Domain 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In community surveys, a frequent symptom of malnutrition is:

a. scurvy
b. rickets
c. low serum albumin
d. low hemoglobin

A

d. low hemoglobin

Low hemoglobin- common cause is malnutrition. Nutritional deficiencies directly affect the hemoglobin count, for example, vitamin deficiency, especially deficiency of vitamins B6, B12, and folate.

It is also often seen that in pregnancy, women suffer from low hemoglobin, if they are not careful to follow a proper diet, and include adequate folic acid, vitamin, and mineral supplements in it.

Hgb: Men 14-17 gm/dl; women 12-15 mg/dl;
pregnant >= 11 gm/dl

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2
Q

Which is the least common symptom in the elderly?

a. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
c. obesity
d. hypertension

A

a. osteomalacia

Osteomalacia in adults- Rickets in children

Osteomalacia refers to a marked softening of your bones, most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency. The softened bones of children and young adults with osteomalacia can lead to bowing during growth, especially in weight-bearing bones of the legs.

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3
Q
What is included in the study of demographics?
I. age of individuals
II. population statistics
III. sex of individuals
IV. socioeconomic factors

a. I only
b. all of the above
c. II, III
d. I, II, III

A

d. I, II, III ( age, population statistics, sex)

Demographics is the study of a population, based on factors such as age, race, sex, education, income, and employment.

** socioeconomic status- YES, factors, NO

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4
Q

Athletes should receive:

a. salt pills only during the summer months
b. extra protein
c. carbohydrate loading two weeks prior to an event
d. water during an event to replace lost fluids

A

d. water during an event to replace lost fluids

** this is the most basic need. deciding on other factors would require additional information before making the recommendation

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5
Q

How many grams of protein would you receive on a 1500 calorie diet which is 20% protein?

a. 70
b. 75
c. 64
d. 300

A

b. 75

1500 x .20= 300 cal of protein
300 cal pro divided 4 cal/gm of pro= 75 gm protein for 1500 calorie diet

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6
Q

A patient is on a high protein, low carbohydrate diet. What advice should you offer?

a. increase fluid intake
b. decrease the intake of complex carbohydrates
c. . decrease the fluid intake
d. decrease the intake of saturated fats

A

a. increase fluid intake

A high protein diet increases the risk of dehydration, may place increased strain on the kidneys and liver and does not improve muscle bulk,

increased protein consumption requires an increase in urea excretion — hence, more frequent urination during a high-protein diet. Increased Risk of Dehydration

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7
Q

Nutritional prescription for a patient with cardiac cachexia includes:

a. < 1 liter fluid, low sodium
b. low sodium, low saturated fat, low cholesterol, high calorie
c. restricted calorie, .8 g pro/kg, fluid restriction
d. normal protein, follow DASH diet

A

b. low sodium, low saturated fat, low cholesterol, high calorie

Cardiac- low sodium, low saturated fat, low cholesterol, DASH or Mediterranean Diet
CACHEXIA- Need high calories

Cardiac cachexia is a condition that can happen to people who have heart failure. It means you lose a serious amount of body fat, muscle, and bone. Doctors often call this “body .”.
Cachexia is loss of fat AND muscle mass- commonly seen in cancer patients

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8
Q

Which infant is at the greatest risk?

a. 20 lbs Hemoglobin 10
b. 22 lbs hemoglobin 10.5
c. 19 lbs hemoglobin 11
d. 30 lbs hemolgobin 9

A

d. 30 lbs hemolgobin 9

low hemoglobin levels associated with increased risk of mortality.

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9
Q

What is the normal hemoglobin range for infants?

Adults?

A

Hgb infants: 9.5-13 gm/dl
Hgb women: 12-15 gm/dl; Men: 14-17 gm/dl
Pregnant: >= 11 gm/dl

The normal HgB range for infants is between 9.5 -13 gm/dl. hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

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10
Q
An alcoholic patient has a low serum albumin, low hemoglobin, high ammonia, abnormal liver function tests, and ascites. 
Why is he on a 500 mg sodium diet?
a. secondary renal failure
b. hypoaldosteronism
c. hypoalbuminemia
d. hyperammonemia
A

c. hypoalbuminemia

low hemoglobin--> sign of malnutrition. nutritional deficiencies (B6, B12, folate)
Low albumin (hypoalbuninemia)--> common in malnourished, liver damage. edema due to hypoalbuminemia

high ammonia–> abnormal liver function tests–> liver disease
ascites–> fluid accumulation. Ascites happens when pressure builds up in the veins of your liver and it doesn’t work as it should. These two problems usually are caused by another condition – cirrhosis, heart or kidney failure, cancer, or an infection. The pressure blocks blood flow in the liver, which over time keeps your kidneys from removing excess salt from your body.

