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2020 Pharmacology I > Drugs and Indications > Flashcards

Drugs and Indications Flashcards

1
Q

metroNIDAZOLE (Flagyl)

A
  • PUD (H. pylori)
  • gynecologic infections
  • CNS infections
  • septicemia
  • bone, joint infections
  • endocarditis
  • amebic dysentery
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2
Q

bismuth subsalycilate (Pepto-Bismol)

A
  • non-severe diarrhea and GI Sx related to diarrheal illness
  • PUD with H. pylori
  • Tx/prevention of enterotoxigenic E. coli diarrhea
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3
Q

clarithromycin (Biaxin XL)

A
  • PUD with H. pylori
  • streptococcal pharyngitis
  • sinusitis
  • bronchitis
  • pneumonia
  • Tx (with ethambutol) and prevention of disseminated mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
  • pediatric infections
    • otitis media
    • sinusitis
    • pharyngitis
    • skin infections
    • endocarditis prophylaxis
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4
Q

amoxicillin (Amoxil)

A
  • skin, respiratory, and GU infections
  • otitis media
  • sinusitis
  • PUD with H. pylori
  • prophylaxis
    • endocarditis
    • postexposure: anthrax
  • off-label: Lyme disease in children < 8 yr
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5
Q

tetracycline

A
  • infections with unusual organisms
    • mycoplasma
    • chlamydia
    • rickettsia
    • borrelia burgdorferi
  • in penicillin-allergic pts
    • gonorrhea
    • syphilis
  • prevention of exacerbations of chronic bronchitis
  • acne
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6
Q

tinidazole

A
  • bacterial vaginosis
  • trichomoniasis
  • giardiasis
  • amebiasis
  • PUD with H. pylori
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7
Q

raNITIdine (Zantac)

A
  • short-term: active duodenal ulcers and benign gastric ulcers
  • maintentance: duodenal and gastric ulcers after healing
  • management: gastric hypersecretory states (Zollinger-Ellison)
  • Tx and maintenance: erosive esophagitis
  • GERD
  • OTC
    • heartburn
    • acid indigestion
    • sour stomach
  • IV, in critically ill: prevention, Tx of stress-induced upper GI bleed
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8
Q

omeprazole (PriLOSEC)

A
  • GERD/maintenance of healing in erosive esophagitis
  • duodenal ulcers (w/ or w/o anti-infectives for H. pylori)
  • short-term: active benign gastric ulcer
  • pathologic hypersecretory conditions (i.e. Zollinger-Ellison)
  • ↓ risk of GI bleed in critically ill
  • OTC: heartburn ≥ 2x/wk
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9
Q

sucralfate (Carafate)

A
  • short-term management of and preventive management for duodenal ulcers
  • off-label
    • management of gastric ulcer or reflux
    • prevention of gastric mucosal injury caused by high-dose aspirin or other NSAIDs in patients with RA or in high-stress situations (e.g., ICU)
    • suspension: mucositis/stomatitis/rectal or oral ulcerations from various etiologies
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10
Q

aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)

A
  • ↓ phosphate levels in chronic renal failure
  • adjunctive therapy for peptic, duodenal, and gastric ulcers
  • hyperacidity
  • indigestion
  • reflux esophagitis
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11
Q

calcium carbonate (Tums, Maalox, Rolaids)

A
  • Tx and prevention: hypocalcemia
  • adjunct: prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • acid indigestion or heartburn
  • hyperphosphatemia in end-stage renal disease
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12
Q

magnesium hydroxide (Phillips, Dulcolax)

A
  • Tx/prevention: hypomagnesemia
  • high dose: bowel prep
  • Milk of Magnesia: antacid
  • low dose: prevent painful elimination (hemorrhoids, episiotomy)
  • rapid evacuation for poinsoning or after anthelmintic therapy
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13
Q

miSOPROStol (Cyctotec)

A
  • prevention: gastric mucosal injury from NSAIDs for geriatric or debilitated patients, or those ulcer Hx
  • with mifepristone: termination of pregnancy
  • off-label
    • duodenal ulcers
    • cervical ripening, labor induction
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14
Q

psyllium (Metamucil)

A
  • constipation (temporary)
  • ↓ diarrhea (diverticulosis and IBS)
  • stool control for ileostomy/colostomy
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15
Q

docusate sodium (Colace)

A
  • constipation
  • softening of fecal impaction
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16
Q

bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

A
  • constipation
  • bowel prep
  • bowel regimen in spinal cord injury
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17
Q

senna (Senokot)

A
  • constipation w/ dry, hard stools and ↓ peristalsis
  • opioid-induced constipation
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18
Q

lactulose

A
  • chronic constipation
  • adjunct: management of portal-systemic (hepatic) encephalopathy (PSE)
  • ↓ blood ammonia in liver dz
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19
Q

diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil)

A

adjunctive therapy for diarrhea

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20
Q

loperamide (Imodium)

A
  • adjunctive therapy of acute diarrhea
  • chronic diarrhea associated with IBS
  • ↓ volume of ileostomy drainage
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21
Q

metoclopramide (Reglan)

