Dropbox Old Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The activity of thiobarbiturates is increased by

o Metabolic acidosis (Also hypoalbuminemia)

o Metabolic alkalosis

o Hyperthermia

o Hypoglycemia

o Hyperproteinemia

A

Metabolic acidosis (Also hypoalbuminemia)

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2
Q

Atropine has what effect on heart rate and rhythm?

Increases HR by blocking muscarinic receptors

Decreases HR by stimulation of vagal nuclei in the medulla

Produces first and second degree block during the development of sinus tachycardia

Predisposes to ventricular arrhythmias by increasing myocardial oxygen consumption

All of the above

A

Increases HR by blocking muscarinic receptors

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3
Q

Oxygen passes through the anesthesia machine in the following order

o Flowmeter, vaporizer, breathing circuit, patient

o Vaporizer, flowmeter, patient, breathing circuit

o Breathing circuit, vaporizer, flowmeter, patient

o Flush valve, charcoal, pressure raising valve, patient

o Vaporizer, pressure reducing valve, breathing circuit, patient

A

Flowmeter, vaporizer, breathing circuit, patient

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4
Q

A common potentially dangerous side effect associated w/ rapid IV injection of a thiobarbiturate is

o Vomiting

o Hyperthermia

o Convulsions

o Apnea

o Hyperreflexia

A

Apnea

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5
Q

The depth of anesthesia produced by an inhalant agent depends on

o The solubility of the anesthetic agent in the blood

o The partial pressure of the anesthetic agent in the brain

o The respiratory minute volume

o The duration of anesthesia

o The vapor pressure of the anesthetic

A

The partial pressure of the anesthetic agent in the brain

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6
Q

With the alveolar ventilation held constant, an increase in CO will increase anesthetic uptake and

o This will speed the rise in alveolar concentration of methoxyflurane

o The rise in arterial concentration will also vary with the solubility, the least soluble rising more slowly

o An excited animal will exhibit a fast induction

o The effect on the arterial concentration is more pronounced with methoxyflurane than nitrous oxide

o The alveolar rate of rise will be unaffected

A

The rise in arterial concentration will also vary with the solubility, the least soluble rising more slowly

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7
Q

Diffusion of anesthetic gases from the alveoli into the blood depends on

o Partial pressure gradient

o Solubility of gas in the blood

o The PCV

o MAC of the agent

o pH of the blood

A

Solubility of gas in the blood

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8
Q

A 2.5% solution of Thiopental contains what concentration of the actual drug?

o 2.5 mg/mL

o 0.025 mg/mL

o 25 mg/mL

o 250 mg/mL

o 2.5 mg/mL

A

25 mg/mL

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9
Q

Morphine, if administered intravenously, may potentiate a hypotensive crisis by causing

o The release of histamine

o The release of epinephrine

o Increasing vagal activity

o Increasing inotropy

o A and C are correct

A

The release of histamine

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10
Q

The anesthetic with the least cardiovascular effects in the dog is

o Thiopental

o Propofol

o Etomidate

o Halothane

o Methohexital

A

Etomidate

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11
Q

A 35 kg dog has been induced w/ Thiopental, intubated, and induction is continued w/ 2.5% isoflurane delivered and 2L/min of oxygen. The patient is spontaneously breathing, but moving, chewing the ET tube, and raising its head from the table. You mumble some obscene words and again inject 125 mg of Thiopental. Apnea follows, and you must now assist breathe for the animal. Which of the following would you expect to be the most serious consequence of this action?

o Arterial hypertension

o Tachycardia

o Decreased cardiac output

o Peripheral vasoconstriction

o Increased stroke volume

A

Decreased cardiac output

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12
Q

Xylazine offers an advantage over Acepromazine in that it is generally associated with a short period of

o Antihistamine effect

o Antiemesis

o Analgesia

o Sleep

o Antiarrhythmic effects

A

Analgesia

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13
Q

Opioids can produce which of the following in dogs?

Euphoria

Panting

Vomiting

Analgesia

All

A

All

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14
Q

Which anesthetic agent produces poor muscle relaxation, salivation, tonic clonic spasms, wide pupils when administered to cats?

o Ketamine

o Thiopental

o Etomidate

o Methohexital

o Halothane

A

Ketamine

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15
Q

Which inhalation anesthetic agent has the least effect on cardiac output?

o Halothane

o Methoxyflurane

o Enflurane

o Isoflurane

A

Isoflurane

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16
Q

MAC is

o The lowest alveolar concentration reflected in physiologic responses

o The end‐expired concentration of an anesthetic agent necessary to produce a response to a standard surgical stimulus

o The alveolar concentration below which subject awareness has been reported

o The lowest concentration of an anesthetic in the alveoli during the respiratory cycle

o The end‐expired concentration of an anesthetic which prevents response to a standard surgical stimulus in 50% of the subjects

A

The end‐expired concentration of an anesthetic which prevents response to a standard surgical stimulus in 50% of the subjects

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17
Q

Which of the following drugs could cause permanent prolapse of the penis in the horse (priapism)?

o Glycopyrrolate

o Acepromazine

o Diazepam

o Xylazine

o Morphine

A

Acepromazine

18
Q

Rapid shallow respiration (panting) is undesirable during general anesthesia because

o The patient develops respiratory acidosis

o Heat loss is decreased

o Alveolar ventilation and therefore anesthetic uptake is decreased

Venous admixture is decreased

o Dead space is reduced

A

Alveolar ventilation and therefore anesthetic uptake is decreased

19
Q

Other constants being equal, the speed of induction with inhalation agents varies inversely with their

o Oil water solubility

o Molecular weight

o Blood gas solubility

o Minimal alveolar concentration

o Saturated vapor pressure

A

Blood gas solubility

20
Q

Which of the following drugs is a pure opioid agonist?