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11
Q

Which of the following should the patient in the above question have for lunch?

a. 4 ounces cottage cheese
b. 1 ounce cheddar cheese
c. 1 ounce roast beef
d. 1 ounce cold cuts

A

c. 1 ounce roast beef

cheese, cold cuts and cottage cheese HIGH in sodium

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12
Q
Which of the following should be included in the diet for celiac disease?
I. decrease intake of eggs
II. use potato and rice flour
III. IM vitamin B12 and iron
IV. low calorie, high fat, high protein

a. II, III
b. III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, IV

A

a.
II. use potato and rice flour
III. IM vitamin B12 and iron

There are a variety of nutritional deficiencies associated with celiac disease, primarily caused by the inability of the damaged small intestine to properly absorb enough of the nutrients our bodies need. People recently diagnosed with celiac disease are commonly deficient in fiber, iron, calcium, magnesium, zinc, folate, niacin, riboflavin, vitamin B12, and vitamin D, as well as in calories and protein.

celiac disease: immune reaction to the gliadin part of gluten. Must avoid gluten products

GLUTEN-FREE flours include rice, potato, corn, teff, buckwheat, soy, chickpea, and pure oat flours

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13
Q

Who is most at risk for gestational diabetes?

a. BMI <30
b. age < 25, overweight
c. BMI> 30, history of GDM
d. conception within 10 months of last pregnancy

A

c. BMI> 30, history of GDM (these are the risk factors)

GDM: temporary (in most cases) form of diabetes in which the body does not produce adequate amounts of insulin to regulate sugar during pregnancy.

Gestational diabetes raises your risk of high blood pressure, as well as preeclampsia — a serious complication of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure and other symptoms that can threaten the lives of both mother and baby. Future diabetes. If you have gestational diabetes, you’re more likely to get it again during a future pregnancy.

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14
Q

A child is lethargic, irriatable with diarrhea. The cause may be:

a. zinc toxicity
b. lead poisoning
c. iron overload
d. vitamin A toxicity

A

b. lead poisoning

paint, toys

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15
Q

How many calories are in 300 ml of 5% dextrose solution?

a. 51
b. 60
c. 15
d. 200

A

a. 51

300 ml x .05= 15 gm dextrose
15 gm dextrose x 3.4 cal/ gm of dextrose= 51 cal

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16
Q

A single 19 year old female is 6 months pregnant. She has not gained any weight and has not seen a physciian. Hemoglobin is 9. Hematocrit is 30. What is the most important recommendation for her?

a. see a physiciain immediately
b. apply for WIC immediately
c. join a teenage pregnancy support group
d. begin taking iron supplements

A

a. see a physiciain immediately.

Rationale: no weight gain, hasnt seen a doctor. hemoglobin and hematocrite is below normal
Hgb normal for pregnant- >= 11
Hct normal for pregnant- 33%

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17
Q

A female, 5’7” tall, weights 115 lbs. Six months ago she weighed 130 lbs. What is her percent of ideal body weight?

a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 81%
d. 87%

A

a. 85%

% IBW: current wt/IBW x 100
IBW: Females- 100 lbs + 5 x every pound over 5 ft
IBW: 100 + 35= 135 lbs
current wt: 115 lbs
% IBW= 115/ 135 x 100 = 85%
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18
Q

A vegan is allergic to milk. Which nutrients would you expect might be deficient in her intake?

a. protein, calories
b. vitamin B12, D
c. vitamin C, calcium
d. vitamin A, D

A

b. vitamin B12, D

Vegan= no dairy, no meat

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19
Q

A patient with Crohn’s disease needs the following diet:
I. high fat, high calorie, high protein
II. low fat only with steatorrhea, vitamin C, B12
III. calories according to current BMI, high protein
IV. high residue, low fat, fat soluble vitamins
V. low calorie, low residue, fat soluble vitamins, B12

a. I
b. II, III
c. III, IV
d. V

A

b. II, III
b.
II. low fat only with steatorrhea, vitamin C, B12
III. calories according to current BMI, high protein

Crohn’s Disease: type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
affects ileum- weight loss, anorexia, diarrhea
B12 deficiency leading to megaloblastic anemia
iron deficiency anemia due to blood loss, decreased absorption

Treatment:

  1. maintain fluid/electrolyte balance (antidiarrhea agent)
  2. acute Crohns flare ups= bowel rest, parenteral nutrition or minimal residue
  3. energy needs based on BMI, limit fat only with steaorhea; water soluble and fat soluble vitamins: iron, folate
  4. assess Ca, Mg, Zn
  5. MCT oil, watch lactose, frequent feedings
  6. high fat may improve energy balance
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20
Q

Which of the following diets is appropriate for reactive hypoglycemia?

a. reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 meals
b. increased complex carbohydrate, low fat, high protein
c. decreased complex carbohydrate, low fat
d. high protein, high fat, high carbohydrate

A

a. reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 meals

Reactive hypoglycemia:
low blood sugar reaction after meals. Result of too much insulin being produced and released by the pancreas after a LARGE, carbohydrate-based meal.
common after bariatric surgery.
TREATEMENT is the DIET

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21
Q
Which patient has marasmus?
Patient A (male)
serum albumin   3.5
transferrin          275
triceps skinfold  3
MAMC                 15
TLC
Patient B (female)
serum albumin   2.6
transferrin          125
triceps skinfold  16.8
MAMC                 24.1
TLC                      1000
Patient C (male)
serum albumin    4.0
transferrin           450
triceps skinfold   17
MAMC                 28.1
TLC                      3500

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. A, B

A

a. A

Patient A (male)
serum albumin 3.5 (normal=3.5-5)
transferrin 275 (normal= > 200 mg/dl)
**triceps skinfold 3 (measures BODY FAT reserves)
TSF Male: 12.5 mm; female 16.5 mm
**MAMC 15 (measures skeletal muscle mass)
MAMC Male: 25.3 cm; female 23.2 cm
TLC

The primary symptom of marasmus is an acute loss of body fat and muscle tissues, leading to an unusually low body mass index (BMI). Marasmus is a type of wasting. In a child, the main symptom of marasmus is a failure to grow, known as stunted growth.