A
  • prevention: chemotherapy-induced N&V
  • acute and recurrent diabetic gastroparesis
  • facilitation of small bowel intubation in radiographic procedures
  • GERD
  • Tx/prevention of postop N&V when NG suctioning undesirable
  • off-label
    • hiccups.
    • adjunct: migraines
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22
Q

alosetron (Lotronex)

A

severe diarrhea-predominant (IBS) in women with chronic symptoms (≥ 6 mo), no other GI pathology, and no response to conventional therapy

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23
Q

lubiprostone (Amitiza)

A
  • chronic idiopathic constipation
  • IBS with constipation in women ≥ 18 yr
  • opioid-induced constipation in those with chronic, non-cancer pain
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24
Q

sulfaSALAzine (Azulfidine)

A
  • Tx
    • mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis
    • rheumatoid arthritis unresponsive or intolerant to salicylates and/or NSAIDs
  • adjunct: severe ulcerative colitis
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25
Q

albuterol (Ventolin, Pro-Air)

A
  • prevention of exercise-induced asthma episode
  • relief from bronchospasm
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26
Q

levalbuterol (Xopenex)

A

short-term relief of bronchospasm

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27
Q

salmeterol (Serevent)

A
  • prevention of bronchospasm when asthma not controlled by SABA
  • prevention of exercised-induced bronchospasm
  • maintenance: COPD
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28
Q

formoterol (Perforomist)

A

maintenance, prevent bronchospasm in COPD

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29
Q

ipratropium (Atrovent)

A
  • relieve bronchospasm r/t COPD, allergies, exercise
  • off-label: asthma
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30
Q

theophylline

A

long-term control of chronic asthma, COPD

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31
Q

beclomethasone (Qvar)

A
  • prevent inflammation
  • ↓ mucus
  • ↓ airway edema
  • prophylactic
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32
Q

montelukast (Singulair)

A
  • long-term Tx of asthma (adults, children)
  • prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasm
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33
Q

codeine

A
  • mild to moderate pain
  • cough
  • off-label: diarrhea
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34
Q

HYDROcodone

A
  • ER: management of pain severe enough for 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx
  • combos: management of moderate to severe pain.
  • cough (usually in combo with decongestant)
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35
Q

dextromethorphan (Robitussin, Vicks DayQuil, Delsym)

A
  • cough from minor viral upper respiratory tract infections or inhaled irritants
  • most effective: chronic nonproductive cough
  • common ingredient in OTC cough and cold meds
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36
Q

acetylcysteine (Mucomyst, Acetadote)

A
  • PO, IV: antidote for overdose of acetaminophen
  • inhaled
    • acute and chronic pulmonary disorders
    • cystic fibrosis
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37
Q

guaiFENesin (Mucinex, Robitussin)

A

cough r/t viral upper respiratory tract infections

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38
Q

phenylephrine

A
  • hypotension r/t:
    • shock persisting after fluid replacement
    • anesthesia
  • anesthesia adjunct
    • ↑ duration of spinal anesthesia
    • localization regional anesthesia effect
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39
Q

ePHEDrine

A

hypotension during anesthesia

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40
Q

pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)

A
  • nasal congestion r/t acute viral upper respiratory tract infection
  • in combo with antihistamines: allergic conditions
  • opens obstructed eustachian tubes in chronic otic inflammation or infection
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41
Q

diphenhydrAMINE (Benadryl, Unisom)

A
  • allergic Sx caused by histamine release:
    • anaphylaxis
    • seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis
    • allergic dermatoses
  • Parkinson’s disease and dystonic reactions from medications
  • mild nighttime sedation
  • prevention of motion sickness
  • antitussive (syrup only)
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42
Q

promethazine (Phenergan)

A
  • Tx: various allergic conditions and motion sickness
  • preop sedation
  • Tx and prevention: N&V
  • adjunct: anesthesia and analgesia
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43
Q

dimenhyDRINATE (Dramamine)

A

nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and vertigo r/t motion sickness

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44
Q

loratadine (Claritin, Alavert)

A
  • relief of Sx of seasonal allergies
  • management
    • chronic idiopathic urticaria
    • hives
  • off-label: chemo-related bone pain
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45
Q

cetirizine (Zyrtec)

A
  • seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis
  • chronic urticaria
  • off-label: chemo-related bone pain
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46
Q

fexofenadine (Allegra)

A
  • Sx of seasonal allergic rhinitis
  • chronic idiopathic urticaria
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47
Q

desloratadine (Clarinex)

A
  • Sx of allergic rhinitis (seasonal and perennial)
  • chronic idiopathic urticaria
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48
Q

azelastine (Astepro, Astelin)

A
  • seasonal allergic rhinitis
  • perennial allergic rhinitis (Astepro only)
  • management of vasomotor rhinitis (Astelin only)
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49
Q

olopatadine (Patanase)

A

seasonal allergic rhinitis

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50
Q

mometasone (Nasonex)

A
  • Tx and prevention of nasal Sx of seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis
  • Tx of nasal polyps
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51
Q

fluticasone (Flonase, Xhance)

