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CPT Exam Prep > Domain 1: Basic and Applied Sciences & Nutritional Concepts > Flashcards

Domain 1: Basic and Applied Sciences & Nutritional Concepts Flashcards

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1
Q 
A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's: 
A)	Internal balance and stabilization
B)	Maximum cardiac output
C)	Maximum strength capabilities
D)	Hypertrophy gains
A

A) Internal balance and stabilization

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2
Q

The Human Movement System (kinetic chain) consists of the:
A) Digestive, cardiac, and nervous systems
B) Skeletal, cardiac, and respiratory systems
C) Muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
D) Muscular, respiratory, and digestive systems

A

C) Muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems

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3
Q

Neurons are comprised of which three parts?
A) Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites
B) Muscles, Bones, Tissue
C) Lysosomes, Mitochondria, and Golgi complex
D) Axon, Mechanoreceptors, Dendrites

A

A) Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites

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4
Q 
What structures are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue brought about through stretch, compression, traction or tension?    
A)	Chemoreceptors  
B)	Photoreceptors  
C)	Nociceptors  
D)	Mechanoreceptors
A

D) Mechanoreceptors

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5
Q 
Which of the following sensory receptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change?    
A)	Chemoreceptors
B)	Muscle spindles 
C)	Joint receptors  
D)	Golgi tendon organs
A

B) Muscle spindles

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6
Q 
Which of the following sensory receptors will cause a muscle to relax when excited?    
A)	Golgi tendon organ  
B)	Muscle spindles
C)	Nociceptors  
D)	Joint receptors
A

A) Golgi tendon organ

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7
Q 
Actin and myosin are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following?    
A)	Fascicle  
B)	Endomysium 
C)	Sarcomere 
D)	Myofibril
A

D) Myofibril

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8
Q 
Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are known as:    
A)	Arteries 
B)	Veins 
C)	Venules 
D)	Atrium
A

A) Arteries

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9
Q 
What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir?
A)	Atria
B)	Ventricles
C)	Atrioventricular node
D)	Sinoatrial node
A

A) Atria

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10
Q 
The amount of blood pumped out the heart with each contraction if referred to as:
A)	Radial pulse
B)	Heart rate
C)	Cardiac output
D)	Stroke volume
A

D) Stroke volume

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11
Q 
Which blood vessels collect blood from capillaries and progressively merge with veins to transport blood back to the heart?
A)	Venules
B)	Arterioles
C)	Vena cava
D)	Arteries
A

A) Venules

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12
Q

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately:
A) 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL • kg−1 • min−1)
B) 35.0 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (35 mL • kg−1 • min−1)
C) 350 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (350 mL • kg−1 • min−1)
D) 3.5 L of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 L • kg−1 • min−1)

A

A) 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5 mL • kg−1 • min−1)

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13
Q 
What is the primary end product after digestion of carbohydrates?
A)	Triglycerides
B)	Pyruvic acid
C)	Glucose
D)	Amino acids
A

C) Glucose

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14
Q 
The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids is called:
A)	Gluconeogenesis
B)	β-oxidation
C)	Krebs cycle
D)	Glycolysis
A

A) Gluconeogenesis

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15
Q 
The storage form of carbohydrates is called:
A)	ATPase
B)	Amino acids
C)	Triglycerides
D)	Glycogen
A

D) Glycogen

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16
Q 
Which energy system creates ATP from a phosphocreatine molecule?
A)	Electron transport chain
B)	ATP-PC
C)	Aerobic glycolysis
D)	Krebs cycle
A

B) ATP-PC

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17
Q 
Which of the following energy systems occurs without the presence of oxygen?
A)	ATP-PC
B)	Aerobic glycolysis
C)	Krebs cycle
D)	Electron transport chain
A

A) ATP-PC

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18
Q 
The first step in the oxidation of fat is called:
A)	Acetyl coenzyme A
B)	Gluconeogenesis
C)	Anaerobic glycolysis
D)	β-oxidation
A

D) β-oxidation

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19
Q

What is defined as: the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the
human body and the effects produced by these forces?
A) Biochemistry
B) Biomechanics
C) Functional Anatomy
D) Exercise Physiology

A

B) Biomechanics

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20
Q 
An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as:    
A)	Distal 
B)	Superior
C)	Inferior 
D)	Proximal
A

B) Superior

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21
Q 
An anatomical location referring to a position on the back or towards the back of the body is known as:    
A)	Lateral
B)	Medial 
C)	Posterior 
D)	Anterior
A

C) Posterior

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22
Q 
An anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body is known as:    
A)	Ipsilateral 
B)	Lateral 
C)	Contralateral 
D)	Inferior
A

A) Ipsilateral

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23
Q 
An anatomical location referring to a position described as being closer to the midline of the body from a reference point is known as:    
A)	Inferior 
B)	Superior 
C)	Lateral 
D)	Medial
A

D) Medial

24
Q 
An anatomical location referring to a position below a reference point is known as:    
A)	Inferior 
B)	Superior 
C)	Contralateral 
D)	Distal
A

A) Inferior

25
Q 
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is called:
A)	Relative flexibility
B)	Muscle imbalance
C)	Postural distortion patterns
D)	Altered reciprocal inhibition
A

A) Relative flexibility

26
Q 
Which of the following states that prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle: spindle of the same muscle?
A)	Facilitation inhibition
B)	Reciprocal inhibition
C)	Excitation inhibition
D)	Autogenic inhibition
A

D) Autogenic inhibition

27
Q 
A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what?
A)	Altered reciprocal inhibition
B)	Synergistic dominance
C)	Autogenic inhibition
D)	Arthokinetic dysfunction
A