MAMC: mid-arm muscle circumference (body fat reserves)
TSF: triceps skinfold (skeletal muscle mass)

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22
Q

When assessing nutritional status, which would be the most beneficial?

a. 24-hour recall, history of weight changes
b. medical history, diet order, socioeconomic status
c. clinical observation, weight status, cultural habits
d. diet intake info, clinical data, laboratory data

A

d. diet intake info, clinical data, laboratory data

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23
Q

The first function of the public health nutritionist is:

a. assess the needs of the community
b. counsel patientw with special dietary needs
c. write pamphlets for educational purposes
d. expand the role of Dietitians

A

a. assess the needs of the community

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24
Q

The elderly need how many ml of water per KG?

a. 35-40
b. 45
c. 25-30
d. 25

A

c. 25-30

is this less than adults??

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25
Q

What nutrients most affect the renal solute load?

a. protein and carbohydrate
b. sodium and carbohydrate
c. protein and sodium
d. sodium and fat

A

c. protein and sodium

The renal solute load (RSL) is the sum of the materials that must be excreted via the urine.

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26
Q

According to the Diabetic Exchange Lists, when substituting 2% milk for fat-free milk, you must omit how many fat exchanges?

a. 1/2
b. 1
c. . 1- 1/2
d. 2

A

b. 1

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27
Q

If a man normally consuming 2600 calories per day reduces his intake to 1500 calories per day, how much weight will he lose in one week?

a. 05. kg
b. 1.0 kg
c. 1.5 kg
d. 2.0 kg

A

b. 1.0 kg

2600-1500=1100 calorie
1100 cal x 7 days= 7700 cal
3500 cal= 1 lb
7700/3500=2.2 lbs
convert to kg: 2.2/2.2= 1.0 kg
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28
Q

For which of the following diseases is diet therapy the primary treatment?

a. peptic ulcer
b. diabetes
c. Wilsons disease
d. galactosemia

A

d. galactosemia

galactosemia: due to missing enzyme that would have converted galactose-1-PO4 into glucose-1-PO4
treated solely by diet: galactose and lactose free
NO: organ meats (have galactose), MSG extenders, milk, lactose, galactose, whey, casein, dry milk solids, curds, calcium or sodium caseinate, dates, bell peppers

OKAY: soy, hydrolyzed casein, lactate, lactic acid, lactalbumin, pure MSG

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29
Q

Which of the following best reflects protein status?

a. serum albumin
b. serum transferrin
c. retinaol-binding protein
d. prealbumin

A

d. prealbumin

PAB: 16-40 mg/dl
short half-life. picks up changes in protein status quickly
during inflammation, liver synthesizes CRP at expense of PAB

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30
Q

Following a Billroth II, steatorrhea often results. What is the likely cause?

a. bacterial overgrowth in the remaining loop
b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone secretion
c. a diet restricting simple carbohydrates
d. rapid absorption of simple carbohydrates

A

b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone secretion

Steatorrhea= consequence of malabsorption
Billroth II: gastrojejunostomy. attaches it to the jejunum. When food bypasses the duodenum, the secretion of secretin and pancreozymin by the duodenum is reduces. These hormones normally stimulate the pancrease, so there is now little pancreatic secretion. Affects CALCIUM and IRON absorption

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31
Q
Meats cured with whey wont be tolerated by someone with:
I. lactose intolerance
II. diabetes
III. post-gastrectomy of 3 months
IV. duodenectomy

a. I, II, III
b. II, III, IV
c. I
d. I, III, IV

A

c. I (lactose intolerance)

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32
Q

Chemically defined formulas are used for:

a. short bowel syndrome
b. post chemotherapy treatment
c. hypermetabolism
d. galactosemia

A

a. short bowel syndrome

Elemental formulas (also known as monomeric, hydrolyzed, or chemically defined formulas) are different from standard formulas because their macronutrients have already been partly or fully broken down for those patients who have compromised digestive systems or nutrient absorption problems. This allows the body to digest and absorb what it needs from the formula more easily. J tube patients usually eat elemental formulas.

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33
Q

A PEG feeding would be useful in a patient with:

a. head or neck cancer, who will not be able to eat normally for weeks
b. short bowel syndrome
c. duodenal ulcers
d. pancreatitis

A

a. head or neck cancer, who will not be able to eat normally for weeks

PEG: inserts tube into stomach through abdominal wall. used when needed for more that 3-4 weeks

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34
Q

A patient with hepatitis needs a high protein intake. Besides helping the liver to regenerated, what other purpose is served?

a. it helps increase iron absorption
b. it restores glycogen reserves
c. it helps prevent a fatty liver
d. it helps prevent necrosis of the liver

A

c. it helps prevent a fatty liver

Purpose of high protein intake with hepatitis:

  1. help regenerate liver
  2. prevent fatty liver (provide lipotropic agents to convert fat into lipoproteins for removal from the liver)
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35
Q

The additive influence of foods and constituents which when eaten have a beneficial effect on health refers to:

a. nutracueticals
b. food synergy
c. positive corollaries
d. medical foods.