o Butorphanol

o Buprenorphine

o Morphine

o Acepromazine

o Ketamine

A

Morphine

21
Q

Which of the following is noted for its muscle relaxant properties?

o Morphine

o Pancuronium

o Acepromazine

o Atropine

o Thiopental

A

Pancuronium

22
Q

Which of the following is most likely to provide adequate chemical restraint of a very fearful vicious dog?

o Acepromazine

o Diazepam

o Meperidine

o Atropine + Glycopyrrolate

o Morphine + Acepromazine

A

Morphine + Acepromazine

23
Q

Diazepam is used to produce

o Analgesia

o Vomiting

o Sinus tachycardia

o Muscle relaxation

o All of the above

A

Muscle relaxation

24
Q

To maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, alveolar anesthetic concentration must be above MAC. A useful guide is to maintain surgical anesthesia at which of the following MAC?

o 2.2 MAC

o 1.3 MAC

o 0.9 MAC

o 0.2 MAC

o 3.0 MAC

A

1.3 MAC

25
Q

Which of the following agents is recommended to induce anesthesia in a greyhound?

o Thiopental

o Propofol

o Alfaxan

o Thiamylal

o B and C

A

B and C

26
Q

An apneustic pattern of breathing may be seen after administration of

o Thiopental

o Propofol

o Ketamine

o Etomidate

o Methohexital

A

Ketamine

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of Phenolthiazines (Ace)?

o Hypotension

o Seizures

o Hypothermia

o Bradycardia

o All are potentially deleterious

A

Seizures

28
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia is produced by combining

o Tranquilizers or sedative with an opioid

o Tranquilizer with a muscle relaxant

o Tranquilizer and IV anesthetic

o Muscle relaxant and inhalant agent

o Anticholinergic agent and opioid

A

Tranquilizers or sedative with an opioid

29
Q

During induction of a 3kg cat, you’re delivering a 2.5% halothane and 1L/min of oxygen with the T‐piece anesthetic system. The patient is moving slightly, breathing slowly and shallowly, and you wish to accelerate the induction process. Which of the following is appropriate in this situation?

o Increase the oxygen flow

o Add oxygen with the flush valve

o Assisted ventilation

o Decrease oxygen flow

o A and C

A

A and C

30
Q

Which type of arrhythmia is commonly associated w/ the use of a Thiobarbiturate during induction of anesthesia?

o Atrial fib

o V‐tach

o Bigemini

o Multifocal ventricular tachycardia

o 2nd degree heart block

A

Bigemini

31
Q

Which of the following is an opioid agonist‐antagonist?

o Morphine

o Meperidine

o Fentanyl

o Butorphanol

o Oxymorphone

A

Butorphanol

32
Q

A strong contraindication to the use of ketamine in cats would be

o Renal disease

o Elevated intracranial pressure

o A history of Bradycardia

o A history of muscle trauma

o A and B

A

A and B

33
Q

What is the mechanism by which xylazine induces sedation?

o Stimulates central dopaminergic receptors

o Stimulates central gamma amino butyric receptors

o Stimulates mu receptors

o Stimulates central alpha‐2 receptors

o Stimulates central beta‐2 receptors

A

Stimulates central alpha‐2 receptors

34
Q

Clinical recovery from anesthesia reduced by Thiopental is primarily due to

o Hepatic metabolism

o Redistribution of drug to muscle (away from CNS)

o Renal excretion

o Distribution to vessel‐rich groups

A

Redistribution of drug to muscle (away from CNS)

35
Q

Which of the following would not have an influence on MAC?

o Anesthesia duration

o Hypothermia

o Aged animals

o Arterial carbon dioxide tension greater than 90 mmHg

o Sympathetic stimulation

A

Anesthesia duration

36
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be associated w/ ventricular arrhythmia?

o Nitrous oxide

o Halothane

o Enflurane

o Isoflurane

o Methoxyflurane

A

Halothane

37
Q

Administration of ketamine causes

o A decrease in heart rate

o An increase in heart rate

o Decrease in CO

o No change in CO

o No change in heart rate

A

An increase in heart rate

38
Q

Which of the following pre‐anesthetic drugs is known for its sedative effect in pigs?

o Acepromazine

o Valium

o Morphine

o Midazolam

o Atropine

A

Midazolam

39
Q

Xylazine in the dog produces

o Bradycardia, hypotension, decreased CO, and occasional changes in personality

o Tachycardia, hypertension, increased CO

o Bradycardia, hypotension, no change in personality

o Bradycardia, hypotension, protection from arrhythmias w/ Halothane, no personality change

o Bradycardia, hypertension, decrease in CO, increase in peripheral resistance

A

Bradycardia, hypertension, decrease in CO, increase in peripheral resistance

40
Q

Which of the following are clinically important reasons for selecting glycopyrrolate over atropine?

Longer duration of action

Does not cross BBB

Causes greater increase in HR

A and B are correct

All are correct

A

Does not cross BBB

41
Q

In which species are opioid agents most likely to produce untoward central nervous system effects?

Cat

Dog

Horse

All are correct

A and C are correct

A

A and C are correct

42
Q

Which of the following can be used to reverse the effects of Xylazine?

o Tolazoline

o Pentazocine

o Yohimbine

o Butorphanol

o A and C are correct

A

A and C are correct