DSM 5 Test B

Question 1

3. Reactance describes:
4. a client’s behavior that inhibits the progress of therapy.
   •
5. emphasizing undesirable thoughts and behaviors.
   •
6. refusing to comply with a suggestion.
   •
7. turning back onto oneself what one wants to do to others.

Answer 1

3. refusing to comply with a suggestion.

Reactance, a concept in persuasion and attitude change, occurs when people feel pressured by a message and increase their resistance to persuasion. Response 1 describes resistance. Response 4 describes retroflection, a type of boundary disturbance in Gestalt therapy.

Question 2

5. A researcher is interested in how well IQ predicts success in high school (high school GPA). She selects a random sample of 8th graders. The standard error of measurement is:
   •
6. the average amount of error in predicting each subject’s high school GPA.
   •
7. the average amount of error in calculating each subject’s IQ score.
   •
8. the average amount of error in the group’s mean IQ score.
   •
9. the average amount of spread in the group’s IQ scores.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: 2. the average amount of error in calculating each subject’s IQ score.

Feedback: The standard error of measurement is the average amount of error in each person’s IQ score, as measured by the IQ test. The average amount of error in prediction (Response 1) describes the standard error of the estimate. The average amount of error in the group’s mean (Response 3), in relation to the population mean, is the standard error of the mean. The average amount of spread of IQ scores (Response 4) is the standard deviation of the IQ scores.

Question 3

7. A child who has suffered from chronic otitis media would most likely show a depressed score on which subtest of the WISC-IV?
•
1. Arithmetic.
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2. Digit span.
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3. Vocabulary. 
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4. Matrix reasoning.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: 3. Vocabulary.

Feedback: Children with chronic middle ear infections (chronic otitis media) often demonstrate long-term deficits in language capacities, such as vocabulary. In fact, the entire verbal comprehension factor will often be depressed on the WISC-IV (this factor includes similarities, vocabulary, comprehension, and the optional tests of information and word reasoning). Arithmetic (Response 1) and digit span (Response 2) load on the working memory factor, and are more likely to be affected by acute hearing infections rather than chronic ones. Matrix reasoning (Response 4) loads on the perceptual reasoning factor and would be comparatively unimpaired by ear infections. One way to approach this question is to recognize that arithmetic and digit span tap similar abilities (e.g., auditory processing, attention, concentration) and therefore it is somewhat unlikely that one would be influenced by ear infections without the other being similarly influenced.

Question 4

8. What do Wernicke's aphasia, Broca's aphasia, and conduction aphasia have in common?
•
1. Impaired fluency.
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2. Impaired verbal prosody. 
•
3. Impaired comprehension.
•
4. Impaired repetition of verbal tasks.

Answer 4

4. Impaired repetition of verbal tasks.

question is asking which impairment is common to all three types of aphasia.

Wernicke’s aphasia- speak in meangingless sentences, decreased language comprehension, able to speak fluently, intact verbal prosody. Would have difficulty repeating a verbal task.

Broca’s aphasia- severe difficulties in articulation, changes in prosody, and some problems in comprehension.

Conduction aphasia- intact comprehension, fluency, and prosody. The connection/pathway between Wernicke’s (reception) and Broca’s (articulation) is damaged, so cannot repeat words that they hear.

Question 5

What is prosody?

Answer 5

Prosody refers to the rhythmic and intonational aspect of language

Question 6

14. You are referred a chronic pain patient for testing. The physician reports that the patient has more pain than would be expected for his injury. After administering a battery of tests, you report that he does not have any Axis I disorders, and appears well-adjusted except that he reports a lot of pain. Given your report, the physician is most likely to prescribe:
•
1. an anti-psychotic drug.
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2. an anti-depressant drug. 
•
3. an anxiolytic.
•
4. a narcotic painkiller.

Answer 6

2. An anti-depressant drug

Chronic pain responds well to anti-depressant medication, but mechanism is unclear. Effects on pain seem to be independent of effects on depression symptoms.