A

b. food synergy

“Food Synergy” or foods that work better together, than apart, is an excellent way to get the maximum amount of nutrients out of the foods you eat.
Ex: tomatoes with avocado
tomatoes have lycopene (antioxidant-fight CVD and cancer) which is best absorbed with good fat

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36
Q

Which foods are most likely to cause an allergic reaction:

a. shellfish, peanuts, wheat
b. wheat, chocolate, rice
c. citrus fruits, milk, corn
d. chocolate, milk, corn

A

a. shellfish, peanuts, wheat

Top allergens: Dairy, wheat, fish, shellfish, treenuts, peanuts, soy, and eggs

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37
Q

Which set of conditions is most commonly seen in American children?

a. obesity, dental caries, anemia
b. hypertension, dental caries, rickets
c. hyperkinesis, anemia, dental caries
d. diabetes, obesity, anemia

A

a. obesity, dental caries, anemia

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38
Q

A 1500 calorie diabetic diet with 45% of the calories from carbohydrate is prescribed. One-third of the carbohydrate grams is met with 1/2 cup orange juice, 1 cup milk, and:

a. 1 slice toast
b. 2 slices of toast
c. 2 slices toast and 1/2 cup oatmeal
d. 1/2 slice toast

A

b. 2 slices of toast
b. 2 slices of toast

1500 cal x 45%= 675 cal divided by 4 cal/gram= 168.75 gm
168.75 x 1/3= 56.25 gm
( 15 + 12+ x= 56.25= 29.25)

1/2 cup orange juice= 15 gram
1 cup milk= 12 gram
toast= 15 gram
1/2 cup oatmeal= 15 gram

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39
Q

Which of the followins is a medium fat protein?

a. peanut butter
b. tuna packed in oil
c. corned beef
d. chicken without skin

A

b. tuna packed in oil

chicken without skin: lean meat
corned beef and peanut butter: high fat

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40
Q

Which government agency would you contact regarding food distribution?

a. USDA
b. FDA
c. HHS
d. FTC

A

a. USDA

USDA’s food distribution programs support consumers and American agricultural producers through purchases of 100% American-grown and -produced foods for use by schools and institutions.

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41
Q

Which has the greatest effect on the renal solute load?

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. glucose
d. protein

A

d. protein

protein affects kidney function because there’s increased renal solute load (as urea), which could eventually lead to glomerular damage, kidney damage, and ultimately failure.

42
Q

Which is not a fiber in the diet?

a. cellulose
b. hemicellulose
c. amylose
d. pectin

A

c. amylose

amylose is a resistant starch (polysaccharide)

43
Q

What is the diet for hypertension?

a. low sodium
b. low sodium, high potassium
c. low sodium, high calcium
d. low sodium, high potassium, high calcium

A

a. low sodium

hypertension: systolic > 130, or diastolic > 80, or both
optimal blood pressure: < 120/80
1. salt restriction: 1500-2300 mg/d
2. four modifiable factors in prevention and treatment: overweight, high salt intake, alcohol consumption, physical inactivity

44
Q

The NHANES study looks at which parameters?

a. nutritional
b. nutritional, clinical
c. nutritional, biochemical
d. nutritional, clinical, biochemical

A

d. nutritional, clinical, biochemical

45
Q

what is a major reason for constipation in the elderly?

a. a diet low in high residue foods
b. a diet high in low residue foods
c. decreased gastric motility
d. lack of physical exercise

A

c. decreased gastric motility

46
Q

The program that provides nutrition education training to teachers and food service personnel is the:

a. TEFAP
b. CACFP
c. EFNEP
d. NETP

A

d. NETP

NETP: Nutrition education and training program provides nutrition education training to teachers and school foodservice personnel

a. amendment to School Lunch Act
b. USDA

47
Q

A 6’2” male, large frame, 230 lbs with Type II diabetes should:

a. gain 5 lbs to be at desirable weight
b. lose 20 lbs slowly following a balanced diet
c. lose 20 lbs in 4 weeks on an 800 calorie diet
d. lose 10 lbs slowly by following a balanced diet

A

b. lose 20 lbs slowly following a balanced diet

IBW: 106 + 6 x14 + 10% for large frame= 190 +19= 209 lbs

48
Q

A patient with chronic pancreatitis should consume oral pancreatic enzymes:

a. with large meals and fatty foods
b. only if steatorrhea increases
c. with all meals and snacks
d. only if consuming a high fat, low protein diet

A

c. with all meals and snacks

chronic pancreatitis: recurrent attacks of epigastric pain of long duration
Take PERT (pancreatic enzymes orally with meals and snacks to minimize fat malabsorption from lack of pacreatic lipase. May need antacids so PERT therapy will work.
49
Q

If a patient is about to be discharged when you receive the discharge diet order, you should..

a. give him something to take home
b. there is not enough time so forget it
c. enroll him in the outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment
d. teach him what you can in the time you have now

A

c. enroll him in the outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment

50
Q

Following a cholescystectomy, bile is produced by the:

a. pancreas
b. liver
c. spleen
d. portal vein

A

b. liver

Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder.
After a cholecystectomy, bile can no longer be stored in the gallbladder and therefore is directly released into the intestines to be mixed with food and fat instead of being stored in between meals. Since bile is constantly being delivered into the intestines instead of being stored, you are likely to develop digestion problems.

