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MycoViro PRELIM > DNA and Viruses Pt1 > Flashcards

DNA and Viruses Pt1 Flashcards

1
Q

largest and most complex viruses

A

Poxviridae

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2
Q

1st disease to be eradicated in the world and can be used as a bioterrorism tool

A

Variola

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3
Q

vector for introducing active immunizing genes

A

Vaccinia

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4
Q

affects the skin

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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5
Q

variolation by Jenner and used for the development of vaccines

A

Cowpox

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6
Q

only virus that is single stranded?

A

Parvovirus

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7
Q

all RNA viruses are single stranded except?

A

Reovirus

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8
Q

sheep and goat and is a cutaneous pustular dermatitis

A

Orf

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9
Q

who first develop vaccines and experimented by inoculating the nostrils of young children?

A

Edward Jenner

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10
Q

involves getting parts of an organism and recombine them then develops a DNA recombinant vaccine

A

Gene Splicing

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11
Q

what virus inhibits the host immune defense system

A

Poxvirus

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12
Q

used for smallpox vaccination and as a laboratory model for poxviruses

A

Vaccinia virus

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13
Q

most poxvirus infections are accompanied by?

A

Vesicular Rash

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14
Q

brick shaped and complex

A

Poxvirus

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15
Q

how many kilobase pairs does poxvirus have?

A

130-375

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16
Q

size of the core membrane of poxvirus?

A

9nm

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17
Q

what lateral body shape of poxvirus give?

A

Dumbbell

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18
Q

protein shell thickness of poxvirus?

A

12nm

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19
Q

enclosed in a lipid bilayer containing virus specific proteins

A

Virion

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20
Q

what virus replicate in cytoplasm and the uncoating requires newly synthesized virus encoded protein

A

Poxvirus

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21
Q

assembly of the progeny viruses begins with the formation of membrane structures followed by maturation of?

A

Intracellular Mature Virions (IMV)

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22
Q

The virions are further wrapped by membranes from the Golgi apparatus that are lost upon the release of

A

Extracellular Enveloped Virions (EEV)

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23
Q

means the parent viruses?

A

Progeny

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24
Q

means the infectious particle?

A

Virion

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25
Q

will bridge the gap between intermediate transcription and late transcription

A

Concatemers

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26
Q

what is the unique part of the poxvirus?

A

can cause nongenetic reactivation upon uncoating

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27
Q

pathogenesis of poxvirus

A

inhalation/URT

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28
Q

eosinophilic inclusions, called ? that can be seen in the cytoplasm

A

Guarnieri bodies

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29
Q

mononuclear phagocytic cells

A

NK cells

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30
Q

the rash is called exanthem

A

Secondary Viremic Phase

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31
Q

Secondary Viremic Phase what is the rash called?

A

Exanthem

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32
Q

types of exanthem
macular

A

Flat

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33
Q

types of exanthem
papular

A

Elevated

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34
Q

types of exanthem
maculopapular

A

Combination (flat and elevated like in measles)

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35
Q

types of exanthem
fluid filled

A

Vesicle

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36
Q

types of exanthem
large vesicle

A

Bullae

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37
Q

types of exanthem
pus

A

Pustule

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38
Q

the same stage of evolution and is already eradicated

A

Smallpox

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39
Q

makes sure that the function of the immune system is limited in time

A

T suppressor cells

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40
Q

all stages of evolution or varying stages of evolution and is asymmetrical

A

Chicken Pox

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41
Q

by the ??? lesions in the mouth tended to ulcerate and discharge virus

A

6th and 9th day

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42
Q

histopathology of smallpox

A

ballooning of degeneration and stratum spinosum (spiny layer)

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43
Q

by the 6th and 9th day lesions in the mouth tended to ulcerate and discharge virus what virus is this?

A

Smallpox

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44
Q

the disease was barely infective

A

Preeruptive phase

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45
Q

portal of entry of smallpox?

A

Mucous membrane of the URT

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46
Q

incubation period of smallpox?

A

10-14 days

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47
Q

at what days were fever and malaise present in smallpox?

A

1-5 days

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48
Q

at what weeks does the crust fall off in smallpox?

A

2 weeks

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49
Q

are specific for various poxviruses are available and can be used for detection and identification purposes.

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test

50
Q

treatment for smallpox?