Older tricyclics like Elavil (amitriptyline) have long history of effectiveness.

SSRIs- unclear if these are effectie in treating pain.

Antipsychotics- would be reserved for when pain appeared delusional. (but it is common for pts to have more pain than physicians think they should- so that does not make it delusional/psychotic)

Anxiolytics - s/t have role as muscle relaxants but not first line treatment for pain (Valium, Xanax)

Narcotic painkillers- used for tx of acute pain (e.g. pain lasting less than six months).

Once it is clear that pain is chronic rather than acute, emphasis is on use of non-narcotic pain management, and narcotics wouild only be used as last resort after trying all other options.

Question 7

17. Which of the following treatment approaches would be recommended for patients with factitious disorder?
    •
18. Active confrontation, with the goal of getting the patient to admit to intentionally producing the symptoms.
    •
19. Hypnosis and other methods of psychotherapy aimed to reveal the patient’s underlying unconscious conflicts.
    •
20. Gentle confrontation, support, and collaboration.
    •
21. Changing the behavioral contingencies so that the patient’s behavior no longer receives external incentives.

Answer 7

3. Gentle confrontation, support, and collaboration

Question 8

Factitious disorder

Answer 8

• symptoms are intentionally produced in the absence of external incentives.
• Goal is to assume the sick role.
• difficult to treat, no established treatment

The Merck Manual (2005) recommends that, “Patients with a factitious disorder should be confronted with the diagnosis without suggesting guilt or reproach. The physician must preserve the status of legitimate illness, while indicating that he and the patient can cooperatively resolve the underlying problem.”

Question 9

Conversion Disorder

Answer 9

-symptoms are not intentionally produced, and are incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions.
-symptoms may be an expression of an underlying unconscious conflict.
pts present with one or more symptoms or deficits affecting voluntary motor or sensory function.

Question 10

Malingering

Answer 10

deliberately feigning symptoms for external incentives

Question 11

19. Which of the following statements best addresses the ethical issues involved when a psychologist who is treating an incarcerated individual as a psychotherapy patient makes recommendations regarding parole?
    •
20. A psychologist should not make parole recommendations for an incarcerated psychotherapy patient because it would constitute a potentially harmful multiple relationship.
    •
21. A psychologist should not accept an incarcerated individual as a psychotherapy patient if the psychologist will be asked to make parole recommendations, because it is impossible to secure informed consent without coercion.
    •
22. It is usually considered ethically acceptable for psychologists to make parole recommendations for incarcerated psychotherapy patients.
    •
23. Psychologists may make parole recommendations for incarcerated psychotherapy patients, as long as an assessment of dangerousness is not required, because assessments of dangerousness have inadequate validity and reliability.

Answer 11

3. It is usually considered ethically acceptable for psychologists to make parole recommendations for incarcerated psychotherapy patients.

Question 12

22. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, when psychologists enter into a multiple relationship with a client, they:
23. According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, when psychologists enter into a multiple relationship with a client, they:
    •
24. are acting unethically.
    •
25. must get informed consent.
    •
26. must make sure that there is no impairment to the therapy and that no harm will befall the client.
    •
27. must exercise reasonable care.

Answer 12

3. must make sure that there is no impairment to the therapy and that no harm will befall the client.

Question 13

26. Which of the following is generally considered to be the best treatment for agoraphobia?
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1. Exposure. 
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2. Systematic desensitization.
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3. Implosive therapy.
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4. Operant extinction.

Answer 13

1. Exposure.

Question 14

What is systematic desensitization?

Answer 14

gradual exposure to feared stimuli whil using relaxation strategies. effective in treatment of specific phobias

Question 15

What is implosive therapy?

Answer 15

involves exposure in imagination only, includes exploration of psychosexual themes

Question 16

What leads to/causes operant extinction?

