Drug Eval And Pharmacogenetics Flashcards

1
Q

Preclinical testing

A
  • animals only
  • lots of safety tests
  • Subacute toxicity (days to 6 months)
  • chronic toxicity
  • only about 5 drugs will make it past this phase
  • all go to FDA after this for the investigational phase
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2
Q

Important limitations to preclinical testing

A
  • time consuming and expensive ($50 mill per successful drug, 2-5 years to collect and analyze data)
  • large number of animals are used (increased efforts to use in vitro methods, but those are severely limited)
  • extrapolation of toxicity data from animals to humans is not completely reliable
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3
Q

In this phase, we are looking to see if the drug is safe. We are looking at healthy people taking the drug, not the drug response. Exception is in cancer and HIV meds. Small amount of people

A

Phase I

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4
Q

How many people are used in Phase I of clinical testing

A

20-100

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5
Q

What is the exception to phase I clinical trials

A

HIV and cancer meds

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6
Q

This phase checks to make sure it works, testing efficacy by giving to sick people. A medium number of people being tested

A

Phase II clinical trials

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7
Q

How many people are tested in the phase II clinical trial

A

100-200

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8
Q

This phase tests safety and efficacy. Double blind studies with a greater number of people. This phase tells us common side effects of the drug

A

Phase II clinical trial

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9
Q

How many people are used in the phase III clinical trial

A

1000

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10
Q

After you go though phase I-III clinical trials, what happens

A

Can then submit new drug application to FDA

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11
Q

How many drugs make it past the clinical trials and to the market?

A

5000 in preclinical…5 in clinical…1 makes it past FDA

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12
Q

If a new drug is on the market, does that mean its the best one there is

A

No, sometimes they don’t know the long term side effects of a drug that is new to the market

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13
Q

Less than _______ of the drugs tested in clinical trials reach the marketplace

A

1/3

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14
Q

3 confounding factors in clinical trials

A
  • variable natural history of most disease
  • the presence of other disease and risk factors
  • subject and observer bias (patients are influenced by the placebo effect )
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15
Q

Variable natural history of most diseases

A
  • must use large enough population
  • also use a crossover design which consists of alternating periods of administration of test drug, placebo preparation (control), and the standard treatment (positive control)
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16
Q

The present of other diseases and risk factors

A

Health person on Abx vs HIV person on Abx will respond differently

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17
Q

Subject and observer bias

A

Patients are influenced by the placebo effect

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18
Q

Is it better to compare a new drug to one that is already on the market or to a placebo?

A

Both. This helps factor in the placebo effect, and also helps compare it to something effective that is already on the market

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19
Q

Pure food and drug act of 1906

A

Makes sure product is pure and what the package says it is

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20
Q

Federal food, drug, and cosmetic act of 1938

A

In reaction to a series of deaths associated with sulfanilamide that was marketed before it and its vehicle were adequately tested

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21
Q

FDA and thalidomide

A

Animal tests showed it to be a nontoxic hypnotic

  • a lot of birth defects in pregnant women
  • inhibited growth of new blood vessels
  • lead to Kefauver-Harris Amendments of 1962
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22
Q

Kefauver-Harris amendments of 1962

A

Thalidomide causing severe birth defects

-required more extensive testing of new drugs for teratogenic effects

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23
Q

Drugs for rare diseases

A

Orphan drugs
Affecting fewer than 200,000 people in US.
-difficult to research, develop, and market
-little attention or funding

24
Q

The study of genetic basis for variation in drug response

A

Pharmacogentics

25
Q

Difference between pharmacogentics and pharmacogenomics

A

Pharmacogentics refers to a single gene, pharmacogenomics refers to multiple genes or a genome

26
Q

What is the basis of parhmacogenetics

A

Individuals will respond well, some will not respond, and still other will experience toxicity from a given drug

27
Q

The most common basis for genetic variation, and thus the basis for a pharmacogenomic approach to drug therapy

A

The single nucleotide polymorphism, or SNP

28
Q

When does a SNP occur

A

When a single nucleotide is exchanged for another at a point in an individuals genome

29
Q

Central dogma of genetics

A

DNA–(transcription)–RNA–(translation)–Proteins

30
Q

What do codons code for

A

They are 3 nucleotides that code for amino acids

31
Q

What do alterations in amino acids ultimately do

A

Influences what happens to some proteins

32
Q

Change the identity of an amino acid. Substitution of this amino acid may change the structure or function of the protein

A

Missense SNPs (nonsynonymous coding SNPs)

33
Q

What are the two different types of missense SNPs

A

Conservative

Non-conservative

34
Q

An amino acid may be replaced by an amino acid of very similar chemical properties, in which case, the protein may still function normally

A

Conservative missense SNPs

35
Q

Results in an amino acid change that is not similar leading to a protein that has loss of function

A

Non-conservative missense SNPs

36
Q

Lead to a stop codon, which will halt translation of nucleotides into a proteins, also another type of nonsynonymous coding

A

Nonsense mutations

37
Q

Also called sense SNPs, do not change the identity of an amino acid and are not likely to affect the structure or function of the protein

A

Synonymous coding SNPs (silent mutations)

-different codon that codes fro the same amino acid

38
Q

Poor metabolized (PM) and standard drugs

A

Reduced elimination

Increases toxicity risk

39
Q

Poor metabolized (PM) and prodrugs

A

Decreased effectiveness

Decreased activation

40
Q

Intermediate metabolized (IM) and standard drugs

A

Possible increased toxicity risk

41
Q

Intermediate metabolized (IM) and prodrugs

A

Possible reduced effectiveness

42
Q

Normal metabolized (NM) and standard and prodrugs

A

Performs according to FDA label specifications

43
Q

Rapid or ultra rapid metabolized (RM, URM) and standard drugs

A

Reduced effectiveness

Increased elimination

44
Q

Rapid or ultra rapid metabolizer (RM, URM) and prodrugs

A

Increased activation

Increased toxicity risk

45
Q

What can SNPs have a hug effect on

A

CYPs

46
Q

This isozyme is responsible for metabolizing a number of drugs with narrow therapeutic indices, most notably warfarin

A

CYP2C9

47
Q

Warfarin–increases bleeding risk for patients carrying either the ____ or the ____ allele

A

CYP2C92
CYP2C9
3

Poor metabolized

48
Q

Responsible for the metabolism of the proton pump inhibitors

A

CYP2C19

49
Q

When is CYP2C19 an advantage

A

When taking omeprazole

-increases efficacy of proton pump inhibitors in H pylori eradication

50
Q

What CYP is a problem with Codeine

A

CYP2D6

  • use caution in patients with 2 or more canopies of the variant CYP2D6*2 allele
  • can cause initial overdoes and little pain control
51
Q

The isozyme that metabolizes most drugs

A

CYP3A4

52
Q

CYP3A4 mutations

A

There are currently few CYP3A4 mutations identified that are considered to be of clinical importance

53
Q

Involves the use of an individuals information or genetic profile to guide decision made in regards to the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of disease

A

Personalized medicine

54
Q

Examples of personalized medicine

A

Dose modifications of medicines depending on SNPs that determine drug metabolism speed and individualized screening for effective therapies

55
Q

Like..

A

I worked really hard on these notecards

56
Q

What’s the greatest basketball team of all time?

A

Def not UK