Dormant Commerce Clause Flashcards
With regards to interstate commerce, what is congress’s power to supersede state laws?
- When congress regulates interstate commerce, CONFLICTING state laws are superseded
- if a state/local law prevents achievement of federal objective, it will be impliedly preempted (even if enacted for valid state purpose)
- “Field preemption” - a valid federal statute or reg may impliedly “occupy” the entire field, thus precluding any state/local reg EVEN if the state or local reg is NON-Conflicting. (STANDARD: the courts will look at the reg scheme to determine whether congress INTENDED to preempt field)
With regards to the “commerce clause”, what is congress’s power to permit or prohibit state regulation?
- congress may permit state regulations that would otherwise violate the commerce clause
- congress may prohibit regulations that could otherwise be upheld under the commerce clause (NOTE: congress cannot permit states to violate civil liberties)
NOTE: Congress cannot authorize legislation that would violate other constitutional provisions, such as privileges and immunities clause of Art. IV
What is the state’s power to regulate commerce in the absence of congressional laws? (dormant commerce clause)
If congress has not enacted laws regarding the subject, a state/local gov MAY regulate local aspects of interstate commerce.
HOWEVER: it must not –>
- DISCRIMINATE against interstate commerce; OR
- UNDULY BURDEN interstate commerce
With regards to “dormant commerce clause,” what is the rule re: “discriminatory regulations”?
State or local regulations that discriminate against interstate commerce to protect local ECONOMIC interests are ALMOST ALWAYS INVALID.
Example –> NY cannot ban CA wines or tax them at a higher rate
Three Exceptions:
- Important State Interest;
- State as “Market Participant”;
- Favoring Gov Performing Traditional Gov Functions
With regards to “dormant commerce clause,” and “discriminatory regulations”, what is the exception for “important state interest”?
A discriminatory state/local law MAY be valid if:
- furthers an IMPORTANT, NON-ECONOMIC state interest, AND
- there are NO REASONABLE NON-DISCRIMINATORY ALTERNATIVES available
Example –> state could prohibit importation of live fish bait bc fear of parasites
HOWEVER –> state could NOT prohibit exportation of fish bait where no major state interest was involved
With regards to “dormant commerce clause,” and “discriminatory regulations”, what is the exception for state as “market participant”?
- state MAY prefer its own citizens when acting as a market participant (buying/selling/hiring labor/giving subsidies)
With regards to “dormant commerce clause,” and “discriminatory regulations”, what is the exception for favoring gov performing traditional gov functions?
-SCOTUS provides a more lenient standard if it’s an area where the state historically traditional gov function (example –> waste disposal)
With regards to “dormant commerce clause,” what is the rule if the law is not discriminatory, but burdens interstate commerce?
If non-discriminatory state law BURDENS interstate commerce, it will be valid UNLESS the burden outweighs the promotions of a LEGITIMATE local interest.
Example –> statute banning trucks over 60 feet was invalid bc the state showed no significant evidence of increased safety, and burden on commerce was substantial
(NOTE –> for state control of corporations, it’s more likely to be upheld bc of state’s history of governing internal operations of corporations).
May an alien or corporation be a Plaintiff in dormant commerce clause case?
YES