Answer 16

withholding reinforcement

Question 17

27. During which period of prenatal development is vulnerability to the effects of teratogenic agents greatest?
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1. The first eight weeks.
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2. The middle trimester. 
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3. The third trimester.
•
4. Just prior to birth.

Answer 17

1. The first eight weeks.

Question 18

What is a teratogen?

Answer 18

an agent that can cause birth defects. Examples = medications, viruses, radiation

Question 19

29. A patient presents with obsessive-compulsive disorder, multiple motor tics, and one vocal tic. The neurological basis for this patient's problems can probably be found in the:
•
1. temporal lobes.
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2. amygdala.
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3. prefrontal cortex.
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4. basal ganglia.

Answer 19

4. basal ganglia.

Basal Ganglia typically involved in initiation of movement.

Tourette’s disorder- caudate nucleus is smaller and predictive of tic severity. substantia nigra, ventral striatum, & globus pallidus are also implicated

Question 20

Basal Ganglia

Answer 20

group of nuclei deep in the brain that are involved in the initiation of movement.

• caudate nucleus, putamen, substantia nigra, globus pallidus, and subthalamic nucleus)
• receive instructions from prefrontal cortex

Question 21

Prefrontal Cortex

Answer 21

foremost section of the frontal lobes, sometimes referred to as the “executive center” of the brain.

Question 22

. When working with a Hispanic American male client, it is most important to:
•
1. speak Spanish.
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2. recognize the importance of machismo.
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3. identify the client’s level of acculturation.
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4. use only culture-fair psychological tests.

Answer 22

3. identify the client’s level of acculturation.

Question 23

34. A father nods and smiles at his daughter as he is teaching her to tie her shoelaces. His nods and smiles are an example of a:
•
1. discriminative stimulus.
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2. primary reinforcer.
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3. secondary reinforcer.
•
4. generalized conditioned reinforcer.

Answer 23

3. secondary reinforcer.

Question 24

What is a secondary reinforcer?

Answer 24

something that acquires reinforcing value only through experience

Question 25

What is a primary reinforcer?

Answer 25

reinforcers that reinforce everyone naturally, regardless of things like age or culture (e.g. food)

Question 26

What is a generalized conditioned reinforcer?

Answer 26

reinforcers that have reinforcing value because they provide access to other reinforcers (e.g. money, tokens)

Question 27

What is a discriminative stimulus?

Answer 27

a stimulus that signals whether reinforcement or punishment will be given

Question 28

35. A psychologist is asked to go into an assisted living community and redesign it to enhance interaction among residents. This is an example of:
•
1. primary prevention.
•
2. secondary prevention. 
•
3. tertiary prevention. 
•
4. preventative intervention.

Answer 28

3. tertiary prevention.

Why?
Tertiary prevention involves reducing residual effects or optimizing functioning of pts with a chronic condition. Here goal is optimizing functioning of residents who are presumably already old/isolated, so trying to improve quality of life rather than curing the disease (secondary prevention) or preventing it before it can develop (primary prevention)

Question 29

According to principles of community psychology, how many levels of prevention are there, and what are they?

Answer 29

Three.

Primary prevention- prevent onset of disease/disorder to reduce its incidence (e.g. vaccines)
Secondary prevention- early identification and prompt tx of disease that already exists, goal is to improve/cure the disease (e.g. mammograms)
Tertiary prevention- reduce residual effects or optimize functioning of pts with chronic conditions (e.g., AA, day treatment centers)

Question 30

36. A nine-year-old is asked why one should not steal. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, she would probably say:
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1. stealing is against the law.
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2. one can be punished for stealing. 
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3. stealing is wrong.
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4. thieves are bad people.

Answer 30

2. one can be punished for stealing.

Why? b/c according to Kohlberg a 9 y.o. is in preconventional morality stage, and this response typifies the punishment-obedience orientation, with a focus on avoiding punishment.

Question 31

An individual is asked why one should not steal, and responds that “stealing is against the law.” According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, this individual is in what stage?

