Drug Side Effects Flashcards

1
Q

Red man syndrome

A

Rate related transfusion reaction with vancomycin
going red when you give the vanc or teic TOO FAST- it should be given as an infusion NOT bolus.

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2
Q

Warfarin is increased by waht drugs

A

Most antibiotics that kill gut microbiome

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3
Q

Methotrexate toxicity is induced by

A

Most antibiotics

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4
Q

Alcohol disulfiram reaction

A

metronidazole. avoid even for 48hr post last dose

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5
Q

Reduced efficacy of these antibiotics when drinking alcohol

A

doxycycline and erythromycin

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6
Q

ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

A

gentimicin (hardly ever used so you probably wont see this except for intraabdominal sepsis AGM), vancomycin (more commonly used- C diff infections and MRSA)

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7
Q

What blood abnormalities may you need to watch out for with vancomycin?

A

thrombocytopenia and neutropenia (opposite of steroids)

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8
Q

ondansetron side effect and the reason it is not used in palliative care?

A

Constipation!

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9
Q

tamoxifen side effects

A

endometrial carcinoma and dvt and hot flushes

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10
Q

Budesonide doesnt cause adrenal suppression as it only works topically in the gut. true or false?

A

true

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11
Q

adrenal suppression can be reduced by doubling the dose but then taking alternate day dosing

A

true

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12
Q

adrenal suppression is reduced most by taking it AM at normal time when adrenaline is produced

A

true

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13
Q

antiplatelets can cause gastric ulcers

A

yes so prescribe PPI

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14
Q

Which of the antiepileptics cause SIADH?

A

Carbamezapine

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15
Q

Which antidepressants cause SIADH?

A

amytriptylline and SSRI

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16
Q

strontium side effects

A

Strontium ranelate
‘dual action bone agent’ - increases deposition of new bone by osteoblasts (promotes differentiation of pre-osteoblast to osteoblast) and reduces the resorption of bone by inhibiting osteoclasts
concerns regarding the safety profile of strontium have been raised recently. It should only be prescribed by a specialist in secondary care
due to these concerns the European Medicines Agency in 2014 said it should only be used by people for whom there are no other treatments for osteoporosis
increased risk of cardiovascular events: any history of cardiovascular disease or significant risk of cardiovascular disease is a contraindication
increased risk of thromboembolic events: a Drug Safety Update in 2012 recommended it is not used in patients with a history of venous thromboembolism
may cause serious skin reactions such as Stevens Johnson syndrome

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17
Q

raloxifene side effects?

A

firstly its a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
has been shown to prevent bone loss and to reduce the risk of vertebral fractures but has NOT shown to reduce the risk of non-vertebral fractures
HAS been shown to increase bone density in the SPINE and proximal femur
THEN SIDE EFFECT WISE
1. may worsen menopausal symptoms
2. increased risk of thromboembolic events
3. may increase the risk of endometrial cancer but decrease the risk of breast cancer

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18
Q

side effects of LMWH/UFH?

A

HYPERKALAEMIA
- Causes inhibition of aldosterone secretion- only when the dose is theurapeutic

OSTEOPOROSIS

HIT - UFH (Days 5-10 or day 1 if exposed to it in the last month: 4Ts risk tool
30% reduction of platelet count or > 50% from the patient’s baseline platelet count, with thrombosis, or skin allergy.

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19
Q

Clindamyicin biggest side effect ?

A

it has the highest risk of C diff so only prescribed in those with SEVERE penicillin allergy as an alternative

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20
Q

quinolones biggest side effectS (6)?

A

MHRA warning-
1. ^ risk of aortic aneurysms,
2. aortic dissection,
3. aortic regurg,
4. suicide and
5. seizure
6. tendinopathy
HUGE WARNING USING THIS EVER

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21
Q

SNRI- SSRI/SNRI side effects?

A

SNRI- SSRI/SNRI antidepressant medicines: small increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage when used in the month before delivery (January 2021).

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22
Q

why is fidaxocin 2nd line for C diff?

