Dressler Module 4 Complications of Labor Flashcards
Prenatal and Antepartum is referring to _____ birth
prior to
Nutritional Status of newborn is greatly affected with ________ patients
overweight
What are some Socio-Demographic factors that may affect birth
Low income No prenatal care Age (Under 16, Over 40) Parity Support System
This fetal status test visualizes fetal & maternal structures
Ultrasound
This fetal status test can be done transvaginally
Ultrasound
This fetal status test is to check for abnormalities usually prior to 20 weeks
Amniocentesis
This test can check for genetic diseases, quadruple screening, and fetal lung maturity
Amniocentesis
This Fetal Status Test can be done externally referred to as Reactive vs Nonreactive
Non-stress test
A maternal HGB test can be used to check for _______ levels and ______ levels
Blood and Oxygen
An indirect coombs test can be used to check for (2)
Rh factor and Billy rubin
The triple screen tests consists of what three levels and when is it usually done
Usually done at 16 weeks
AFP
HCG
Estriol
AFP stands for
Alpha Fetal Protein
HCG stands for
Human Choreographic (too much is a problem)
Elevated estriol could lead to
Down Syndrome
Glucose Screening can be used to check for
diabetic ketoacidosis
Vaginal Culture can be used to check for
localized infection
Newborn Vital sign norms
B/P 60/40
Pulse 110-160
Resp 35-45
Excessive & difficult to alleviate N&V, in young obese non-smoker is called
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
A lot of vomiting during pregnancy is called
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
Signs and Symptoms of Hyperemesis Gravidarum include
Weight loss Dehydration Ketonuria Acetonuria Electrolyte imbalances
What is the main difference between morning sickness and Hyperemesis
Dehydration
PPN stands for
Partial Parenteral Nutrition
TPN stands for
Total Parenteral Nutrition
What are some treatments for hyperemesis
Rest
IV fluids
Antiemetics
Small Meals
Painless, premature dilation of cervix and being at risk for a spontaneous abortion is having an
Incompetent Cervix
The main job of the cervix is
stays closed to help maintain pregnancy
What is a Cervical Cerclage and when is it needed and when is it usually done
When the cervix is dilated more than 3cm, between 14-26 weeks and it is the SUTURING OF THE CERVIX (ARTIFICIAL PLUG TO KEEP CERVIX FROM DILATING
Spontaneous Abortions, Ectopic Pregnancy, Hydatidiform Mole are bleeding disorders during
Early Pregnancy
Placenta Previa and Placenta Abruptio are bleeding disorders during
late pregnancy
A spontaneous abortion is loss of pregnancy before
20 weeks
Abortion is the medical term for
miscarriage
Vaginal bleeding, closed cervix, mild cramps where the fetus is in danger is called a _______ spontaneous abortion
threatened
Cervical dilation, ruptured membranes, vaginal bleeding, not being able to maintain pregnancy are S&S of a _________ spontaneous abortion
inevitable
products of conception expelled, uterine contractions, bleeding are S&S of a ___________ spontaneous abortion
Complete
POC stands for
Products of conception
Profuse bleeding, and retained tissue parts are S&S of _______ spontaneous abortion
Incomplete
Fetus dies but retained, amenorrhea, foul smelling discharge or bleeding (fetus will die in utero, not expelled, becomes necrotic) is an example of a __________ spontaneous abortion
Missed
Infection of uterus, not all tissue is expelled is S&S of ________ spontaneous abortion
Septic
3 or more consecutive losses becomes to get called a ______ spontaneous abortion and the most frustrating thing is that …
Habitual
We don’t really know what’s going on
What is the treatment for spontaneous abortion
IV Oxytocin
Dilation and Curettage
Vacuum evacuation
What is the best treatment for Threatened spontaneous abortion
Bedrest
What does Oxytocin do
causes contractions so we can expel stuff
D+C is when you
scoop everything out after Dilation
Vacuum evacuation is ….
attached to cervix to remove products, LESS INVASIVE THAN D+C
Provide nursing care for Rhogam is RH
Negative
Not occupying uterine cavity, increases with STD’s, Endometriosis is the etiology for
Ectopic Pregnancies
Abdomen Tenderness, Spotting, Bleeding, decreased H&H, Increased WBC, shoulder pain are S&S of
Ectopic Pregnancies
Referred pain is the same is ________ pain
Radiated
Main treatment for Ectopic Pregnancy (3)
Trans vaginal ultrasound
Methotrexate
Salpingectomy
decreasing production of cells, kills of rapidly growing cells, so no rupturing occurs is called
Methotrexate
If rupturing occurs with a Ectopic Pregnancy mom can go into
Shock
Removal of fallopian tubes is called
Salpingectomy
Nursing care of Ectopic pregnancy would include
Pre and post op care Monitor at risk for shock Grief counseling Pregnancy counseling Monitor HCG levels
After an ectopic pregnancy resident should wait at least _____ before next pregnancy
1 year
Abnormal trophoblastic tissue - avascular vesicles. Instead of layers forming, cells keep multiplying. WILL NOT DEVELOP INTO EMBRYO/FETUS is called a
Hydatidiform Mole
Abnormal Uterine growth, PIH, increased HCG levels, excessive N/V, and vaginal bleeding are S&S of
Hydatidiform Mole
Treatment for a Hydatidiform Mole would include (3)
Transvaginal Ultrasound
D&C
Rhogam (If Negative)
Hydatidiform Mole puts mom at high risk for
Chorionic Carcinoma
What is Chorionic Carcinoma
Choriocarcinoma is a quick-growing form of cancer that occurs in a woman’s uterus (womb). The abnormal cells start in the tissue that would normally become the placenta, the organ that develops during pregnancy to feed the fetus. Choriocarcinoma is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
Abnormal placement of the placenta, placenta being misplaced in the uterus is called
Placenta Previa
Marginal Placenta Previa means fetus is placed near _____ and there is a ______ chance of c-section
Sidewall
High
Partial Placenta Previa means placenta is located
comes close to cervix
Total placenta previa means
Placenta is completely upside down
With partial placenta previa, or total placenta previa c section is
guaranteed
Placenta Previa can be diagnosed by looking at
a sonogram
Painless bleeding in 3rd trimester could be a sign of
Placenta Previa
The goal for a resident with placenta previa is to get lots of ______ and reach ____ weeks
Bedrest
34
What are some Nursing care tactics with Placenta Previa
Monitor FHR
Assess for hemorrhage
Assess FUNDUS
PIH stands for
Pregnancy induced hypertension
PIH, H/o abruption, smoking, cocaine, PROM are means for diagnosing a
Abruptio Placentae
PROM stands for
Premature rupture of membrane
Painful bleeding, sudden bleeding, severe pain, fetal distress, hard uterus, maternal shock are S&S of
Abruptio Placentae
Best treatment for partial abruption is
Bedrest
When a resident is diagnosed with Abruptio Placentae we have about ______ to take baby out
30-45
Fetus not getting any circulation is called
Fetal distress
In complete abruption mom has a
concealed hemorrhage
With abruptio Placentae mom is at risk for
shock or death, Fetal brain damage, Fetal demise (Death)
Dysfunctional labor can also be called
Dystocia
Friedman curve is used to
graph dilation and descent
With Dystocia mom and fetus has a potential for
Infection
Postpartum hemorrhage
Exhaustion to mother
Dystocia can be related to
Power Contractions
Position or Presentation of fetus
Size of Fetus
Amniotomy is the
breaking of water
IV pitocin is given to
speed up contractions
Hypotonic Contractions are
unprogressive contractions
Treatment for hypotonic contractions are
Amniotomy
IV pitocin
C-section