Drugs for Pulmonary Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is the main advantage of drug delivery by the respiratory system?

A
  • Rapid, efficient delivery
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2
Q

What is aerosol drug administration?

A
  • Suspension of liquid and fine solid particles
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3
Q

What is the advantage of aerosol drug administration?

A
  • Delivered to site of action with limited side effects
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4
Q

Can aerosolized drugs produce systemic effects?

A

Yes. If high enough dose is administered, it will reach systemic circulation

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5
Q

What are the 3 types of aerosolized drug administration?

A
  • Nebulizers
  • Dry Powder Inhaler
  • Metered dose inhalers
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6
Q

Which type of aerosolized drug administration converts a liquid to a fine mist?

A

Nebulizer

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7
Q

Which type of aerosolized drug administration is a propellant?

A

Metered dose inhaler

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8
Q

Which type of aerosoloized drug administration is a powder used for inhilation?

A

Dry Powder Inhaler

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9
Q

What are 3 common problems with aerosol drug administration?

A
  • Difficulty self-administering drug leads to incorrect dosage
  • Altered breathing patterns affect administration
  • Deposition of the drug into the oral mucosa
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10
Q

Which type of aerosol administration most negates incorrect dosing due to altered breathing patterns?

A
  • Nebulizer
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11
Q

What is a downside to a nebulizer?

A
  • Takes a long time to administer

- Cleaning after every session is time consuming

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12
Q

What is a common pulmonary chronic disease that affects millions worldwide?

A

Asthma

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13
Q

What are the 4 features of asthma?

A
  • Airway inflammation
  • Airway hyperresponsiveness
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Hypersecretion of mucus
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14
Q

What is atopy?

A
  • Inherited predisposition to allergic diseases such as asthma, allergic rhinitis, or eczema
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15
Q

What condition does atopy underlie in almost all children, and most adults?

A
  • Asthma
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16
Q

What immunoglobin is typically elevated in patients with asthma?

A
  • Immunoglobin E (IgE)
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17
Q

What white blood cells are more common in inflamed airways than in normal airways?

A

Eosinophils

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18
Q

What glands hypertrophy in inflamed airways?

A

Mucus

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19
Q

Where does edema occur in inflamed airways?

A

Space between smooth muscles cells and epithelium

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20
Q

What are the 3 goals of therapy in reducing airway inflammation?

A
  • Terminate acute bronchial constriction
  • Reduce inflammation
  • Reduce hypersecretion of mucus
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21
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of COPD?

A
  • Airflow limitation is not reversible
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22
Q

What are 2 examples of COPD?

A
  • Chronic bronchitis

- Emphysema

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23
Q

What are the 4 treatment goals of COPD?

A
  • Reduce inflammation
  • Relieve bronchoconstriction
  • Reduce risk of/ treat infection
  • Control cough
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24
Q

What type of material is COPD usually related to?

A

Toxins such as:

  • Coal
  • Cigarette smoke
  • Etc…
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25
What is a persistent risk due to chronic bronchitis? why?
- Excessive secretions can lead to infection
26
What is the type of drug typically used to treat acute bronchoconstriction?
- Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists | - Stimulate B-2 receptors in the smooth muscle of the brochi and bronchioles
27
Describe the 4 step process by which B-2 agonists relax bronchioles.
- B-2 receptor stimulation increases activity of enzyme adenylcyclase - Adenylcyclase increases production of intracellular cyclic AMP - Intracellular cyclic AMP activates protein kinase A - Protein kinase A inhibits phosphorlation of myosin, and lowers intracellular ionic calcium concentrations - Results in relaxation of smooth muscle of bronchioles
28
What drug stimulates both B-1 and B-2 receptors?
Epinephrine
29
What are the advantages of a B-2 selective agonist vs non-selective?
- Limits cardiac effects | - Limits increase in heart rate
30
When may epinephrine be used to treat bronchoconstriction?
- When it is in an acute phase to provide rapid therapeutic effect
31
What is a severe prolonged form of asthma that is unresponsive to standard drug treatment?
- Status asthmaticus
32
What 3 conditions may epinephrine be used to treat?
- Bronchiolitis - RSV - Status asthmaticus
33
What are the 4 classifications of Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists in terms of duration of drug action?
- Ultra-short acting (2 - 3 hours) - Short-acting (SABA) (3 - 6 hours) - Intermediate Acting (8 Hours) - Long-acting (LABA) (12 hours)
34
What are 2 ultra-short acting beta agonists?
- Isuprel | - Bronkosol
35
What are 3 short-acting beta agonists?
- Metaprel/ Aluprent - Brethine - Maxair
36
What are 3 intermediate-acting beta agonists?
- Proventil - Xopenex - Tornalate
37
What are 2 long-acting beta agonists?
- Serevent | - Foradil
38
What are 3 side-effects of high-dose inhalers?
- Shaking - Nervousness - Tachycardia
39
Why will a B-2 agonist cause tachycardia?
- Drugs are selective for B-2, but not exclusively | - Will bind to B-1 if B-2 are occupied
40
What is levalbuterol?
- 60:40 R:S isomer of B-2 agonist | - May alleviate some side effects
41
What is Formoterol/ Foradil?
- Highly selective Beta-2-agonist with a long duration of action
42
Why does Formoterol/ Foradil have such a long duration of action?
- Formoterol is highly lipophilic when entering the plasma membrane in a "drug depot" - It is gradually released into its aqueous phase, which activates the B-2 receptors
43
What may occur if SABAs are overused?
- Tolerance by desensitization of B-2 receptors
44
How may tolerance to SABAs be reversed?
With inhaled corticosteroids
45
What condition may result from SABA tolerance?
Status asthmaticus
46
What receptors do inhaled anticholinergics act on?
Block muscarinic cholinergic receptors
47
What is the 3-step mechanism of action of inhaled anticholinergics?
- Decrease in the formation of cGMP - Decreases contractility of smooth muscle in the lung - Inhibits bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion
48
Are inhaled anticholinergics used for acute occurances, or for control?
Control
49
What condition are anticholinergics typically used for?
- COPD
50
What are 3 types of anti-cholinergics?
- Ipratropium bromide/ Atrovent - Ipratropium + albuterol/ Combivent - Tiotropium/ Spiriva
51
What are 6 side-effects of anti-cholinergics?
- Dry mouth - Nervousness - GI upset - Headache - Worsening of narrow-angle glaucoma - Prostatic hypertrophy
52
What is the difference between Atrovent and Spiriva?
- Spiriva has a longer half-life due to slow disassociation rate from muscarinic receptors
53
What are the primary actions of inhaled corticosteroids in the lungs?
- Suppress inflamation in airways (limit hypertrophy of mucus cells, reduce edema, repair damaged epithelium) - Increase number and sensitivity of B-2 receptors (increase effectiveness of B-2 agonists)
54
Are PO or IV administration of corticosteroids more effective for acute severe asthma attacks?
Act about the same
55
How long does it take for systemic corticosteroids to take effect?
48 - 72 hours.
56
Why should systemic corticosteroids be titrated down before discontinuing use?
- Activate glucocortizoid receptors - These function through negative feedback - Body detects the change in cortisol levels, and slow production at the adrenal gland - If drug is not administered, there may be a severe drop in systemic cortisol
57
Are long-term systemic or inhaled corticosteroids more associated with serious adverse effects?
- Systemic
58
What are 6 adverse effects of systemic corticosteroids?
- Adrenal gland atrophy - Peptic ulcers - Hyperglycemia - Osteopenia & Osteoporosis - Aseptic necrosis of the hip - Immune suppresion
59
What are 6 unpleasant side effects of systemic corticosteroids?
- Moon face - Redistribution of weight - Thin skin - Acne - Fatigue - GI disturbance
60
What are 5 inhaled corticosteroids?
- Fluticasone (Flovent Diskus) - Budesonide (Pulmicort) - Triamcinolone (Azmacort) - Flunisolide (Aerobid) - Beclomethasone (Qvar, Beclovent)
61
What are 2 oral corticosteroids?
- Methyprednisolone (Depo-Medrol) | - Prednisone (Deltasone etc)
62
What is usually paired with an inhaled corticosteroid?