A

Fidaxomicin is EXPENSIVE- £2000 per course. hence why it is 2nd line to vancomycin

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23
Q

biggest side effect of beta blockers?

A

impotenence
followed by nightmares
followed by cold peripheries (and vasospasm - that is why it is not used in cardiac arrest caused by cocaine)

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24
Q

Side effect of ACE I?

A

Angioedema esp. in black patients

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25
Q

Amlodipine contraindications

A

unstable angina (reflex tahcycarida)
Cardiogenic shock and
significant aortic stenosis

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26
Q

why do NSAIDS increase risk of CVD, stroke and fluid retention?

A

nsaids
- why diclofenic is bad for heart failure and all NSAIDS in general is because of their action on COX2 - usually COX2 increases the GFR - increasing water and sodium loss. But when you inhibit this more renin is released and more water and sodium are reasborbed. But Diclofenic is the strongest for this, and also therefore has more vasoconstrictive effects hence why its association with stroke and thrombosis (as the lumen narrows are atheromas are more likely to break off)
- Naproxen is generally considered safer than diclofenac becauseit has a lower risk of cardiovascular events and gastrointestinal (GI) issues as it has less effect on COX2.

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27
Q

Does vancomycin cause renal impairment ? what are its warnings/side effects ?

A

Vancomycin is associated with a higher incidence of nephrotoxicity than teicoplanin.

but not as much as gent- hence why you can give before levels come back

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28
Q

donepezil side effects

A

bradycardia
potentially inappropriate in patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia (heart rate less than 60 beats per minute), heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate (risk of cardiac conduction failure, syncope, and injury).

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29
Q

beta blocker. if someones heart rate is 54 what do you do?

A
  1. anything under 60 u want to bring up (as this is marked bradycardia)
  2. so you need to reduce the dose.
  3. But caution - you do NOT do this quickly in any patient with heart disorders because sudden cessation of a beta-blocker can cause a rebound worsening of myocardial ischaemia and therefore gradual reduction of dose is preferable when beta-blockers are to be stopped.
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30
Q

which drugs cause constipation out of the following:

Amlodipine
Bisoprolol
Amiodarone
Lithium

A

All except lithium

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31
Q

Which drugs cause sun sensitivity?

A

Tetracyclines (e.g., Doxycycline)
Sulfonamides (e.g., Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim)
Chlorpromazine (Antipsychotic)
Thiazide Diuretics (e.g., Hydrochlorothiazide)
Retinoids (e.g., Isotretinoin, Tretinoin)
Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin)
Methotrexate (Chemotherapy/Immunosuppressant)

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32
Q

Medications that cause postural hypotension

A

Alpha blockers- most likely
Nitrates- 2nd most likely
Diuretics- Moderate to High chance
Beta blockers- not on their own
ACE inhibitors- first dose hypotension
Dopaminergic drugs- potentially in elderly

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33
Q

A lady in AMAU in Prince Phillip presents with N/V, blurred vision, tachycardia, palpitations and dehydration. She was taking digoxin, prednisolone for addisons and black seed oil. She had irritated eyes. What else do you want to know and what are your top 3 differentials?

A
  1. reaction to black seed oil, contact dermatitis allergic reaction around the eyes too.
  2. Addisonian crisis secondary to suboptimal prednisolone levels secondary to black seed oil interaction
  3. digoxin toxicity secondary to black seed oil interaction
  4. Addisonian crisis- low BP (dizziness, collapse, weakness, headache, blurry vision, feeling faint), electrolyte imbalance (low Na, high K- less urine output, and confusion, Irritability, fatigue), low glucose (similar symptoms to the above), characteristically there is a pain in the abdomen, lower back and legs! (large muscle groups feel the low BP and electrolyte abnormalities the most), hypercalcaemia (irritability, abdominal pains, psychosis, constipation- can go into ileus!)
  5. digoxin toxicity signs- 1. brady, 2. N/V, 3. Diarrhoea and late stage changes are 1. vision changes and 2. tachyarrhythmias. The adverse pharmacodynamic effects of digoxin are potentiated in the presence of hypokalaemia. A suspicion of digoxin toxicity can be confirmed by measuring the plasma digoxin concentration at least 6 hours after a dose, which should be between 0.8 and 2 micrograms/L.
    SO IF THEY ARE POTENTIATED BY HYPOKALAEMIA THEY ARE LESS LIKELY IN ADDISONIAN CRISIS TO CO-OCCUR.
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34
Q