Answer 31

Law and Order orientation (with focus on doing one’s duty)

Question 32

An individual is asked why one should not steal, and responds that “one can be punished for stealing.” According to Kohlberg, this individual is probably in which stage of moral development?

Answer 32

Stage of Preconventional Moralirty (response exemplifies punishment-obedience orientation, with a focus on avoiding punishment)

Question 33

An individual is asked why one should not steal, and responds that “stealing is wrong.” According to Kohlberg, this individual is probably in which stage of moral development?

Answer 33

Post-conventional morality (based on universal principles of justice, equality, and respect for life)

Question 34

An individual is asked why one should not steal, and responds that “thieves are bad people.” According to Kohlberg, this individual is probably in which stage of moral development?

Answer 34

Good boy/Good girl orientation of conventional morality (involves concern for gaining approval through obedience)

Question 35

38. Interval recording is used:
•
1. in conjunction with event sampling.
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2. when a behavior occurs infrequently.
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3. when a behavior has no clear beginning, middle, or end. 
•
4. to obtain a complete record of an event.

Answer 35

3. when a behavior has no clear beginning, middle, or end.

Question 36

Describe interval recording

Answer 36

• type of time sampling.
• time period is broken down into intervals (e.g. 1 hour broken down into 5 min intervals), and recorder marks if behavior occurs during each of those intervals.

Question 37

When is Event Sampling useful?

Answer 37

When a behavior occurs infrequently

Question 38

43. Which of the following theories did Donald Super apply to career development?
•
1. Self-esteem theory. 
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2. Self-concept theory.
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3. Social learning theory.
•
4. Two-factor theory.

Answer 38

2. Self-concept theory.

Why? Use process of elimination. Although Response 4 could be stretched to apply, two-factor theory is a theory of job motivation, not career development. Social learning theory (Response 3) is a widely-discussed theory, and chances are that if it had been applied to career development, you would have heard about it. Self-concept is a broader term, which can encompass self-esteem, and is the correct answer here.

Question 39

44. A behavior can be learned but will only be exhibited at a later time when the behavior is reinforced. This premise underlies:
•
1. Kohler's insight learning.
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2. Thorndike's law of effect.
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3. Tolman's latent learning. 
•
4. Occam's Razor (the principle of parsimony).

Answer 39

3. Tolman’s latent learning.

Tolman determined that rats developed “cognitive maps” of the mazes, thereby learning how to successfully run them, even though they would only demonstrate this learning when reinforcement was offered.

(Also, if you recognized that “latent” means potential or dormant, you might have been able to guess that Response 3 was correct)

Question 40

Kohler’s insight learning

Answer 40

• underlies Gestalt Psychology.
• developed via experiments with chimpanzees
• According to Kohler, insight can be acquired suddenly in an “aha” experience and involves a change in the cognitive organization of the environment.

Question 41

What is the principle of parsimony? Who developed it?

Answer 41

• also known as Occam’s Razor
• developed by William of Ockham in 14th century
• best explanation for a phenomenon is the one that is simplest and requires the fewest assumptions.

Question 42

45. Guided imagery is mostly used in:
46. Interpersonal Psychotherapy.
47. Psychoanalytic Therapy.
48. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy.
49. Client Centered Therapy.

Answer 42

3. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy.

Question 43

What is guided imagery and what is it used for?

Answer 43

• Guided imagery is a process whereby the therapist guides the client in a exercise that incorporates relaxing images.
• mostly used in CBT to help clients who have a variety of difficulties (e.g., anxiety or chronic pain).

Question 44

Describe Interpersonal Psychotherapy

Answer 44

• short-term therapy (~20 sessions)

- involves examining pt’s interpersonal relationships and how they impact a pre-existing depression.