Nasal spray
63
Why is fluticasone proprionate/ Flovent have little bioavailability outside of the airway?
- Rapidly inactivated by the liver (CYP450 3A4 pathway) | - The metabolite that is produced has limited affinity for the glucocorticoid receptor
64
What are 2 examples of medications with a corticosteroid and bronchodilator component?
- Fluticasone and salmeterol (Advair Diskus) | - Budesonide and formoterol (Symbicort)
65
What is the advantage of combination agent aerosol medications?
Convenience
66
What drug are methylxanthines chemically related to?
Caffeine
67
What are 2 examples of methylxanthines?
- Theophylline (Theo-Dur, etc) | - Aminophylline (Somophyllin)
68
What 2 other pulmonary effects do methylxanthines have other than bronchodilation?
- Inhibit pulmonary edema by decreasing vascular permeability - Increase ability of the cilia to clear mucus
69
What 4 non-pulmonary effects do methylxanthines have?
- Increase CO - Peripheral vasodilation - Mild diuretic effect - CNS stimulation
70
Why are methylxanthines not often prescribed?
Narrow therapeutic index
71
Why must methylxanthines serum levels be monitored regularly?
- Narrow therapeutic index | - Normal caffinated drinks can raise levels easily
72
What the mechanism of action of mast cell stabilizers?
- Inhibit the release of histamine from mast cells
73
In what stiuations are mast cell stabilizers used?
- In prophylaxis to prevent acute asthma attacks
74
How long is the half-life of mast cell stabilizers?
2.5 hours
75
What are 2 mast cell stabilizers?
- Cromolyn (Intal) | - Nedocromil (Tilade)
76
What are Leukotriene?
- Strong chemical mediators of bronchoconstriction, inflammation, and mucous secretion
77
How are Leukotrienes formed?
By the lipoxygenase pathway of arachidonic acid metabolism in response to cellular injury
78
What type of medication treats Luekotrienes?
- Leukotriene modifiers
79
What is the indication for Leukotriene modifiers?
- Long-term treatment of asthma and allergies | - Acts on pathways related to long-term inflammation
80
What are 3 Leukotriene Modifiers?
- Zileuton (Zyflo) - Montelukast (Singulair) - Zafirlukast (Accolate)
81
What is the mechanism of action of Zyflo?
- Reduces formation of leukotrienes by blocking lipoxygenase
82
What is the mechanism of action of Singulair and Accolate?
- Block luekotriene receptors
83
What is the mechanism of action of Omalizumab (Xolair)?
- Binds to immunoglobulin E, preventing attachment to mast cells and basophils - Prevents release of pro-inflammatory and pro-allergic substances
84
For whom is Xolair prescribed?
- Severe, persistent asthma that can't be controlled even with high doses of corticosteroids
85
What is the meachanism of action of Mucolytics/ Expectorants?
- Reduce viscosity of bronchial mucous and aid in its removal
86
What is an OTC mucolytic?
- Guaifenesin (Robitussin, etc...)
87
What are 2 prescription examples of mucolytics/ expectorants?
- Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) | - Dornase Alfa-Recominant (Pulmozyme)
88
What is the function of antitussives?
- Dampen the cough reflex
89
What are 2 examples of opoid antitussives?
- Codeine | - Hydrocodone bitartrate (Hycodan)
90
What are 2 examples of non-opoid antitussives?
- Benzonatate (Tessalon) | - Dextromethorphan (Pediacare, etc...)
91
What is the active ingredient in vicadin?
- Hydrocodone bitartrate
92
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
- Condition where lungs are not producing surfactant
93
In whom does respiratory distress syndrome most often occur?
- Infants
94
What is the function of surfactant?
- Lines inner surface of alveoli allowing the lung to remain open during respiration
95
What type of cell produces surfactant?
Type II/ Chief cells
96
What are 2 drugs used to treat RDS?
- Colfosceril (Exosurf) | - Ceractant (Survanta)
97
What is Respiratory Syncytial Virus?
- Virus affecting infants and young children
98
How is respiratory syncytial virus treated?
- RSV antibodies given during RSV season to reduce risk of infection
99
What is anaphylaxis?
Severe, sometimes life-threatening allergic reaction to a variety of agents
100
What are 3 classes of agents that may cause anaphylaxis?
- Foods - Stinging insects - Medications
101
What are some symptoms of anaphylaxis?
- Itching - Can't breath - Throat swells - Lungs constricted - Vascular permeability shift --> edema
102
What is the pathophysiology of anaphylaxis?
- IgE forms during the first exposure to the allergen - IgE attaches to mast cells and basophils - At the 2nd exposure, the mast cells and basophils release chemical mediators
103
What 3 effects do the chemical mediators of anaphylaxis cause?
- Smooth muscle constriction causing bronchospasm and cramping - Increased vascular permeability (50 % of vascular volume shifts to tissues) - Vasodilation
104
Why may someone have a reaction to penicillin when they've never had it before?
May have been exposed to a chemically similar drug such as cephalosporin
105
What type of hypersensibility are most allergic reactions?
- Type 1
106
What drug is used to treat anaphylaxis?
- Epinephrine
107
What are the 2 effects of epinephrine?
``` Alpha-agonist: - Increased peripheral vascular resistance - Reverse vascular permeability Beta-agonist: - Bronchodilation - Positive ionotropic effect ```