A
  • seasonal or perennial allergic rhinitis
  • perennial nonallergic rhinitis (Rx only)
  • nasal polyps (Xhance only)
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52
Q

triamcinolone (Nasocort, Kenalog)

A
  • intranasal: seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis
  • chronic dz/disorder
    • inflammatory
    • allergic
    • hematologic
    • neoplastic
    • autoimmune
  • suitable for alternate-day dosing in chronic illness
  • replacement therapy: adrenal insufficiency
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53
Q

budesonide (Rhinocort)

A

seasonal or perennial allergic rhinitis

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54
Q

aspirin (ASA)

A
  • inflammatory disorders: RA, OA
  • mild to moderate pain
  • fever
  • prophylaxis: transient ischemic attacks (TIA) and MI
  • off-label: adjunct for Kawasaki disease
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55
Q

acetaminophen (Tylenol, Ofirmev)

A
  • PO: mild pain, fever
  • IV
    • mild to moderate pain
    • with opioid analgesic: moderate to severe pain
    • fever
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56
Q

morphine

A
  • severe pain
    • 20 mg/mL oral solution for opioid-tolerant pts
  • extended-release: severe pain requiring 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx (other Tx inadequate)
  • pulmonary edema
  • pain r/t MI
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57
Q

fentaNYL (Sublimaze)

A
  • analgesic supplement to general or regional/local anesthesia
  • induction/maintenance of anesthesia
  • neuroleptanalgesia/neuroleptanesthesia
  • preop and postop analgesia
  • off-label: continuous IV infusion as part of PCA
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58
Q

meperidine (Demerol)

A
  • moderate or severe pain (alone or with nonopioid agents)
  • anesthesia adjunct
  • analgesic during labor
  • preop sedation
  • off-label: rigors
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59
Q

methadone

A
  • extended-release: moderate to severe chronic pain in opioid-tolerant patients requiring use of 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx (alternatives inadequate)
  • detox and maintenance for opioid use disorder
  • off-label: neonatal abstinence syndrome
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60
Q

oxyCODONE (Oxycontin)

A
  • moderate to severe pain
  • extended-release: severe pain requiring 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx (other options inadequate)
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61
Q

HYDROmorphone (Dilaudid)

A
  • moderate to severe pain (alone or in combo with nonopioid analgesics)
  • extended-release: moderate to severe chronic pain in opioid-tolerant patients requiring 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx (other options inadequate)
  • antitussive (lower doses)
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62
Q

butorphanol (Stadol)

A
  • moderate to severe pain
  • analgesia during labor
  • sedation before surgery
  • supplement in balanced anesthesia
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63
Q

nalbuphine

A
  • moderate to severe pain
  • analgesia during labor
  • sedation before surgery
  • supplement to balanced anesthesia
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64
Q

buprenorphine (Buprenex)

A
  • IM, IV: moderate to severe acute pain
  • Buccal, Transdermal: severe pain requiring 24-hr, long-term opioid Tx (alternatives inadequate)
  • Subdermal, SQ, SL: opioid dependence at various stages of detox
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65
Q

pentazocine (Talwin)

A
  • moderate to severe pain
  • analgesia during labor
  • sedation prior to surgery
  • supplementation in balanced anesthesia
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66
Q

naloxone (Narcan)

A
  • reversal of CNS and respiratory depression in suspected opioid OD
  • off-label
    • opioid-induced pruritus (low-dose IV infusion)
    • refractory circulatory shock
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67
Q

naltrexone

A

management of opioid or ETOH dependence

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68
Q

methylnaltrexone (Relistor)

A
  • SC: opioid-induced constipation (OIC) in advanced illness or cancer pain
  • SC, PO: OIC in chronic, non-cancer pain not requiring frequent dose escalation
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69
Q

amitriptyline

A
  • depression
  • off-label
    • Anxiety
    • insomnia
    • Tx-resistant depression
    • chronic pain syndromes (i.e., fibromyalgia, neuropathy, headache, low back pain).
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70
Q

carBAMazepine (Tegretol, Carbatrol)

A
  • IV, PO: tonic-clonic, mixed, and complex-partial sz
  • PO: trigeminal neuralgia pain
  • Equetro: acute manic or mixed episodes associated with bipolar I disorder.
  • off-label: other neurogenic pain
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71
Q

gabapentin (Neurontin, Horizant)

A
  • partial sz (adjunct, immediate-release)
  • postherpetic neuralgia
  • restless legs syndrome (Horizant only)
  • off-label
    • neuropathic pain (including 2/2 DM)
    • prevention of migraine
    • bipolar disorder
    • anxiety
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72
Q

methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A
  • PO, transdermal: adjunct Tx for ADHD
  • PO: Sx of narcolepsy
  • off-label: adjunct for pain (↑ analgesia, ↓ sedation w/ opioids)
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73
Q

hydrOXYzine (Vistaril)

A
  • anxiety
  • preop sedation
  • antiemetic
  • antipruritic
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74
Q

dexamethasone (Decadron)