Question 45

Describe Psychoanalytic Therapy

Answer 45

• predominantly uses relationship between the therapist and the patient to develop insight

Question 46

Describe Client Centered Therapy

Answer 46

• non-directive approach (e.g. Rogerian)
• focuses on increasing self-esteem and openness to experience by making use of congruence, empathy, and conditional positive regard.

Question 47

46. You have a significant amount of competence in conducting traditional assessments. When asked to assess a client with a disability with which you have no experience:
47. you should seek consultation on which instruments are most appropriate to use.
48. you can assess the person provided you have the data interpreted by a psychologist who has expertise with the particular disability.
49. you should refer the case out.
50. you should acquaint yourself with the differing norms on each instrument for persons with disabilities.

Answer 47

3. you should refer the case out.

Why? b/c this is a straightforward situation- you may have expertise in assessment but do NOT have experience with the client’s disability, so you should refer out.

Question 48

47. The principal of a school issues a regulation that punishment may no longer be used as a means of discipline. Whenever her class becomes noisy, the first-grade teacher turns off the lights and the children become less noisy. Has the teacher violated the regulation?
48. Yes, because the children stop making noise when the lights are turned off.
49. No, because turning off the lights acts as a negative reinforcer.
50. Possibly, depending on whether the frequency of noisy behavior decreases over time.
51. No, because turning off the lights is not aversive.

Answer 48

1. Yes, because the children stop making noise when the lights are turned off.

Why?

• b/c punishment is always present when a behavior decreases.
• the extent to which the intervention is aversive is irrelevant to deciding if it is punishment (so #3 is not the answer)

Teacher used Negative Punishment: 
Unwanted behavior (noise)->removal of the light (negative)->decrease in unwanted behavior (punishment)

Question 49

49. Handedness appears to be genetically determined. Preference for handedness first expresses itself at ____ and becomes firmly established by age ____:
50. birth, four to five.
51. age two, four to five.
52. age two, seven to eight.
53. age four, seven to eight.

Answer 49

3. age two, seven to eight.

Hand preference typically emerges around 2 y.o. and becomes firmly established around 7 or 8 y.o. (corresponding to increase in brain specialization, decrease in brain plasticity around that time).

Question 50

53. Which of Erikson’s stages best corresponds to the stage in Freud’s theory that involves a cessation in psychosexual development?
54. Initiative vs. guilt.
55. Industry vs. inferiority.
56. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt.
57. Identity vs. role confusion.

Answer 50

2. Industry vs. inferiority.

Why?

• According to Freud, there is a cessation in psychosexual development when the individual is between 6 and 12 y.o., - the “latency stage”- described as a time of sexual quiescence.
• corresponds to Erikson’s stage of industry vs. inferiority.

Question 51

54. Which of the following would probably not be included in a treatment based on Rehm’s Self-Control theory of depression?
55. Modifying dysfunctional patterns of thoughts.
56. Self-monitoring.
57. Altering self-object needs.
58. Adjusting self-reinforcement behaviors.

Answer 51

3. Altering self-object needs.

Why?

• Rehm’s Self-Control model of depression tries to integrate cognitive and behavioral models of depression.
• Rehm views depression as a result of negative self-evaluations, lack of self-reinforcement, and high rates of punishment
• (also, if you don’t know Rehm’s theory, could also answer by recognizing that #3 is the only response that comes from a different theoretical orientation, making it the most likely answer)

Question 52

Who developed self-object needs? and what the fuck are they?

Answer 52

• developed by Kohut in his psychoanalytic Self Psychology

- typically include needs for: mirroring, idealization, and twinship

Question 53

55. Scores from non-parallel measures can be equated through the use of:
56. classical test theory.
57. empirical criterion keying.
58. item response theory.
59. ipsative measures.

Answer 53

3. item response theory (IRT)
   (aka latent trait theory)

Why?

• IRT can be used to compare performance on measures that have different types/number of items, or that are scored differently.
• IRT is used to calculate to what extent a specific item on a test correlates with an underlying construct (looks at performance on the item as representing degree to which subject has that latent trait/underlying construct)
• Example: Correctly answering a difficult statistics question would indicate a subject is high in the latent trait of “statistics ability.”