A

Methisazone and Cidofovir

51
Q

chemotherapeutic agent historically evaluated against poxviruses. It
is effective as prophylaxis but is not useful in treatment of established
disease

A

Methisazone

52
Q

a nucleotide analog, shows activity against poxviruses in vitro and in vivo. It has been used to treat molluscum contagiosum and for virus infections

A

Cidofovir

53
Q

scab forms are stable for ? year at room temp?

A

1

54
Q

umbilicated papule, direct and fomite transmission, may itch autoinoculation, AIDS and is caused by herpesviruses what virus is this?

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

55
Q

incubation period of Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

6 months

56
Q

not fully eradicated so it can still erupt anytime

A

Latent

57
Q

What triggers the reactivation?

A

aging, debilitated, surgery, and waning immunity

58
Q

oral herpes transmitted from the waist up

A

HHV1

59
Q

Genital herpes transmitted from the waist down

A

HHV2

60
Q

Varicella zoster virus

A

HHV3

61
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

HHV4

62
Q

Epstein bar virus

A

HHV5

63
Q

Roseola infantum, exanthema subitem

A

HHV6-6A&6B

64
Q

slapped cheek appearance

A

Roseola

65
Q

Roseola;febrile seizures and encephalitis

A

HHV7

66
Q

Kaposi sarcoma associated virus

A

HHV8

67
Q

isolated in monkeys in africa

A

Kaposi sarcoma

68
Q

capsid is surrounded by an amorphous protein coat called

A

Tegument

69
Q

VP16 complexes with several proteins and activates initial viral gene expression

A

Cascade

70
Q

tegument protein

A

VP16

71
Q

all herpesviruses have a ?

A

core dsDNA in a form of toroid surrounded by a protein coat that exhibits icosahedral symmetry and has 162 capsomeres

72
Q

site of latency of herpesviridae?

A

Sensory nerve ganglia

73
Q

replication cycle of herpes simplex virus (HSV)

A

18 hrs

74
Q

replication cycle of cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

70 hrs

75
Q

replication cycle of HSV and CMV

A
  1. fusion wt plasma membrane
  2. alpha proteins stimulate early genes
  3. beta proteins for late gene transcribed
  4. gamma proteins for viral structural proteins
  5. packaging into a capsule
76
Q

most potent inducer of neutralizing ab

A

gD

77
Q

C3b binding protein

A

gC

78
Q

Fc receptor; binds with Fc of IgG

A

gE

79
Q

type specific and allows for antigenic discrimination between HSV1 (gG-1) and hsv-2 (gG-2)

A

gG

80
Q

part of the antibody where antigen will join

A

Paratope

81
Q

part of the antigen where antibody will join

A

Epitope

82
Q

is spread by contact, usually involving infected saliva

A

HSV 1

83
Q

is transmitted sexually or from a maternal genital infection to
a newborn

A

HSV 2

84
Q
  • transmitted by contact of a susceptible person with an individual excreting virus
  • invades local nerve endings and is transported by retrograde axonal flow to dorsal root ganglia
  • usually mild and mostly asymptomatic
A

Primary Infection of HSV

85
Q
  • resides in latently infected ganglia in a nonreplicating state
  • Viral persistence in latently infected ganglia lasts for the lifetime of the host
  • Provocative stimuli can reactivate virus from the latent state, including axonal injury, fever, physical or emotional stress, and exposure to ultraviolet light
A

Latent Infection of HSV

86
Q
  • frequently on small children
  • incubation period is 3-5days and clinical illness lasts 2-3 weeks
  • gingivitis
  • in adults cause pharyngitis and tonsilitis
A

Oropharyngeal Disease

87
Q
  • Recurrent lesions of the eye are common and appear as dendritic keratitis or corneal ulcers or as vesicles on the eyelids
  • With recurrent keratitis, there may be progressive involvement of the corneal stroma, with permanent opacification and blindness
A

Keratoconjunctivitis

88
Q
  • Genital disease is more often caused by HSV-2
  • characterized by vesiculoulcerative lesions of the penis of the male or of the cervix, vulva, vagina, and perineum of the female
  • Viral secretion persists for about 3 weeks
  • associated with fever, malaise, dysuria, and inguinal lymphadenopathy
A

Genital Herpes

89
Q

HSV-1 infections are considered the most common cause of sporadic, fatal encephalitis in the United States

