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1) Blood Bank 2 Exam 1 > Donor Questionnaire > Flashcards

Donor Questionnaire Flashcards

1
Q

What is donor deferral?

A

The donor is not allowed to donate a blood product for a specified period of time

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2
Q

Could the blood drawn from the donor be potentially harmful to the recipient?

A

it can be harmful to the recipient if it doesn’t have the right or expected components in it or if it is able to transmit a specific disease to the recipient.

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3
Q

During the Registration part of the donor collection process, what are the four things that they check?

A
  1. Photographic identification (to check age)
  2. Check date of last donation
  3. Deferral status (all permanently deferred donors are checked)
  4. Constant to donate (sign statement and informed of risks)
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4
Q

What’s the deferral period for donating Whole blood?

In other words, how many days from the last time you donated whole blood do you have to wait till you can donate again?

A

56 days

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5
Q

What’s the deferral period for donating Double RBCs?

A

112 days, up to 3 times/year

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6
Q

What’s the deferral period for donating plasma?

A

2 days, up to 13 times/year

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6
Q

What’s the deferral period for donating platelets?

A

2 days, up to 24 times/year

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7
Q

True or False: Education process must explain the donation process and the infectious disease risks.

A

True

–
5.2.1: Provide educational material that explain:
- the donation process
- infectious disease transmission via transfusion

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8
Q

What test are available but not universally used by donor centers?

A
  • HIV group O strain
  • CMV
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9
Q

What 3 test have NO licensed test available for donor screening?

A
  • Babesiosis
  • Creutzfeldt Jakob disease (CJD)
  • Malaria
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10
Q

What tests are available but may not detect early-stage or window-period infection

A
  1. Chagas disease
  2. HBV
  3. HCV
  4. HTLV I
  5. HTLV II
  6. WNV
  7. Zika
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11
Q

What are the 6 things that are check in the Mini-Physical?

A
  • General Appearance (Skin & Eyes)
  • Anemia ( Allogeneic: H/H= >12.5 d/dL for females & Hct > 38%. For Autologous: H/H= > 11.0 g/dL or >33%)
  • Temperature ( Not exceed 37.5 C (oral) or 99.5 F)
  • Blood Pressure ( FDA < 180/100 mmHg)
  • Pulse (FDA 50-100 beats/minute)
  • Weight (Generally greater than 110 pounds)
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12
Q

True or False: Donor history is examined to protect Donor and Recipient.

A

True

–
- 5.4.3: Protect Donor - ensure mono harm comes to donor
- 5.4.2.: Protect Recipient - prevent selection of donor who may have an infectious disease transmissible by blood product or thought to compromise the suitability of the blood product.

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13
Q

True or False: the Donor History Questionnaire is a standard open-ended survey.

A

False. The Donor History Questionnaire is a standard yes/no questions to be administered to prospective donors.

Questions organized by deferral period ( today, 48 hours, 8 weeks, 16 weeks, 3 months, 12 months, ever)

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14
Q

What are the 4 things that are required in the Donor History Questionnaire (DHQ)?

A
  • Questionnaire: Questions that are answered by donor
  • Medications Deferral List: list required by FDA or AABB
  • User Brochure: instructions for blood establishment for using the materials provided.
  • Flowcharts and References: documents used in development of DHQ
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15
Q

What is the minimum age that one has to be in order to donate blood in Oregon?

A

16 years old

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16
Q

What is the normal blood pressure range one has to be in between in order to donate blood?

A
  • 90-180 mm Hg systolic
  • 50-100 mm Hg diastolic
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17
Q

What is the criteria for Pulse?

A

50-100 beats/min

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18
Q

What is the deferral period for anti-platelet agents: Piroxicam and Aspirin and anticoagulants (excluding warfarin & heparin)

A

48 hours

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19
Q

What is the deferral period for antiplatelet agents: Effient/ Prasugrel?

A

3 days

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20
Q

What is the deferral period for anti platelet: Ticlopidine and anticoagulants: Warfarin & Heparin?