Question 54

___________ is used to develop individually tailored “adaptive” tests, in which an answer to one question in a domain area determines whether another question in that area will be asked. What is an advantage of this approach?

Answer 54

Item Response Theory (IRT)

Advantage = tests have fewest number of items necessary to assess a subject’s performance.

Question 55

60. Beta-blockers, such as Inderal (propranolol), are commonly prescribed for blood pressure and heart problems. All of the following are common side effects except:
61. nightmares.
62. loss of appetite.
63. tiredness.
64. impotence.

Answer 55

2. loss of appetite.

Why?
Although beta-blockers are generally well tolerated, they can cause a variety of side effects, including:
- Sexual dysfunction- up to 10% of males develop impotence.
- Dizziness
- Drowsiness,
- Shortness of breath
- Angina
- Cold hands and feet
- Difficulty sleeping
- Nightmares.
- Less common side effects include depression, anxiety, and thought disturbances.

Question 56

61. A psychologist learns of an ethical violation by a colleague. An attempt at an informal resolution fails. The psychologist’s duty is to:
62. report the colleague to an ethics committee or a state licensing board.
63. take no further action, so that confidentiality rights will be protected.
64. report the colleague to an ethics committee or a state licensing board, if the violation is serious.
65. report the colleague to an ethics committee or a state licensing board, unless confidentiality rights will be violated in the process.

Answer 56

4. report the colleague to an ethics committee or a state licensing board, unless confidentiality rights will be violated in the process.

Why?

• The general guideline is that when an attempt at informal resolution fails, the psychologist must report the violation unless confidentiality will be breached.
• when informal resolution of ethical violation fails, not permitted to drop the matter
• does not matter if violation is severe
• BUT cannot report violation if it would breach confidentiality in the process.

Question 57

64. On an aptitude test with a normal distribution, Don scored at the 70th percentile, Ben scored a T-score of 50, and Mike a z score of +1.0. If you were to rank them in order, from lowest to highest, the correct rank order would be:
65. Don, Mike, Ben.
66. Mike, Don, Ben.
67. Ben, Don, Mike.
68. Ben, Mike, Don.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: 3. Ben, Don, Mike.

Why?

• Have to know that z-score of +1.0 corresponds to 84th percentile rank.
• T-scores mean= 50, SD=10
• T-score of 50 is a z-score of 0.0
• z-score of 0 corresponds to 50th PR
• so Don’s z-score must be between 0.0 and 1.0

Ben: T=50, Z=0, PR=50
Mike: Z=+1.0, PR=84
Don: PR=70, so Z must be between 0 and +1.0

Question 58

73. A teacher rewards high school students for reading a specified number of books within a designated time period. Students tend to read the designated amount, but no more, and then report their enjoyment of reading has diminished. This can best be explained by:
74. behavioral contrast.
75. overjustification.
76. satiation.
77. the Premack Principle.

Answer 58

2. overjustification.

Overjustification occurs when people are reinforced for behaviors they would normally do without reinforcement (e.g., read books); when the reinforcement is taken away, there is frequently a decrease in the behavior. The theory posits that people look to their environment to explain their behavior: when they are reinforced, they attribute their behavior to the reinforcement rather than to intrinsic motivation. Note that the question does not flesh out the full phenomenon of overjustification (i.e., the reinforcement isn’t taken away) but it is the concept that most clearly applies.

Question 59

79. You have an initial therapy consultation with a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder (BPD). Although you are an expert in the treatment of BPD, you decide you will not treat this patient. Your decision is:
80. unethical, since you have the necessary clinical expertise.
81. unethical, because not treating this patient would constitute patient abandonment.
82. ethical, provided you clarify to the patient your reasons for not wanting to take on the case.
83. ethical, provided you make a referral to another competent person or agency.

