Using biographical data in the hiring process has been shown to increase the number of employees who are evaluated as “satisfactory” at their first performance evaluation. This finding demonstrates that biographical data has:
200. construct validity.
201. convergent validity.
202. predictive validity.
203. concurrent validity.

Answer 60

Correct Answer: 3. predictive validity.

Feedback: In this example, biographical data show good criterion-related validity. The data are being used to predict future successful work performance. An example of establishing concurrent validity (Response 4) is finding a correlation between current motivation and current work performance. Convergent validity (Response 2) helps to establish construct validity. An example of convergent validity is a new intelligence test correlating highly with the WAIS-IV. Construct validity (Response 1) looks at how adequately a test measures an underlying hypothetical construct or trait. Evidence for construct validity can come from a variety of sources including factor analysis and the multitrait-multimethod matrix (which provides information on convergent validity and discriminant validity).

Question 61

200. A researcher wants to test her model of remarriage. What statistical technique should she use if her model includes multiple pathways involving multiple predictors and multiple criterion variables?
201. Structural equation modeling.
202. Hierarchical multiple regression.
203. MANOVA.
204. Trend analysis.

Answer 61

Correct Answer: 1. Structural equation modeling.

Feedback: Structural equation modeling (one type is known as LISREL) enables researchers to make inferences about causation. It can be used to test out many different causal pathways, involving multiple predictor and criterion variables. MANOVA (Response 3) involves one or more independent variables with at least two dependent variables; it is a test of group differences and would be inappropriate for testing a causal model. Similarly, trend analysis (Response 4) is also a test of group differences, used when the outcome data is non-linear. Although hierarchical multiple regressions (Response 2) are used to test theories, they can only include one criterion variable and do not test multiple pathways.