A) Altered reciprocal inhibition

28
Q

What is the definition of a muscle imbalance?
A) The body seeking the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns
B) Synergists taking over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover
C) Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
D) Soft tissue models along the lines of stress

A

C) Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

29
Q

One metabolic equivalent or MET is equal to 3.5 mL O2 × kg−1 × min−1 or the equivalent of:
A) The average resting metabolic rate for adults
B) 35% of maximum heart rate
C) 50% of maximal oxygen uptake reserve
D) 10-11 on the ratings of perceived exertion scale

A

A) The average resting metabolic rate for adults

30
Q 
The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production is known as:
A)	Metabolic equivalent
B)	Oxygen uptake reserve
C)	Ventilatory threshold 
D)	Cardiac output
A

C) Ventilatory threshold

31
Q 
The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?
A)	Type I
B)	Type IIA
C)	Type IIX
D)	Type IIAB
A

A) Type I

32
Q 
What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a level plane?
A)	Patellar reflex
B)	Lumbo-pelvic reflex
C)	Stretch reflex
D)	Pelvo-ocular reflex
A

D) Pelvo-ocular reflex

33
Q 
The ability to reduce force at the right joint, at the right time, and in the right plane of motion requires optimal levels of dynamic balance and”
A)	Neuromuscular efficiency
B)	Synergistic dominance
C)	Autogenic inhibition
D)	Reciprocal inhibition
A

A) Neuromuscular efficiency

34
Q

True or false, the ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling is defined as, static balance?
A) True
B) False

A

B) False

35
Q 
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible is known as:
A)	Power
B)	Agility 
C)	Quickness
D)	Speed
A

D) Speed

36
Q 
The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture is known as:
A)	Speed
B)	Power
C)	Agility 
D)	Quickness
A

C) Agility

37
Q 
The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities is known as:
A)	Speed
B)	Power
C)	Quickness 
D)	Agility
A

C) Quickness

38
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Mechanical specificity, neuromuscular specificity, metabolic specificity
B) Increased endurance, increased strength, increased power
C) Delayed-onset muscle soreness, increased motor unit recruitment, joint pain and muscle strains
D) Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

A

D) Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

39
Q 
During which stage does the body increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor?
A)	Exhaustion
B)	Alarm reaction
C)	Resistance development 
D)	Neuromuscular specificity
A

C) Resistance development

40
Q 
The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load is defined as:
A)	Strength
B)	Stabilization
C)	Muscular endurance
D)	Muscular hypertrophy
A

A) Strength

41
Q 
A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores?
A)	50
B)	90
C)	10 
D)	30
A

A) 50

42
Q

What two factors contribute to children having less of a tolerance for temperature extremes, especially when exercising?
A) Glycolytic enzymes are lower, higher submaximal oxygen demand
B) Lack of hydration, children do not exhibit maximum oxygen uptake
C) Higher submaximal oxygen demand, Lower sweating rate
D) Lack of hydration, lower sweating rate

A

C) Higher submaximal oxygen demand, Lower sweating rate

43
Q 
What is caused by degeneration of cartilage within joints, creating a wearing on the surfaces of articulating bones, causing inflammation and pain at the joint?
A)	Rheumatoid arthritis
B)	Osteoarthritis 
C)	Osteopenia
D)	Osteoporosis
A

B) Osteoarthritis

44
Q 
The average range for health blood pressure is:
A)	>150/100
B)	<120/80 
C)	140/90
D)	135/85
A

B) <120/80

45
Q 
Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than:
A)	140/90
B)	120/80
C)	110/75
D)	130/85
A

A) 140/90

46
Q 
Which of the following is an example of an essential amino acid?
A)	Cysteine
B)	Leucine 
C)	Alanine
D)	Glycine
A

B) Leucine

47
Q 
Approximately how many amino acids does the body use?
A)	8
B)	20 
C)	10
D)	30
A

B) 20

48
Q 
Which of the following compounds are considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion?
A)	Fats
B)	Proteins
C)	Carbohydrates 
D)	Water
A

C) Carbohydrates

49
Q 
Consumption of which of the following are associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body’s absorption of glucose?
A)	Fiber
B)	Water
C)	Protein
D)	Lipids
A

A) Fiber

50
Q 
Which of the following nutrients are responsible for acting as transports for vitamins A, D, E, and K?
A)	Glycine
B)	Proteins
C)	Monosaccharide
D)	Fats
A

D) Fats

51
Q 
How many calories does one gram of fat yield?
A)	12
B)	4
C)	10
D)	9
A

D) 9

52
Q 
Which of the following nutrients (present only as retinol) should be consumed less than 100% of the daily value (DV)?
A)	Vitamin A
B)	Vitamin C
C)	Vitamin D
D)	Vitamin K
A

A) Vitamin A

53
Q 
Good guidelines for adequate, excessive, and potentially harmful intakes of a nutrient for normal, healthy individuals are known as:
A)	Dietary reference intake
B)	Daily recommended intake
C)	Dietary requirement institution
D)	Daily reference institute
A

A) Dietary reference intake

54
Q 
The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97–98%) healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as:
A)	Estimated Average Requirement
B)	Tolerable Upper Intake Level
C)	Adequate Intake
D)	Recommended daily allowance
A

D) Recommended daily allowance

55
Q 
The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as:
A)	Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B)	Estimated Average Requirement 
C)	Adequate Intake
D)	Recommended Daily Allowance
A

B) Estimated Average Requirement

56
Q 
The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affect to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is defined as:
A)	Adequate Intake
B)	Tolerable Upper Intake Level 
C)	Recommended Daily Allowance
D)	Estimated Average Requirement
A

B) Tolerable Upper Intake Level

CPT Exam Prep (6 decks)

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