A
  • systemically and locally in chronic diseases
    • inflammatory
    • allergic
    • hematologic
    • endocrine
    • neoplastic
    • dermatologic
    • autoimmune
  • cerebral edema
  • Dx agent in adrenal disorders
  • off-label
    • (short-term) given to high-risk mothers to prevent respiratory distress syndrome in newborn
    • chemo-induced N&V
    • airway edema prior to extubation
    • in neonates with bronchopulmonary dysplasia to facilitate ventilator weaning
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75
Q

predniSONE

A
  • systemically and locally in chronic diseases
    • inflammatory
    • allergic
    • hematologic
    • neoplastic
    • autoimmune
  • suitable for alternate-day dosing in the management of chronic illness
  • off-label
    • adjunct for hypercalcemia
    • adjunct for N&V from chemo
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76
Q

diazePAM (Valium, Diastat)

A
  • adjunct for
    • athetosis
    • anxiety
    • Stiffman Syndrome
    • preop sedation
    • conscious sedation (light anesthesia and anterograde amnesia)
  • status epilepticus/uncontrolled sz
  • skeletal muscle relaxant
  • Sx of alcohol withdrawal
  • off-label
    • anxiety associated with acute MI
    • insomnia
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77
Q

dantrolene (Dantrium)

A
  • PO: Tx of spasticity r/t
    • spinal cord injury
    • stroke
    • cerebral palsy
    • multiple sclerosis
  • malignant hyperthermia: prophylaxis, emergency Tx (IV), and prevention in high-risk pts
  • off-label: neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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78
Q

baclofen

A
  • PO: Tx of reversible spasticity due to MS or spinal cord lesions
  • intrathecal: severe spasticity of cerebral or spinal origin (last resort, wait 1 yr after TBI)
  • off-label: pain in trigeminal neuralgia
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79
Q

cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril, Amrix)

A
  • acute painful musculoskeletal conditions r/t muscle spasm
  • off-label: fibromyalgia
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80
Q

tiZANidine (Zanaflex)

A

↑ muscle tone r/t spasticity of MS or spinal cord injury

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81
Q

LIDOCAINE (Xylocaine, Lidoderm)

A
  • IV: ventricular arrhythmia
  • IM: self-injected or when IV unavailable (during pt transport)
  • local: infiltration/mucosal/topical anesthetic
  • transdermal: pain from post-herpetic neuralgia
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82
Q

succinylcholine

A

during surgical procedures to produce skeletal muscle paralysis after induction of anesthesia and provision of opioid analgesics

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Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

pancuronium

A
  • skeletal muscle paralysis and facilitation of intubation after induction of anesthesia in surgical procedures
  • facilitation of compliance during mechanical ventilation
  • reversed by: neostigmine
84
Q

heparin (Hep-Lock)

A
  • evolving stroke
  • pulmonary embolism
  • massive DVT
  • adjunct during open heart surgery or dialysis
  • disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
  • prophylaxis
    • DVT after hip/knee surgery
    • large-bone Fx
    • venous thromboembolism
    • pulmonary emboli
    • a-fib with embolization
    • acute and chronic consumptive coagulopathies
    • peripheral arterial thromboembolism
    • very low doses (10–100 units) to maintain patency of IV catheters (heparin flush).
85
Q

enoxaparin (Lovenox)

A
  • prevention
    • venous thromboembolism (VTE)
    • DVT
    • PE
    • unstable angina, certain MIs (with aspirin)
  • Tx
    • DVT with or without PE (with warfarin)
    • certain acute MIs (with thrombolytics or percutaneous coronary intervention)
86
Q

warfarin (Coumadin, Jantoven)

A
  • Tx: venous thrombosis
  • prophylaxis and Tx
    • embolization with a-fib and prosthetic heart valve
    • recurrent TIAs, PE, DVT
    • recurrent MI: ↓ risk of death, further embolization or MI
87
Q

fondaparinux (Arixtra)

A
  • prevention and Tx
    • DVT
    • PE
  • off-labe: systemic anticoagulation for other Dx
88
Q

dabigatran (Pradaxa)

A
  • ↓ risk
    • stroke/systemic embolization r/t nonvalvular a-fib
    • recurrence of DVT or PE
  • Tx: DVT or PE in pts treated with parenteral anticoagulant for 5–10 days
  • prophylaxis: DVT or PE after hip replacement
89
Q

rivaroxaban (Xarelto)

A
  • prophylaxis: DVT that may → PE after knee or hip replacement
  • ↓ risk of
    • stroke/systemic embolism in a-fib
    • recurrence of DVT and/or PE in pts with risk after 6 mo Tx
    • (with aspirin) major cardiovascular events (cardiovascular death, MI, and stroke) in pts with chronic CAD or PAD
  • Tx: DVT or PE
90
Q

abciximab (ReoPro)

A
  • (with heparin and aspirin) ↓ cardiac ischemic complications before or after percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
  • off-label: (with heparin and and/or low-dose alteplase or reteplase) to enhance coronary perfusion in patients with acute coronary syndromes (ACS)
91
Q

clopidogrel (Plavix)

A
  • acute coronary syndrome: MI, angina
  • established PAD, recent MI, or recent stroke
92
Q

pentoxifylline (Pentoxil)

A

management of symptomatic peripheral vascular disease (intermittent claudication)