51
Q

How many calories are in 1.5 liters of a 25% dextrose solution?

a. 850
b. 1275
c. 1000
d. 1500

A

b. 1275

1.5 liters= 1500 ml
1500 ml x .25= 375ml x 3.4 cal/ml= 1275 cal

52
Q

Research suggests that in order to guard against cancer you should ingest:

a. carotene and vitamin C
b. vitamins C and B12
c. protein and vitamin A
d. vitamins E and K

A

a. carotene and vitamin C

53
Q

Which of the following may be the cause of loose stools in a tube fed patient?
I. feeding was administered at too rapid a rate
II the osmolality of the feeding was too low
III. the patient is constipated
IV an inadequate amount of intestinal surface area

a. I
b. I, II
c. II, III
d. I, IV

A

d. I, IV
I. feeding was administered at too rapid a rate
IV an inadequate amount of intestinal surface area

Diarrhea may be related to the infusion rate of the feeding (given too quickly for absorption). More common causes of tube feeding related diarrhea are related to medications.

According to studies 30–50% of tube-fed patients are at risk for diarrhea. This can be related to the use of multiple medications, more complex illnesses, and GI distress. Diarrhea is of significant concern as it can impact nursing time, skin integrity, and patient comfort. Diarrhea also represents nutrient losses and risk for dehydration – so it is difficult to judge how much of the nutrient intake is actually being absorbed and the amount of fluid lost.

Using a LOW osmolality liquid protein for tube feeding administration ELIMINATES one of the common causes of tube feeding diarrhea.

54
Q

Before discontiniuing a parenteral feeding, provide enteral support to prevent:

a. development of fatty liver
b. ketoacidosis
c. hypoglycemia
d. hepatic encephalopathy

A

c. hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia upon abrupt discontinuation of TPN is a complication that may result from endogenous insulin levels not adjusting to the sudden reduction in dextrose.

55
Q

An elevated T4 indicates:

a. galactosemia
b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperthyroidism
d. ketonuria

A

c. hyperthyroidism

The T4 is the main thyroid hormone. If the TSH is normal and the T4 is high, it can indicate certain things with your thyroid. The first being hyperthryoid.

56
Q

An example of a positive nutrition care outcome is:

a. increased intake of foods high in iron and vitamin C
b. increase in the number of participants in a weight management class
c. increase in physician referrals to the outpatient department
d. decrease in the number of complaints regarding low sodium meals

A

a. increased intake of foods high in iron and vitamin C

57
Q

Iron deficiency anemia has the following characteristics:

a. large cells laden with hemoglobin, hypochromic, microcytic
b. small, pale cells hypochromic, microcytic
c. large cells laden with hemoglobin macrocytic, megaloblastic
d. small, pale cells, macrocytic, megaloblastic

A

b. small, pale cells hypochromic, microcytic

58
Q

Which hormone moves milk through the mammary glands

a. prolactin
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin

A

d. oxytocin

59
Q

Which anthroprometric measuremens are useful in assessing adults?

a. triceps skinfold, head circumference, arm muscle circumference
b. head circumference, arm muscle circumference, height, weight
c. serum albumin, triceps skinfold
d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle circumference, height, weight

A

d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle circumference, height, weight

assesses muscle and fat stores, height and weight (BMI)

60
Q

Which is a measure of somatic protein?

a. serum albumin
b. serum transferrin
c. mid-arm muscle circumference
d. triceps skinfold

A

c. mid-arm muscle circumference

albumin: visceral protein; rises with dehydration, lowers with edema
transferrin: visceral protein; rises with iron deficiency
triceps skinfold: fat and calorie reserves

61
Q

Muscle mass is determined using the:

a. triceps skinfold and arm circumference
b. skinfold caliper
c. BEE
d. urinary creatinine measurement

A

a. triceps skinfold and arm circumference

62
Q

Gastric irritants include:

a. black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa
b. seeds, nuts, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol
c. caffeine, black pepper, nuts, alcohol
d. orange juice, black pepper, chili powder, alcohol

A

a. black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa

63
Q

Good advice for a patient with a hiatal hernia is to:

a. increase intake of complex carbohydrates
b. lower the fat content of the diet
c. dont eat before bed
d. avoid coffee

A

c. dont eat before bed (lessen chance of reflux)

treatment: small, bland feedings; avoid late night snacks, caffeine, chili powder, and black pepper

64
Q

I. follows a gastrectomy
II. is secondary to carbohydrate overload
III. draws fluid into the intestine
IV needs a high carbohydrate diet

a. I, III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I
d. I, II, III

A

d. I, II, III

65
Q

Nutritional therapy for hepatitis includes:

a. high protein, high carbohydrate, moderate fat, high calories
b. high protein, low carbohydrate, low fat, moderate calories
c. low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, high calories
d. low protein, high carbohydrate, low fat, low calories

A

a. high protein, high carbohydrate, moderate fat, high calories

Hepatitis:
Jaundice occurs when bile ducts are blocked
increase fluids to prevent dehydration
50-55% CHO to replenish liver glycogen and spare protein
protein helps to repair and replace liver cells damaged by hepatitis
small, frequent feedings
coffee (antioxidant)
multivitamin with B complex, C, K, zinc

66
Q

Esophageal varices may be caused by:

a. portal hypotension
b. portal hypertension
c. a high fiber diet
d. a high fiber,high residue diet

A

b. portal hypertension

Esophageal varices are a direct result of high blood pressure in the portal vein. This condition is called portal hypertension. It causes blood to build up in nearby blood vessels, including those in your esophagus. Veins begin to dilate and swell as a result of increased blood flow.