Phenytoin side effects

A

Peripheral neuropathy, lymphadenopathy, and bleeding gums due to gingival hypertrophy, probably because it causes folic acid deficiency

35
Q

carbamezapine side effects

A

Carbamazepine can cause side effects such as dizziness, ataxia, and diplopia.
also reduces efficacy of contraceptives.

36
Q

other than being teratogenic, topiramate can also cause…

A

Weight loss (as it inhibits glutamate and enhances GABA which has appetite suppressing effects), cognitive impairment (GABA slows neuronal processing), and kidney stones (it inhibits carbonic anhydrase which means urine becomes more alkanised which precipitates the formation of calcium phosphate stones as these form in alkaline urine).

37
Q

Sodium valproate side effects?

A

Sodium valproate can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, tremors, and hair loss.

38
Q

Lamotrigine side effects?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome, headache and dizziness.

39
Q

Warfarin why skin necrosis and why we start heparin initially?

A

it inhibits protein anticoagulant C faster than it inhibits clotting factors

40
Q

heparin side effects

A

bleeding
thrombocytopenia - see below
osteoporosis and an increased risk of fractures
hyperkalaemia - this is thought to be caused by inhibition of aldosterone secretion

41
Q

sildenafil

A

nasal congestion

sildenafil inhibits cGMP-specific PDE-5, which enhances the effect of NO. NO causes congestion in the penis, nose, head (headache), skin (flushing), blood vessels (low blood pressure IS VERY LOW RISK THOUGH),

cyanopsia- blue vision

42
Q

verapmil or diltiazem ankle swelling and flushing? which is worse for heart failure

A

verapmil- flushing
diltiazem- ankle swelling

verapmil is a stronger non-dihydro than diltiazem though so more risk of ankle swelling i thought?

43
Q

Triptans side effects with oral use > nasal use

A

20 to 50% of patients who initially respond will have a rebound headache within 48 hours. If this is an issue naratriptan may be better as it has a slower onset and offset.

44
Q

safety netting advice for terbinafine

A

stop terbinafine and seek prompt medical assessment if they develop symptoms of liver injury (e.g. flu-like illness, gastrointestinal symptoms, pruritus, and jaundice), infection (e.g. fever, sore throat), or mouth ulcers (ten, sjs), or skin rash.

45
Q

rare but serious side effects of ACE inhibitors is

A

rare but serious side effects of ACE inhibitors is angioedema, characterised by marked tongue and facial swelling as described in this scenario. This reaction can occur at any time during treatment, even weeks or months after initiation.

46
Q

Medications which may cause vertigo?

A

Quinine
Anticonvulsants, e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine
Diuretics, e.g. furosemide
Antibiotics, e.g. erythromycin, minomycin, aminoglycosides
NSAIDs, e.g. aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin
Cytotoxics
Alcohol

47
Q

Common causes of SIADH?

A

Opioids
ACE-i or ARBs
PPI
Anticonvulsants (such as sodium valproate, lamotrigine, and leviteracetam).
Amiodarone.
Theophylline.
Dopamine antagonists (metoclopramide and domperidone).
Antidiabetics (insulin, chlorpropamide, and tolbutamine).
NSAIDS
MDMA (ecstasy).

48
Q

Thiazides side effects and where do they act on the kidney?

A

Thiazides- cause sodium loss- this decreases circulating volume and triggers ADH release- which causes purely water absorption leading to euvolemic hyponatremia.? So not exactly SIADH as it is appropraite just not desired.

49
Q

Allopurinol risks to make patient aware of?