A

Meningitis/Encephalitis

90
Q
  • mother is the most common source of infection in all cases
  • most common route of infection (75% of cases) is for HSV to be transmitted to a newborn during birth by contact with herpetic lesions in the birth canal
  • can also be acquired postnatally by exposure to either HSV-1 or HSV-2 via shedding of virus from family members and hospital personnel
    *
A

Neonatal Herpes

91
Q

lab diagnosis of HSV

A

PCR, Cytopathology, Serology

92
Q

an intranuclear inclusion bodies, multinucleated giant cells

A

Cowdry type A

93
Q

pathology of HSV primary infection

A

Break in the skin - retrograde axonal flow to dorsal root ganglion

94
Q

treatment of HSV

A

Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, Vidarabine

95
Q

infects mucosal cells in the nose and throat, its primary viremia is LNs replicates enter bloodstream, secondary viremia is liver and spleen and is morphologically identical to HSV and no animal reservoir what virus is this?

A

Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)

96
Q

commonly affected are head trunk neck aging and immunocompromised, pain and vesicular rash limited in distribution to the skin innervated by a single sensory ganglion what virus is this?

A

Shingles/Herpes Zoster

97
Q

lab diagnosis of VZV

A

PCr, CSF, Tzanck smear, skin scrapings

98
Q

treatment of VZV

A

Acyclovir, Gamma globulin of high Varicella zoster virus ab titer, Varicella zoster immune globulin

99
Q

large, torch panel is the test panel, can develop jaundice and failure to thrive or survive, common cause of congenital infection, largest genetic content of human herpesviruses what virus is this?

A

Cytomegalovirus

100
Q

incubation period of cytomegalovirus

A

3-8 weeks

101
Q

TORCH stands for

A

Toxoplasma, Other agents, Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex

102
Q

asymptomatic infection of cytomegalovirus

A

adults have no problem however the baby can have the problem

103
Q

oncogenic, lymphoproliferative, b cell is main target of attack, can cause e nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitts lymphoma what virus is this?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

104
Q

detect heterophile ab and based on the principle of sheep agglutinins in sera of infectious mononucleosis patents who are absorbed by OX red cells but not by guinea pig kidney extract

A

Paul Bunnel test

105
Q

Kidney extract (Not absorbed) beef erythrocyte (Absorbed) what is the heterophil ab?

A

Infectious mono

106
Q

Kidney extract (Absorbed) beef erythrocyte (Not absorbed) what is the heterophil ab?

A

Forssman

107
Q

Kidney extract (Absorbed) beef erythrocyte (Absorbed) what is the heterophil ab?

A

Serum sickness

108
Q

seldom cause disease in rhesus monkeys, monkey bite, striking feature is the neurologic disease what virus is it?

A

Herpes B virus

109
Q

3 ways of acquiring the hepatitis B virus?

A

Sexual intercourse, needlestick, vertical

110
Q

Establishes chronic infections, especially in those infected as infants, Major factor in the eventual development of liver disease and hepatocellular carcinoma in those individuals what virus is this?

A

Hepatitis B virus

111
Q

a life-long marker, after it increase and reached its peak, it will be constant up to the end of the patient’s life, does not have a corresponding antigen, cannot be found routinely in blood

A

Anti-Hbc

112
Q

Also known as core window or serologic window, During this stage, the clinical significance is that there is a nonreactive HbsAg and non reactive anti-Hbs

A

Convalescent window

113
Q

is the most reliable marker for identifying HBV infection.

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

114
Q

The presence of HBsAg 6 months after acute infection indicates that the patient is a?

A

Chronic carrier

115
Q

The presence of ? 6 months after acute infection indicates that the patient is a chronic carrier

A

HBsAg

116
Q

? appears early in the course of disease, during the acute infection

A

IgM (anti-HBcAg) to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg)

117
Q

IgM (anti-HBcAg) to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg) appears early in the course of disease, during the ?

A

Acute infection

118
Q

? indicates the patient is in convalescence and has developed immunity

A

Anti-HBsAg

119
Q

? indicates high infectivity and a chronic carrier state

A

HBeAg

120
Q

shows if there is active viremia, most infectious part, presence indicates viral replication

A

Hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg)

121
Q

first marker to rise which indicates acute hepatitis b infection.

A

HbsAg

MycoViro PRELIM (3 decks)

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