A

7 days

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21
Q

What is the deferral period for Clopidogrel or Ticlopidine?

A
  • 14 days

(serious bleeding)

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22
Q

What is the deferral period for Zontivity/Vorapaxar (anti platelet agents)?

A

1 month

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23
Q

What is the deferral period for acne treatment, multiple myeloma, Rheumatoid arthritis, hair loss remedy, Prostate symptoms (Finasteride)?

A

1 month

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24
Q

What is the deferral period for Immunosuppressant?

(inhibit or prevent the activity of the immune system)

A

6 weeks

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25
Q

What is the deferral period for Hepatitis B Immune Globulin, any medication taken by mouth (ora) to prevent HIV?

A

3 months

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26
Q

What is the deferral period for Prostate symptoms medication like Dutasteride?

A

6 months

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27
Q

What is the deferral period for Psoriasis (Acitretin)?

A

3 years

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28
Q

What is the deferral period for Psoriasis (Etretinate) or HIV treatment/ART?

A

Ever / Permanent

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29
Q

What is the deferral period for travel to/ re-entry from Mexico, the Caribbean, Central America, or South America ?

A

28 days/ 2 weeks

30
Q

What is the deferral period for traveling to malaria-endemic areas such as countries Africa, the Americas, and Asia?

A
  • 3 months (visiting)
  • 3 years (living)
31
Q

What is the deferral period for traveling to either United Kindgom, France, Scotland, Ireland, Wales, England, Isle of Man, Gibraltar, Falkland, and Channel

A

Indefinite

32
Q

What is the deferral period for having a tattoo, ear or body piercing?

33
Q

What is the deferral period for pregnancy?

34
Q

What is the deferral period for risky behavior such as being paid for sex?

35
Q

What is the deferral period for incarceration (jail/prison)?

36
Q

What is the deferral period for live Vaccines (antibiotic course)?

37
Q

What is the deferral period for Positive Babesia NAT test?

38
Q

What is the deferral period for Malaria infection or living in malaria location?

39
Q

What is the deferral period for Positive Hep?

40
Q

What type of approach is used for ruling out Malaria, prions, and Ebola?

a) Questioning only
b) Donor Testing only
c) both a and b
d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients
e) Test blood component

A

a) Questioning only

41
Q

What type of approach is used for ruling out West Nile virus or Chagas?

a) Questioning only
b) Donor Testing only
c) Questioning and testing
d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients
e) Test blood component

A

b) Donor Testing only

42
Q

What type of approach is used for ruling out HIV, HBV, HCV, Zika, Babesia, Syphilis?

a) Questioning only
b) Donor Testing only
c) Questioning and testing
d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients
e) Test blood component

A

c) Questioning and testing

43
Q

What type of approach is used for ruling out CMV?

a) Questioning only
b) Donor Testing only
c) Questioning and testing
d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients
e) Test blood component

A

d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients

44
Q

What type of approach is used for ruling out Bacteria?

a) Questioning only
b) Donor Testing only
c) Questioning and testing
d) use test-negative blood for specific recipients
e) Test blood component

A

e) Test blood component

45
Q

How long is the collection process for donating blood?

A

no more than 15 minutes

46
Q

True or False: The donor shall be observed during the donation and for a length of time thereafter, as defined by the facility’s policies and procedures

47
Q

What are the four common donor adverse reactions?

A
  • Vasovagal reaction
  • Hyperventilation
  • Hypotensive shock
  • Tissue trauma & injury
48
Q

What are the primary signs/symptoms of Vasovagal reaction?

Describe appropriate treatment for Vasovagal reaction.

How common is this?

A
  • Brachycardia
  • 1) Stop phlebotomy 2) Elevate legs above head 3) Cold compresses forehead & neck 4) Aromatic spirits
    -Most common donor adverse reaction

Other symptoms include: weakness, sweating, dizziness, pallor, nausea/vomiting, syncope

49
Q

What are the primary signs/symptoms of Hyperventilation?