A

Rash within first 6 weeks - discontinue and get in touch if it occurs

50
Q

A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with a painless ulcer on his penis which has been present for several weeks.
He otherwise has no symptoms and is generally well in himself. On examination. he also has non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
The GP prescribes penicillin. Several hours later, the patient presented with fever and a new rash to the Emergency Department. On examination. he appears well but has marked flushing of his torso. There is good air entry on
auscultation. with no wheeze. Observations are as follows:
* Heart rate: 98 beats/min
* Respirator rate: 18 breaths/min
* Blood pressure: 132/72 mmHg
* Temperature: 37

what is happening and how to treat?

A

The Jarisch-Hersheimer reaction unlike an anaphylactic reaction will NOT present with hypotension and wheeze.

It is key to note here that the patient did not then present with an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin - he appeared well on examination with normal auscultation and no hypotension. He instead presented with the Jarisch-Herzheimer reaction. which is sometimes seen following treatment of SYPHILLUS thought to be due to the release of endotoxins It presents as fever, rash and tachycardia but there is crucially no wheeze and no hypotension No treatment is required except for antipyretics if needed

51
Q
A
52
Q
A

furosemide doesnt need to be stopped

53
Q
A

The patient has developed neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). This is a rare, idiosyncratic, potentially life-threatening reaction to a neuroleptic drug. The presentation of NMS varies considerably between patients. There is a gradual onset of symptoms over 1-3 days. Typical features include hyperthermia (temperature >38°C), diaphoresis, rigidity, confusion and fluctuating consciousness. Fluctuating blood pressure and tachycardia are also common, along with raised WCC and serum creatine kinase concentrations and altered liver function tests. Risk factors for MS include the use of high-potency first-generation neuroleptics such as haloperidol and fluphenazine but every class of neuroleptic drug has been implicated.

NMS occurs less commonly with other agents including prochlorperazine, promethazine, atypical antipsychotics (e.g clozapine, risperidone), anticholinergic drugs, metoclopramide and lithium. Other risk factors include a recent or rapid dose increase, rapid dose reduction and the abrupt withdrawal of antipsychotics. In this patient a rapid switch from quetiapine to haloperidol may have increased the risk of NMS.

The patient has a temperature of 38.2°C, tachycardia and labile blood pressure. He is agitated and confused, sweating, hypersalivating and has severe muscle rigidity.

If lead-pipe muscle rigidity alone were present, this could indicate Parkinsonian-like extrapyramidal adverse effects of haloperidol which could be treated with procyclidine or trihexyphenidyl hydrochloride.

However, the patient’s other signs and symptoms are strongly suggestive of NMS.

Treatment of MS includes stopping the neuroleptic drugs) responsible immediately, in this case haloperidol and quetiapine.

Treatment should be withheld for at least 5 days but ideally longer, allowing signs and symptoms to resolve completely.

NMS may persist for 2-14 days after an oral neuroleptic drug is stopped or for up to 21 days if caused by a depot injection. Most episodes resolve within 2 weeks.

Agitation can be treated with benzodiazepines IV if required.

Physical restraint may worsen hyperthermia and should be avoided.

IV fluids are given to reduce the risk of dehydration and acute kidney injury.

The airway and breathing must be protected if compromised.

Pyrexia is treated with cooling devices and antipyretics such as paracetamol.

Drug treatment of MS usually includes dantrolene sodium IV and bromocriptine PO.

Dantrolene is a direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxant and is effective in treating malignant hyperthermia. —> A rapid reduction of heat production as well as rigidity usually occur within minutes of administration. As it is given IV, it is the most appropriate initial treatment.

The dose of dantrolene is 2-3 mg/kg by rapid IV injection, then 1 mg/kg repeated if necessary up to 10 mg/kg/course.

There is a risk of hepatotoxicity and liver function tests should be checked regularly.

Dantrolene may be continued for up to 10 days and possibly tapered slowly to minimise the risk of relapse.

There is approximately a 30% chance of recurrence of NMS when antipsychotic treatment is restarted.

The drug chosen should be structurally unrelated to that which caused the NMS or a drug with low dopamine affinity such as clozapine or aripiprazole.

Quetiapine would normally be included here but was possibly implicated in causing MS in this patient.

Depot preparations must not be used.