Esophageal varices are abnormal, enlarged veins in the tube that connects the throat and stomach (esophagus). This condition occurs most often in people with serious liver diseases.

67
Q

The diet for hepatic coma is low in protein due to:

a. low ammonia levels
b. high cholesterol levels
c. high ammonia levels
d. high LDL

A

c. high ammonia levels

hepatic coma a neuropsychiatric manifestation of extensive liver damage caused by chronic or acute liver disease.

68
Q

In cystic fibrosis, the most impaired nutrient is:

a. protein
b. disaccarhides
c. electrolytes
d. fat

A

d. fat

cystic fibrosis: disease of exocrine glands

  1. pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy with meals and snacks
  2. high protein, high calorie, unrestricted fat, liberal in salt
69
Q

Hormones that control blood pressure and blood components are produced in the:

a. heart
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. lungs

A

c. kidneys

Aldosterone controls salt levels in the blood, and too much of the hormone can lead to high salt levels and high blood pressure

70
Q

An acid wash would be created by ingesting:

a. corn, cranberries
b. milk
c. vegetables
d. fruits

A

a. corn, cranberries

71
Q

Symptoms of nephrosis include:

a. dehydration, hypocholesterolemia
b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia
c. edema, hypocholesterolemia
d. hypotension, hyperalbumininemia

A

b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia

signs: albuminuria, edema, malnutrition, hyperlipidemia

72
Q

The catecholamines released during stress cause:

a. hypertension
b. hyperglycemia
c. diuresis
d. elevated BUN

A

b. hyperglycemia

Catecholamines and a number of other hormones released during stress states contribute to the development of hyperglycemia by directly stimulating glucose production and interfering with tissue disposal of glucose.

73
Q

Which is part of the nutritional therapy for IDDM in a lean person;
a. time meals
b. decrease calorie intake
c, it is not crucial to maintain consistency of calories if average intake is low
d. decrease the frequency of feedings

A

a. time meals

IDDM- insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
treatment:
1. with fixed daily doses of insulin, consistency of CHO is recommended
2. integrate insulin therapy with usual eating habits
3. monitor blood glucose and adjust insulin doses for amount eaten
4. for planned exercise, reduction in insulin dosage may be the best choice

74
Q

Increased serum uric acid levels may lead to:

a. galactosemia
b. glycogen storage disease
c. gout
d. PKU

A

c. gout

high uric acid level occurs when your kidneys don’t eliminate uric acid efficiently. Things that may cause slow-down in the removal of uric acid: rich foods, overweight, diabetes, taking certain diuretics (sometimes called water pills) and too much alcohol.

Since purines turn into uric acid, consuming a diet really high in purines can cause a problem. Top offenders include: organ meats, game meat, red meat, and seafood. You may not need to completely get rid of these from your diet forever, but you should greatly limit your exposure. Eat them less frequently and eat smaller portions
When your thyroid (hypo or hyper) does not work properly, it can inhibit the proper purine metabolism.

75
Q

The diet for galactosemia should exclude:

a. high-fat foods
b. high cholesterol foods
c. organ meats, MSG
d. simple carbohydrates

A

c. organ meats, MSG

Treatment:
no galactose or lactose, organ meats (contain galactose), MSG extenders, milk, whey, casein, dry milk, solids, curds, calcium or sodium caseinate, dates, bell peppers

76
Q

The ketogenic diet is used to help treat:

a. cystic fibrosis
b. seizures
c. chronic renal failure
d. hypotension

A

b. seizures

ketogenic: high fat, low CHO
3 -4 grams of fat for every 1 gram of carbohydrate and protein.

77
Q

Immediately following a severe burn, nutritional therapy should include:

a. high calories
b. high protein
c. high calories, vitamins, and minerals
d. fluid and electrolyte replacement

A

d. fluid and electrolyte replacement
d. fluid and electrolyte replacement

high calorie, high protein
Vitamin C, zinc, and copper help burns heal. Vitamin E, vitamin C, and selenium are antioxidants. They help to reduce the body’s stress response after an injury. Vitamin C, vitamin D, and zinc help to prevent and treat infections.

78
Q

The theory of obesity that refers to receptors in the hypothalamus is the:

a. lipostatic theory
b. set point theory
c. glucostatic theory
d. glucose-obese theory

A

c. glucostatic theory

The glucostatic theory: blood glucose trigger the body into feeling hungry when blood glucose levels drop below their set point, thus hunger occurs in order to restore levels and such levels are necessary for brain functioning (glucose is the brain’s primary fuels source)

79
Q

Closed enteral nutrition systems can hang for

a. 12 hours
b. 24-48 hours
c. 12-24 hours
d. unlimited because the container is closed

A

b. 24-48 hours

open systems: 4 hours
closed systems: 24-48 hours

The closed enteral feeding system can be disconnected and reconnected within the 24 hours period for intermittent feed. can be used for continuous or bolus feeds. No flexibility in formula additives. less risk of contamination

80
Q

A fecal excretion of ____ grams of fat/24 hours is considered malabsorption

a. less than 1
b. more than 7
c. 3-5
d. 2-4

A

b. more than 7

normal fecal excretion of fat = <7g per day from diet, GI secretions, bacterial byproducts, sloughed epithelium abnormal excess fat in feces = >7g per day malabsorption: - pale, greasy, bulky, spongy, pasty stool

81
Q

Iatrogenic malnutrition is:

a. vitamin and mineral malabsorption
b. protein malabosorption
c. protein, calorie malnutrition
d. kwashiorkor

A

c. protein, calorie malnutrition

Iatrogenic malnutrition is a protein-calorie malnutrition induced inadvertently (by accident) due to treatments, medications and/or hospitalization.