Describe appropriate treatment for Hyperventilation

How common is this?

A
  • Twitching , muscle spasms, rapid or deep breathing
  • Voluntary coughing
  • Common in 1st time donors
50
Q

What are the primary signs/symptoms of Hypotensive shock?

Describe appropriate treatment for Hypotensive shock

How common is this?

A
  • Primary sign/symptoms is Tachycardia
  • 1) Call 911 2) Prevent donor from falling or injuring self 3) Make sure airway is adequate
  • Very uncommon

–
other symptoms: convulsions

51
Q

What are the primary signs/symptoms of Tissue trauma & injury?

Describe appropriate treatment for Tissue trauma & injury?

A
  • Primary sign/symptoms is Hematoma
  • 1) Apply pressure 7-10 minutes 2) Apply Ice
52
Q

Define Allogenic donor

A

genetically non-related donor

53
Q

True or False: Allogenic donors must adhere to strict collection/processing standards

54
Q

Define direct donor

A

family and friends donate for a specific recipient

55
Q

True or False: direct donors donate for specific circumstances such as rare genetic trait

56
Q

If multiple donations are directed to the same recipient from the same donor, viral testing may only be performed every ____ days

57
Q

Define autologous donor

A

Self donation

58
Q

What is the purpose for autologous donation?

A

For specific circumstances ( bloody surgery)

59
Q

What are the requirements for autologous donation?

A
  • 1) order from physician
  • 2) >11 g/dL Hgb/ >33% Hct
  • 3) Collection >72 from need
  • 4) Unit is reserved for autologous only
  • 5) Test ABO/Rh only
  • 6) Deferral on risk factors
60
Q

What risks are lowered with Autologous donations?

A
  • disease transmission
  • alloimmunization
  • transfusion reaction
61
Q

What risks are still included in Autologous donations?

A
  • TACO
  • bacterial contamination
  • misidentification
  • storage lesion
  • patient low hgb
62
Q

What are the types of Autologous collection types?

A
  • Pre-Operative
  • Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution
  • Intraoperative collection
  • Post operative cell salvage
63
Q

Define Pre-Operative autologous collection?

A
  • self donation before surgery
64
Q

Define Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution

A
  • is a blood conservation technique that entails the removal of blood from a patient, either immediately before or shortly after the induction of anesthesia. A predetermined amount of the patient’s blood is slowly drained inside a closed system, while being replaced with fluids to maintain adequate volume. The blood lost during surgery is diluted – resulting in the loss of less red blood cells. After the procedure is completed the Anesthesiologist returns the removed blood to the patient.
65
Q

Define Intraoperative collection

A

Intraoperative cell salvage involves collection of blood lost during surgery using a suction device. The blood is centrifuged and washed so that only concentrated red cells are collected and returned to the patient. Blood is usually returned to the patient intraoperatively but this can continue postoperatively.

66
Q

Define post operative cell salvage

A

In this procedure, either blood from a postoperative drain or chest tube is collected and then returned with microaggregate filtering alone or
the blood is washed, concentrated, and then returned.

67
Q

Adjusting the anticoagulant for low volume

Find the difference to find the amount to remove

68
Q

Find the maximum volume of blood that could be collected from this person

69
Q

Define Temporary deferral

A

Donor is unable to donate for a limited period of time due to current health state or risk for infectious diseases (2 weeks to 3 years)

70
Q

Define Indefinite deferral

A

Regulatory agencies have not determined when a deferred donor may be re-entered into the donor pool. This stays could change but won’t until regulation is changed.

Ex: Creutzfed Jacob

71
Q

Define Permanent deferral

A

Donor will never will be able to donate due to test results or answers to questions on the DHQ.

72
Q

True or False: Zika Testing requirement was removed

73
Q

True or False: Pathogen reduction technology may be used to reduce malaria deferral to no time

1) Blood Bank 2 Exam 1 (6 decks)

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