Treatment should start at a very low dose and then be titrated very slowly with close monitoring of temperature, pulse and blood pressure.

54
Q

as well as monitoring hepatic function for terbenafine what else should you tell the patient to report and stop using terbenafine if this happens?

A

RUQ pain, consistent N/V, bleeding/bruising, pruritis, jaundice, dark urine and pale stools.

55
Q

lansoprazole side effects long term to make patients aware of/check in a medication review

A

bone fractures due to reduced Ca, Mg absorption. Check Ca and Mg levels. Mg should be monitored throughut and before treatment starts if going to be on it long term.

Gut infections.

B12 deficiency – symptoms include feeling very tired, a sore and red tongue, mouth ulcers and pins and needles.

56
Q

Which one of the following medications is most likely to cause urinary retention?

Codeine

Doxazosin

Duloxetine

Finasteride

Loratadine

A

Codeine is an opioid, and a common side effect of this class of medication is urinary retention. Other drugs that can cause this are tricyclic antidepressants, anticholinergics, and NSAIDs.

Loratadine is a non-sedating antihistamine used for symptomatic relief of allergy. It does not cause urinary retention, but keep in mind that some older antihistamines can.

The following drugs may cause urinary retention:
tricyclic antidepressants e.g. amitriptyline
anticholinergics e.g. antipsychotics, antihistamines
opioids
NSAIDs
disopyramide

57
Q

Commonest side effect of sildanafil

A

headaches (10-30%)

58
Q

Which one of the following side-effects is least recognised in patients taking ciclosporin?

Hypokalaemia

Hyperplasia of the gum

Hypertension

Tremor

Excessive hair growth

A

The major side effects of ciclosporin include nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, hyperglycaemia, neurotoxicity (which can manifest as tremors), hirsutism (excessive hair growth), and gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of the gums).

Ciclosporin side-effects: everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose.
The occurrence of a Tremor is also a recognised neurological side effect caused by ciclosporin. This usually presents as a fine hand tremor but may affect other parts of the body.

59
Q

Which one of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to precipitate pulmonary oedema in a patient with known chronic heart failure?

Amlodipine
Diltiazem
Felodipine
Verapamil
Nifedipine

A

The correct answer is Verapamil. Verapamil is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (CCB) which has negative inotropic effects, meaning it decreases the strength of heart muscle contraction. In patients with chronic heart failure, where the contractility of the heart is already compromised, further reduction in contractile force by Verapamil can exacerbate heart failure and potentially precipitate pulmonary oedema.

Diltiazem, like Verapamil, is a non-dihydropyridine CCB but it has intermediate effects between Verapamil and dihydropyridines. It does have some negative inotropic effects but less than Verapamil. Therefore, it may also worsen heart failure but to a lesser extent compared to Verapamil.

60
Q

which of these is most likely to cause urticaria?
Aspirin
Atorvastatin
Bisoprolol
Metformin
Ticagrelor

A

aspirin - inhibits COX enzyme= affects prostaglandin synthesis balance leading to allergic like symptoms.
Other causes - NSAIDs (akin), opioids and penicillins.

61
Q

Chronic alcohol use can cause?…

A

hypomagnesia

62
Q

common drug causes of hypokalaemia?

A
  1. aminophylline- especially in the context of severe asthma where hypokalaemia may be exacerbated by giving additional beta agonists like salbutamol and steroids.
  2. lmwh
  3. corticosteroids
  4. insulin
  5. loop and thiazide diuretics
  6. Amphotericin (antifungal)
  7. alkanising agents (bicarbinate)
  8. high dose aspirin
  9. cisplatin and cyclophosphamide can cause renal potassium loss as a side effect of treatment.
63
Q

drugs that increase your risk of seizures

A

meropenem in the instance of sodium valproate (reduces efficacy by 50-100%)
fluoroquinolones
aminophylline
Methylphenidate
carbamezapine
antipsychotics- clozapine, haloperidol and chlorpromazine.
Bupropion
Tricyclic antidepressants

64
Q

drugs that cause QT interval prolongation

A

Methadone
anti arrythmics
anti emetics
anti depressants
anti psychotics
Antifungals: Itraconazole, fluconazole, voriconazole
Antimalarials: Quinine, chloroquine, mefloquine
Diuretics: Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide
Antihistamines: Diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine
antibiotics- specificaly Erythromycin, azithromycin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, etc.