93
Q

alteplase (Activase, t-PA)

A
  • “clot buster”
  • Tx
    • acute MI
    • acute ischemic stroke
    • PE
    • occluded central venous access devices
  • off-label
    • DVT
    • acute peripheral arterial thrombosis
94
Q

steptokinase (Streptase)

A
  • “clot buster”
  • acute MI
  • PE
  • DVT
  • acute peripheral arterial thrombosis
  • occluded arteriovenus cannulae
95
Q

epoetin (Epogen, Procrit)

A
  • anemia r/t or 2/2
    • chronic kidney disease (CKD)
    • zidovudine (AZT) therapy in HIV
    • chemo in some cancer pts
  • ↓ need for allogeneic RBC transfusions during elective, noncardiac, nonvascular surgery
96
Q

filgrastim (Granix)

A
  • prevention: febrile neutropenia and infection some cancer pts
  • ↓ time for
    • neutrophil recovery and duration of fever in some leukemia pts
    • neutrophil recovery and sequelae of neutropenia in some cancer pts before bone marrow transplant
  • prep for collection of hematopoietic progenitor cells
  • severe chronic neutropenia
  • ↑ survival in some radiation therapy pts
  • off-label:
    • neutropenia r/t HIV
    • neonatal neutropenia
97
Q

sargramostim (Leukine)

A
  • acceleration of bone marrow recovery after:
    • autologous bone marrow transplant in some cancers
    • allogenic bone marrow transplantation from HLA-matched donors
  • bone marrow transplant failure or engraftment delay
  • after chemo for AML in patients ≥55 yr
  • ↑ harvest of autologous peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPCs)
98
Q

oprelvekin (Neumega)

A
  • prevention of severe thrombocytopenia
  • ↓ need for platelet transfusion after myelosuppressive chemo some pts
99
Q

furosemide (Lasix)

A
  • edema due to HF, hepatic impairment, or renal dz
  • HTN
100
Q

hydroCHLOROthiazide (Microzide)

A
  • mild to moderate HTN
  • edema r/t
    • HF
    • renal dysfunction
    • cirrhosis
    • glucocorticoid therapy
    • estrogen therapy
101
Q

spironolactone (Aldactone)

A
  • primary hyperaldosteronism
  • edema r/t HF, cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome
  • essential HTN
  • hypokalemia
  • PCOS
  • PMS
  • acne in young females
102
Q

mannitol (Osmitrol)

A
  • IV: ↓ ICP and Tx of cerebral edema
  • ↓ of elevated IOP (narrow-angle glaucoma)
  • GU irrigant: during transurethral procedures
103
Q

lispro insulin (Admelog, HumaLOG)

A

hyperglycemia in type 1 and type 2 DM

104
Q

regular insulin (HumuLIN)

A
  • control of hyperglycemia in DM
  • U-500: pts requiring > 200 units/day
  • off-label: hyperkalemia
105
Q

NPH insulin

A

hyperglycemia in DM

106
Q

insulin glargine

A
  • trade name: Lantus
  • class: antidiabetic, hormone, pancreatic
  • route: SQ
  • onset: long-acting
  • DO NOT MIX
107
Q

insulin glargine (Lantus)

A

hyperglycemia in patients with type 1 and type 2 DM

108
Q

chlorproPAMIDE (Diabinese)

A

control of BG in type 2 DM when diet therapy fails (requires some pancreatic function)

109
Q

glipiZIDE (Glucotrol)

A

adjunct to diet and exercise in type 2 DM (requires some pancreatic function)

110
Q

pioglitazone (Actos)

A

type 2 DM (with diet and exercise)

111
Q

acarbose (Precose)

A

type 2 DM in conjunction with dietary therapy

112
Q

SITagliptin (Januvia)

A

adjunct to diet and exercise for type 2 DM

113
Q

metFORMIN (Glucophage)

A

type 2 DM

114
Q

pramlintide (Symlin)

A

with mealtime insulin in the management of DM not controlled by optimal insulin therapy

115
Q

exenatide (Bydureon, Byetta)

A
  • type 2 DM, as adjunct to diet and exercise
  • not recommended as first-line therapy
116
Q

glucagon (GlucaGen)

A
  • acute management of severe hypoglycemia
  • facilitation of radiographic exam of the GI tract
  • off-label
    • beta-blocker OD
    • calcium channel blocker OD
117
Q

levothyroxine (Levoxyl)

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • Tx or suppression of euthyroid goiters
  • adjunct for thyrotropin-dependent thyroid cancer
118
Q

propylthiouracil (PTU)

A
  • for pts intolerant to methimazole
  • Graves’ dz or toxic multinodular goiter, intolerant to methimazole, surgery or radioactive iodine therapy not appropriate
  • adjunct in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
119
Q

methIMAzole (Tapazole)

A
  • palliative Tx of hyperthyroidism
  • adjunct for hyperthyroidism in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy
120
Q

strong iodine solution (Lugol’s)