A common cause of iatrogenic malnutrition is scheduling frequent tests that require patients to fast before the test and that may continue through the next meal time. It is not uncommon for patients to miss breakfast because they need to fast, to miss lunch because they are having a test, and to be too tired to eat very much at dinner.

82
Q
What are the similarities between WIC and SNAP?
I. regulated by USDA
II. have at risk criteria
III. have income criteria
IV. health exam is recquired

a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. II, III, IV
d. I, III

A

d. I, III
I. regulated by USDA
III. have income criteria

WIC only for pregnant, postpartum, breastfeeding women; infants and children up to 5 years old

83
Q

A 60 kg female receives 2700 calories on PN. The calorie to nitrogen ratio is 150:1. How many grams of nitrogen is she getting?

a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20

A

c. 18

2700/150= 18

Nonprotein Calorie to Nitrogen Ratio (NPC:N) A ratio of 150:1 to 200:1 is considered an adequate intake for stable patients. For patients who may be critically ill or have difficulty maintaining muscle mass, an NPC:N ratio of 100:1 or less (higher protein intake) may be optimal.

84
Q

What type of food would you feed to a patient who has the athetoid form of cerebral palsy?

a. milk-based products
b. finger foods like a hot dog in a roll
c. milk-free products
d. galactose-free foods

A

b. finger foods like a hot dog in a roll

athetoid form of cerebral palsy: is the non-spastic form. involves involuntary wormlike movement, constant irregular motions leading to weight loss
treatment:
high calorie, high protein diet, finger foods

85
Q

Osteoporosis is most likely to occur in:

a. the physically active adult
b. non-smoker
c. black female
d. white female

A

d. white female

osteoporosis: loss of bone tissue
white and Asian most affected. more osteoporotic fractures than black or Hispanic

causes: malnutrition (especially protein), lack of exercise, decline in estrogen

86
Q

Which is a quick diet assessment tool for a large group

a. food frequency lists
b. diet history forms
c. weighing food samples and recording intake
d. food records

A

a. food frequency lists

food frequency lists-how often an item is consumed. COMMUNITY SETTING. quick way to determine intakes on large numbers of people

87
Q

Compared to human milk, commercially prepared infant formula is:

a. similar in nutrient content
b. equivalent to human milk in nutrient content and antibodies
c. higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies
d. lower in protein and iron and lacks antibodies

A

c. higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies

88
Q

Which of the following is not associated with anorexia nervosa?

a. food aversions
b. distorted body image
c. schizophrenia
d. constant concern about weight status

A

c. schizophrenia

anorexia nervosa- distorted body image, dramatic wt loss, preoccupation with food and weight gain

concern: correct electrolyte imbalance (K)
plan with patient, regular meal times, varied and moderate intake, gradually reintroduced feared foods
refeeding increases CARDIAC LOAD- GO SLOWLY
calorie intake may need to be set 100 to 300 calories above the currentl level of intake to support adherence

89
Q

What is the appropriate advice for a person with anorexia nervosa?

a. offer a wide variety of foods and frequent feedings
b. offer liquids high in calories and protein
c. offer naso gastric feedings
d. regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake

A

d. regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake

recommended initial daily calorie levels range from 1000-1600 (30-40 cal/kg). However, calorie intake may need to be set 100 to 300 calories above the currentl level of intake to support adherence.

90
Q
A female who eats a wide variety of foods and takes supplemental iron and birth control pills may be:
a. marginally deficient in folic acid
b. low in calcium
c. low in vitamin A
d low in zinc
A

a. marginally deficient in folic acid

Folic acid also helps iron function properly in your body in addition to aiding in the formation of red blood cells, or RBCs. Pregnant women require more folic acid than women who are not pregnant. Taking folic acid during pregnancy can also help prevent birth defects related to the spine and brain.

In several cases, women taking oral contraceptives developed folic acid deficiency. However, it appears that many of these women had low intake of folic acid or problems with intestinal absorption prior to taking birth control pills. Women on birth control pills should regularly eat good sources of folic acid.
Wide variety of foods important to ensure to get adequate amounts of minerals and nutrients

91
Q

The immobilized state can lead to low levels of:

a. albumin and calcium
b. albumin and sodium
c. calcium and potassium
d. potassium and zinc

A

a. albumin and calcium

Calcium in serum is bound to proteins, principally albumin. As a result, the total serum calcium concentration in patients with low or high serum albumin levels may not accurately reflect the physiologically important ionized (or free) calcium concentration.
Remember: Albumin levels that are low are likely due to dehydration. If immobilized, may not be getting adequate hydration if not in hospital setting.