65
Q

drugs most likely to cause nightmares/sleep disturbance

A

serotonergic- SSRI, SNRI, TCA, MAO, antipsychotics,
Dopaminergic drugs for parkinsons
Beta blockers
Steroids
Montelukast

66
Q

which route of triptan administration is least likely ot cause nausea

A

Subcut or nasal
oral has to go through GI tract so has potential to cause nausea and also has a slower onset vs other routes. REMEMBER YOU CAN’T GIVE THIS IF THE PATIENT HAS UNCONTROLLED HTN

67
Q

which two triptans are used for prophylaxis and why do they work for it vs sumatriptan?

A

Naratriptan and frovatriptan. (potentially eletriptan too)

The half-lives of naratriptan, eletriptan and, in particular, frovatriptan (26 to 30h) are longer than that of sumatriptan (2h).

68
Q

glimepiride risk?

A

SIADH

69
Q

A 45-year-old man is started on ciclosporin following a renal transplant. Which one of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur?

Depression

Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease

Pulmonary fibrosis

Impaired glucose tolerance

Nephrotoxicity

A

Nephrotoxicity > Impaired glucose tolerance

70
Q

pioglitazone SE?

A

PIO-glitazone risks:
- Pee: Bladder cancer
- Ischaemic (not quite but helps me): Heart failure
- Osteo: Fractures

OR Glita - zone rhymes with broken - bone

71
Q

WHICH DIABETIC DRUGS HAVE Pancreatitis RISK?

A

Gliptins

72
Q

which antibiotis are ci in renal impairment

A

tetracyclins

73
Q

hyperthyroidism on amiodarone?

A

STOP immediately and refer in if symptoms/signs of thyrotoxicosis

74
Q

hypothyrodisim on amiodarone?

A

CONTINUE. no need to stop (unlike hyperthyroidism in amiodarone)

75
Q

How long after amiodarone use can you develop symptoms?

A

MHRA says you should monitor for 1 month after discontinuation but may occur even later than this (amiodarone half life 50 days)

76
Q

how likely are ED drugs to cause psotural hypotension?

A

<2% !

77
Q

why is IV lorazepam > IV diazepam?

A

IV diazepam has a higher risk of thrombophlebitis

78
Q

at drugs cause nasal congestion?

A

prazocin- alpha 1 receptor antagonist and
selegiline (dopamine MAO but also works on alpha 1 receptors)
others - sildenafil, promazine hydrochloride, bromocriptine, ribavrin, hydralazine! amiloride! and methylodopa!
- commonly the parkinsons drugs by the looks of it!

79
Q

do all insulins increase the risk of oedema?

A

yes! wtf! it is apparently a common or very common side effect

80
Q

drugs likely to cause pulmonary fibrosis/ chronic cough?

A
  1. chemotherapy drugs (methotrexate and bleomycin)
  2. antibiotics (nitrofuritoin)
  3. anti-inflammatories (sulfalazine)
  4. cardiac drugs (amiodarone)
81
Q

drugs likely to cause gout or hyperuricemia?

A
  1. low dose aspirin (<325mg).
  2. diuretics (loop)
  3. ciclosporin or tacrolimus
  4. chemotherapy
  5. allopurinol (to begin with)
  6. some ARBs
82
Q

why is fentynl so much more dangerous than morphine esp. in street use?

A

because it has a MUCH MUCH MUCH longer half-life and its like 100x more potent. If you administer naloxone - you need to do it on an infusion so people in the streets need to come in quick.

83
Q

Why is it more important to warn patients to mention any hearing changes > urinary changes with ototoxic and nephrotoxic drugs?

A

renal function can the monitored via routine laboratory testing and reduced urine output would be a late sign of damage anyway- kidney injury should be detected with bloods way before this point.