A
  • adjunct in prep for thyroidectomy; ↓ thyroid size
  • Tx: thyrotoxic crisis
  • radiation protectant following radiation emergencies or administration of radioactive iodine
121
Q

somatropin

A
  • growth failure in children due to
    • deficiency of growth hormone
    • idiopathic short stature
    • born small and fail to demonstrate catch-up growth by age 2-4 yr
  • short stature r/t Turner’s syndrome
  • SHOX deficiency
  • growth hormone deficiency in adults as a result of
    • pituitary dz
    • hypothalamic dz
    • surgery
    • radiation
    • trauma
    • childhood onset
122
Q

vasopressin (Vasostrict)

A
  • central diabetes insipidus due to deficient antidiuretic hormone
  • vasodilatory shock
  • off-label: gastrointestinal hemorrhage
123
Q

desmopressin (DDAVP)

A
  • all forms: Tx of central diabetes insipidus caused by a deficiency of vasopressin
  • IV, Intranasal: control bleeding in some hemophilia and von Willebrand’s dz
  • Intranasal, SL: nocturia ≥ 2 times per night (Nocdurna only)
  • PO, SL: primary nocturnal enuresis
124
Q

hydrocortisone

A
  • adrenocortical insufficiency
  • systemically and locally in many disorders including
    • inflammatory
    • allergic
    • hematologic
    • neoplastic
    • autoimmune
  • septic shock
125
Q

neostigmine (Bloxiverz)

A
  • reversal of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers after surgery
  • Tx of myasthenia gravis
126
Q

physostigmine (Antilirium)

A
  • reversal of some or all CNS effects due to OD of drugs capable of causing the anticholinergic syndrome
    • belladonna or other plant alkaloids
    • phenothiazines
    • muscarinic antagonists
    • tricyclic antidepressants
    • antihistamines (i.e. promethazine)
127
Q

edrophonium (Enlon)

A
  • myasthenia gravis
    • Dx
    • assessment of adequacy of therapy
    • differentiating from cholinergic crisis
  • reversal of muscle paralysis from nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
128
Q

donepezil (Aricept)

A
  • mild to severe dementia/neurocognitive disorder r/t Alzheimer’s dz
  • Parkinson’s dz
129
Q

PHENobarbital

A
  • tonic-clonic (grand mal), partial, and febrile sz in children
  • preop sedative and in other situations requiring sedation
  • hypnotic (short-term)
  • off-label: prevention/Tx of hyperbilirubinemia in neonates
130
Q

primidone (Mysoline)

A
  • tonic-clonic, complex partial, and focal sz
  • off-label: essential (familial) tremor
131
Q

phenytoin (Dilantin)

A
  • Tx/prevention: tonic-clonic (grand mal) and complex partial sz
  • off-label: antiarrhythmic, particularly with digoxin toxicity, prolonged QT interval, and surgical repair of congenital heart dz in children
  • neuropathic pain, including trigeminal neuralgia
132
Q

valproic acid (Depakene)

A
  • alone or as adjunct for
    • simple and complex absence sz
    • complex partial seizures
  • adjunct: pts with multiple sz types
  • bi-polar depression
  • migraines
133
Q

ethosuximide (Zarontin)

A

absence seizures (petit mal)

134
Q

lamoTRIgine (Lamictal)

A
  • adjunct
    • partial sz in adults and children with epilepsy
    • primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures in adults and children
  • Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
  • maintenance: bipolar disorder
135
Q

levETIRAcetam (Keppra)

A
  • adjunct
    • partial onset seizures
    • primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures
    • myoclonic sz in patients with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  • off-label: status epilepticus
136
Q

topiramate (Topomax)

A
  • sz including
    • partial-onset
    • primary generalized tonic-clonic
    • due to Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
  • prevention: migraine headache
  • off-label
    • adjunct for bipolar disorder
    • infantile spasms
137
Q

OXcarbazepine (Trileptal)

A
  • alone or adjunct for partial sz
  • off-label: trigeminal neuralgia
138
Q

LORazepam (Ativan)

A
  • PO: anxiety disorder
  • IM, IV
    • status epilepticus: IV, inpatient
    • preanesthetic to produce sedation, ↓ preop anxiety and induce amnesia
139
Q

timolol (Timoptic, Betimol)

A
  • HTN alone or adjunct
  • prevention
    • MI
    • migraine
  • off-label
    • ventricular arrhythmia
    • essential tremor
    • anxiety
140
Q

brimonidine (Mirvaso)

A
  • persistent (nontransient) facial erythema due to rosacea
  • glaucoma
141
Q

latanoprost (Xalatan, Xelpros)

A
  • POAG
  • glaucoma
  • ocular htn
142
Q

acetaZOLAMIDE (Diamox)

A
  • ↓ IOP in glaucoma
  • acute altitude sickness
  • edema due to HF
  • adjunct: refractory sz
  • off-label:
    • ↓ CSF production in hydrocephalus
    • prevention: renal calculi composed of uric acid or cystine
143
Q

carteolol (Ocupress)

A

POAG

144
Q

metipranolol (OptiPranolol)

A

POAG

145
Q

levobunolol (Betagan Liquifilm, AK-Beta)

A

POAG

146
Q

betaxolol (Betoptic, Kerlone)