Answer 59

4. ethical, provided you make a referral to another competent person or agency.

Question 60

82. You attend a party hosted by a male colleague. During the party you come to realize that one of the invited guests is your colleague’s female psychotherapy client. Your most ethical course of action would be to:
83. report your colleague to the appropriate licensing board/ethics committee.
84. approach your colleague at the party to discuss the situation.
85. contact your colleague the next day.
86. inform the client of the inappropriateness of the therapist’s behavior.

Answer 60

3. contact your colleague the next day.

Question 61

84. According to Ainsworth, an avoidant infant exposed to the strange situation will be most likely to:
85. avoid the adult stranger and cling to the mother.
86. cry when the mother leaves the room and avoid her upon her return.
87. avoid crying when the mother leaves the room and rush up to greet her upon her return.
88. avoid the mother upon her return to the room.

Answer 61

4. avoid the mother upon her return to the room.

Feedback: Avoidant babies do not seek closeness with the mother (ruling out Responses 1 and 3). Furthermore, they rarely cry when she leaves the room, and then ignore her upon her return (Response 2).

Question 62

90. A gradual decrease in an unconditioned response due to repeated presentation of the unconditioned stimulus is termed:
91. classical extinction.
92. satiation.
93. habituation.
94. operant extinction.

Answer 62

3. habituation.

Habituation is a concept from classical conditioning. It occurs when a person is repeatedly exposed to an unconditioned stimulus and, as a result, the unconditioned response eventually decreases. For example, people habituate to the hum of the computer and no longer notice it after a while.

Question 63

Classical extinction

Answer 63

Involves repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus until the pairing between the two is extinguished.

Question 64

Satiation

Answer 64

• an operant conditioning concept
• occurs when a reinforcer loses its value over time.

For example, if you were reinforced with hot fudge sundaes three times a day, you would quickly find that the sundaes were no longer very reinforcing.

Question 65

Operant extinction

Answer 65

refers to withholding reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior.

For example, if a teacher stops paying attention (a reinforcer) to the disruptive behavior of a student, the student’s behavior will slowly decrease (be extinguished).

Question 66

if a teacher stops paying attention to the disruptive behavior of a student, the student’s behavior will slowly decrease. This is an example of _______.

Answer 66

Operant extinction

Question 67

If you were reinforced with hot fudge sundaes three times a day, you would experience ________, and quickly find that the sundaes were no longer very reinforcing.

Answer 67

Satiation

Question 68

If you were reinforced with hot fudge sundaes three times a day, you would experience ________, and quickly find that the sundaes were no longer very reinforcing.

Answer 68

Satiation

Question 69

94. According to Atkinson’s theory of achievement motivation, which of the following behaviors would be atypical of an individual with a high need for achievement?
95. Taking an intermediate amount of risk.
96. Setting realistic goals.
97. Persisting when success is unlikely.
98. Experiencing pride in accomplishments.

Answer 69

3. Persisting when success is unlikely.

Why?

• one way to approach the question is to ask which traits would be most adaptive. It is adaptive to take intermediate risks, set realistic goals, and experience pride in accomplishments (Responses 1, 2, & 4), all traits of an individual with high need for achievement.
• It is self-defeating and maladaptive to persist when success seems unlikely.

Question 70

101. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding selective mutism?
102. It is a communication disorder in the DSM-5 category of neurodevelopmental disorders.
103. It is typically an act of defiance and may be effectively treated with behavior modification.
104. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.
105. It results from trauma and treatment typically involves therapy focused on overcoming the trauma.

Answer 70

3. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.

Question 71

101. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding selective mutism?
102. It is a communication disorder in the DSM-5 category of neurodevelopmental disorders.
103. It is typically an act of defiance and may be effectively treated with behavior modification.
104. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.
105. It results from trauma and treatment typically involves therapy focused on overcoming the trauma.

Answer 71

3. It is an anxiety disorder and may be treated with guided imagery.