92
Q

A man with a peptic ulcer should consume:

a. milk every 2 hours
b. a bland diet
c. a balanced diet he can tolerate
d. a low roughage diet

A

c. a balanced diet he can tolerate

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a break in the inner lining of the stomach, first part of the small intestine or sometimes the lower esophagus. An ulcer in the stomach is called a gastric ulcer, while that in the first part of the intestines is a duodenal ulcer.
Diet: as tolerated, well-balanced, avoid late night snacks
OMIT: cayenne and black pepper, large amounts of chili powder, excess caffeine and alcohol

93
Q

Which nutrient may be absorbed during peritoneal dialysis and continuous renal replacement therapy, thus requiring a modification of his diet?

a. carbohydrate
b. protein
c. fat-soluble vitamins
d. water-soluble vitamins

A

a. carbohydrate

For people on peritoneal dialysis (PD), the need for carbohydrates is less than for people on hemodialysis. In PD, a dialysate containing dextrose — a form of sugar — is used to pull waste and fluid out of the blood. Because dextrose is a carbohydrate like glucose, your body absorbs these calories, decreasing your need to consume carbohydrates in food. These excess calories can affect weight control and blood sugar management. This means only 35-40% of your total daily calories should come from carbohydrate foods while on PD, because 15% of your calorie needs will be absorbed from the dialysate. The rest of your calories should come from protein foods and fat.

94
Q

An infant formula for lactose intolerance might include:
I. whey, coconut oil
II, casein hydrolysate, corn oil, glucose
III. soy protein, corn syrup solids
IV. sodium caseinate, hydrolyzed cornstarch

a. I, II, III
b. II, III
c. II
d. I, III

A

b. II, III
II, casein hydrolysate, corn oil, glucose
III. soy protein, corn syrup solids

95
Q

A patient with the nephrotic syndrome will likely exhibit:

a. hypercholesterolemia, hypoalbuminemia, edema
b. hypertension, hypocholesterolemia
c. hypotension, azotemia
d. malnutrition, hyperalbuminemia

A

a. hypercholesterolemia, hypoalbuminemia, edema

Nephrotic syndrome results from a problem with the kidneys’ filters, called glomeruli. Glomeruli are tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that remove wastes and excess fluids from the blood and send them to the bladder as urine. Permits escape of large amounts of protein.
leads to: albuninuria, edema, malnutrition, hyperlipidemia

96
Q

A nephrotic syndrome patient should receive how many grams of protein per kg?

a. .5-.6
b. .6-.8
c. .8-1.0
d. 1.0 -1.4

A

c. .8-1.0

  1. modest protein restriction: .8-1.0g/kg; 50% form HBV
    excess protein will be cataoblized to urea and excreted
  2. < 30% fat, low saturated fat, 200 mg cholesterol
  3. 35 calories/kg/day
  4. modest sodium restriction: 2-3 g/day (depends on hypertension, edema
  5. may need fluid restriction with edema
  6. calcium 1-1.5 g/day, supplement vitamin D
  7. abnormalities in iron, copper, zinc, calcium related to protein loss
97
Q

Fiber, like that found in oats, beans and bran cereals, results in:

a. increased water absorption from the intestine
b. binding of bile acids
c. decreased sodium excretion in the stool
d. small, compact stools

A

a. increased water absorption from the intestine

Soluble fiber attracts water and turns to gel during digestion. This slows digestion.

oats, beans, blueberries,and bran cereals high in soluble fiber. soluble fiber attaches to cholesterol particles and takes them out of the body, helping to reduce overall cholesterol levels and the risk of heart disease.

The main role of soluble fiber is to slow digestion so your body has adequate time to absorb nutrients from the food you eat. Consuming foods high in soluble fiber may aid in weight loss, since it slows digestion and keeps you feeling full longer. The gel formed from soluble fiber can improve your heart health by lowering your blood cholesterol.

98
Q
A patient suffering from bulimia may have all of the following symptoms except:
a. sore throat
b. dental problems
c. extreme weight loss
d rectal bleeding
A

c. extreme weight loss

laxative abuse- lead to rectal bleeding
gorging and vomitting syndrome, usually close to normal weight.
leads to damaged teeth, throat, esophagus rectal bleeding, bruised knuckles from purging with fingers, low potassium and chloride blood levels

99
Q

Research on the effects of a low sugar, low artificial flavor diet on hyperkinesis has shown that:
a. it works in two out of three patients
b. it has not been scientifically proven effective
c it has never been tested on humans
d. it has been proven effective

A

b. it has not been scientifically proven effective

Hyperkinesis is a state of overactive restlessness (ADHD).
Feingold diet- no salicylates, artificial colors, artifical flavors- efficacy not proven sugar does not cause hyperactivity

100
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of marasmus?

a. severe protein and calorie wasting
b. weight loss
c. edema
d. low anthropometric measurements

A

c. edema

Marasmus: protein and calorie starvation

  1. diagnosed by anthroprometric measurements, serum albumin normal, no edema
  2. severe fat and muscle wasting, starved appearance
  3. triceps skinfold, arm muscle circumference decreased
101
Q

Urea excretion is related to ____, while creatinine excretion is related to __________.

a. muscle mass, proteint intake
b. protein intake, muscle mass
c. protein intake, adipose reserves
d. protein intake, calcium intake

A

b. protein intake, muscle mass

serum creatinine: 0.6-1.4 mg/dl
related to muscle mass; measures somatic protein
may indicate renal disease, muscle wastage