A
  • HTN
  • POAG/ocular HTN
147
Q

levobetaxolol (Betaxon)

A

POAG/ocular htn

148
Q

travoprost (Travatan)

A

POAG

149
Q

bimatoprost (Lumigan)

A

POAG

150
Q

bethanechol (Urecholine)

A
  • PO
    • postpartum and postop nonobstructive urinary retention
    • urinary retention caused by neurogenic bladder
  • investigational: GERD
151
Q

oxybutynin (Ditropan, Gelnique, Oxytrol)

A
  • urinary sx that may be associated with neurogenic bladder
    • frequent urination
    • urgency
    • nocturia
    • urge incontinence
  • overactive bladder with urge incontinence, urgency, and frequency
152
Q

darifenacin (Enablex)

A

overactive bladder with sx (urge incontinence, urgency, frequency)

153
Q

tolterodine (Detrol)

A

Tx of overactive bladder ftn that results in urinary frequency, urgency, or urge incontinence

154
Q

triazolam (Halcion)

A

short-term management of insomnia

155
Q

ALPRAZolam (Xanax)

A
  • generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
  • panic disorder
  • anxiety r/t depression
  • off-label
    • Sx of PMS and PMDD
    • insomnia, IBS, and other somatic sx r/t anxiety
  • adjunct with acute mania, acute psychosis
156
Q

midazolam (Versed)

A
  • PO: preprocedural sedation and anxiolysis (pediatric)
  • IM, IV
    • preop sedation/anxiolysis/amnesia
    • sedation/anxiolysis/amnesia during procedures (conscious sedation)
    • continuous infusion: sedation of ventilated pt
  • status epilepticus
  • induction of anesthesia
  • intranasal: acute treatment of intermittent, stereotypic episodes of frequent sz activity, distinct from an epileptic pt’s usual pattern
157
Q

temazepam (Restoril)

A

short-term management of insomnia (< 4 wk)

158
Q

zolpidem (Ambien)

A

insomnia with difficulties in sleep initiation

159
Q

zaleplon (Sonata)

A
  • short-term: insomnia in patients unable to get at least 4 hr of sleep
  • especially useful in sleep initiation disorders
160
Q

eszopiclone (Lunesta)

A

insomnia

161
Q

captopril (Capoten)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • management: HF
  • following MI, ↓ risk of
    • death
    • HR-related hospitalization
    • development of overt HF
  • diabetic nephropathy in Type 1 DM and retinopathy
162
Q

enalapril, enalaprilat (Epaned, Vasotec)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • symptomatic HF
  • ↓ progression of asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction to overt HR
  • off-label: proteinuria in steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome patients
  • enaliprat: hypertensive crisis
163
Q

lisinopril (Zestril, Prinivil)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • HF
  • ↓ of risk of death or HF after MI
164
Q

ramipril (Altace)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • ↓ risk of MI, stroke, or death from CV causes in pts ≥ 55 yr with Hx of CAD, stroke, PVD, or DM (multiple factors)
  • ↓ risk of death, HF-related hospitalizations, and HF progression in pts with s/sx of HF after MI
165
Q

moexipril (Univasc)

A

alone or adjunct: HTN

166
Q

benazepril (Lotensin)

A

alone or adjunct: HTN

167
Q

losartan (Cozaar)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • Tx: diabetic nephropathy in patients with type 2 DM
  • prevention: stroke in pts with HTN and left ventricular hypertrophy
168
Q

irbesartan (Avapro)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • Tx: diabetic nephropathy in patients with type 2 DM and HTN
169
Q

candesartan (Atacand)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • Tx: HF in pts with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (can be used with an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker)
170
Q

olmesartan (Benicar)

A

alone or adjunct: HTN

171
Q

telmisartan (Micardis)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • ↓ risk of MI, stroke, or CV death in patients ≥ 55 yr at high risk for CV events and unable to take ACE inhibitors
172
Q

eplerenone (Inspra)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • LV systolic dysfunction and evidence of HF post-MI
173
Q

aliskerin (Tekturna)

A

alone or adjunct: HTN

174
Q

NIFEdipine (Adalat, Procardia)

A
  • management
    • HTN (extended-release)
    • angina pectoris
    • vasospastic (Prinzmetal’s) angina
  • off-label
    • prevention: migraine
    • management: HF or cardiomyopathy
175
Q

verapamil (Calan, Verelan)

A
  • HTN
  • anginas
  • supraventricular arrhythmias and rapid ventricular rates in atrial flutter or fibrillation
  • off-label: prevention of migraine
176
Q

dilTIAZem (Cardizem, Cartia, others)

A
  • HTN
  • anginas
  • supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and rapid ventricular rates in atrial flutter or fibrillation
177
Q

amLODIPine (Norvasc)

A
  • alone or adjunct
    • HTN
    • angina pectoris
    • vasospastic (Prinzmetal’s) angina
178
Q

prazosin (Minipress)

A
  • mild to moderate HTN
  • off-label: urinary outflow obstruction in BPH
179
Q

doxazosin (Cardura)

A
  • immediate release, alone or adjunct: HTN
  • symptomatic BPH
180
Q

terazosin (Hytrin)

A
  • alone or adjunct: mild to moderate hypertension
  • s/sx of BPH
181
Q

cloNIDine (Catapres, Duracion, Kapvay)

A
  • PO, TD: mild to moderate HTN
  • PO: ADHD (Kapvay only)
  • Epidural: cancer pain
  • off-label
    • opioid withdrawal
    • adjunct for neuropathic pain
182
Q

guanFACINE (Intuniv, Tenex)

A
  • HTN (immediate-release with thiazide diuretics)
  • ADHD (extended-release)
183
Q

methyldopa (Aldomet)

A

adjunct for moderate to severe HTN

184
Q

metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol)

A
  • Hypertension.
  • Angina pectoris.
  • prevention: MI
  • ↓ mortality with recent MI
  • some HF (Toprol XL only)
  • off-label
    • ventricular arrhythmias/tachycardia
    • migraine prophylaxis
    • tremors
    • aggressive behavior
    • drug-induced akathisia (restlessness)
    • anxiety
185
Q

atenolol (Tenormin)

A
  • HTN
  • angina pectoris
  • prevention of MI
186
Q

esmolol (Brevibloc)

A
  • sinus tachycardia and supraventricular arrhythmias
  • hypertensive crisis
187
Q

propranolol (Hemangeol, Inderal, InnoPran)

A
  • Inderal, InnoPran
    • HTN
    • angina
    • arrhythmia
    • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • thyrotoxicosis
    • essential tremors
    • pheochromocytoma
    • prevention and management: MI
    • prevention of vascular headache
  • Hemangeol: proliferating infantile hemangioma requiring systemic therapy
  • off-label
    • alcohol withdrawal
    • aggressive behavior
    • antipsychotic-associated akathisia (restlessness)
    • situational anxiety
    • esophageal varices
  • investigational: PTSD
188
Q

nadolol (Corgard)

A
  • HTN
  • angina pectoris
  • off-label
    • arrhythmia
    • migraine prophylaxis
    • tremors (essential, lithium-induced, parkinsonian)
    • aggressive behavior
    • antipsychotic-associated akathisia (restlessness)
    • situational anxiety
    • esophageal varices
    • ↓ IOP
189
Q

carvedilol (Coreg)

A
  • HTN
  • HF (ischemic or cardiomyopathic) with digoxin, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors
  • left ventricular dysfunction after MI
190
Q

labetalol

A

HTN

191
Q

nitroprusside (Nipride, Nitropress)

A
  • hypertensive crisis
  • controlled hypotension during anesthesia
  • cardiac pump failure or cardiogenic shock (alone or with dopamine)
192
Q

NITROGLYCERIN (Nitrostat, GoNitro, etc.)

A
  • acute and long-term prophylatic: angina pectoris
  • HF
  • IV: adjunct treatment of acute MI
  • production of controlled hypotension during surgical procedures
  • hypertensive crisis
193
Q

niCARdipine (Cardene)

A
  • HTN
  • angina pectoris
  • vasospastic (Prinzmetal’s) angina
  • hypertensive crisis
194
Q

clevidipine (Cleviprex)

A
  • ↓ BP when oral therapy is not feasible/desirable
  • hypertensive crisis
195
Q

alvimopan (Entereg)

A

speed GI recovery following partial bowel resection surgery with primary anastomosis

196
Q

fosinopril (Monopril)

A
  • alone or adjunct: HTN
  • management of HF
197
Q

ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)

A
  • PO, IV
    • mild to moderate pain
    • fever
  • PO
    • inflammatory disorders including RA and OA
    • dysmenorrhea
  • IV
    • moderate to severe pain with opioid analgesics
    • closure of PDA in neonates (NeoProfen only)
198
Q

naproxen (Aleve)

A
  • mild to moderate pain
  • dysmenorrhea
  • fever
  • inflammatory disorders
    • RA
    • OA
199
Q

indomethacin (Indocin, Tivorbex)

A
  • inflammatory disorders
    • RA
    • gouty arthritis
    • OA
    • ankylosing spondylitis
  • mild to moderate acute pain
  • IV: alternative to surgery in the management of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in premature neonates
200
Q

DICLOFENAC

A
  • PO: inflammatory disorders
    • RA
    • OA
    • ankylosing spondylitis
  • primary dysmenorrhea
  • mild to moderate pain
  • acute treatment of migraines (powder for oral solution)
  • topical
    • actinic keratoses (Solaraze)
    • OA (Voltaren Gel, Pennsaid [for knees]).
  • transdermal: acute pain from minor strains, sprains, and contusions
201
Q

ketorolac (Toradol)

A

short-term management of pain (≤ 5 days total for all routes combined)

202
Q

meloxicam (Mobic)

A

s/sx of OA and RA

203
Q

celecoxib (Celebrex)

A
  • Tx of s/sx of
    • OA
    • RA
    • ankylosing spondylitis
  • acute pain including primary dysmenorrhea
204
Q

hydrOXYzine (Vistaril)

A
  • anxiety
  • preop sedation
  • antiemetic
  • antipruritic
205
Q
A

2020 Pharmacology I (21 decks)

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