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Grade 12 Biology > DNA > Flashcards

DNA Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

A chromosome is able to maintain its structure due to which of the following?

a) the genome groups the chromosomes
b) centriole prevents the chromosomes from separating
c) the special protein that forms the central core called a histone
d) centromeres lock the chromosomes together

A

c) the special protein that forms the central core called a histone

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2
Q

Which statement about Griffith’s work with Streptococcus pneumoniae is incorrect?

a) Injected heat-killed S-form bacteria together with live R-form bacteria killed mice.
b) Injected S-form bacteria killed mice.
c) Injected heat-killed S-form bacteria allowed mice to survive.
d) Injected R-form bacteria killed mice.

A

d) Injected R-form bacteria killed mice

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3
Q

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its:

a) sequence of bases
b) phosphate-sugar backbone
c) complementary pairing of bases
d) side groups of nitrogenous bases

A

a) sequence of bases

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4
Q

Which statement about Hershey and Chase’s experiment is true?

a) It involved finding radioactivity inside bacteria infected with bacteriophage having DNA labelled with 35S.
b) It involved finding radioactivity inside bacteria infected with bacteriophage having protein labelled with 32P.
c) It involved finding radioactivity inside bacteria infected with bacteriophage having DNA labelled with 32P.
d) It was intended to demonstrate that the protein case of a bacteriophage remained outside a bacterial cell after infection.

A

c) It involved finding radioactivity inside bacteria infected with bacteriophage having DNA labelled with 32P.

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5
Q

Who first isolated DNA from the nucleus?

a) Gregor Mendel
b) Frederick Griffith
c) Frederick Meischer
d) Charles Darwin

A

c) Frederick Meischer

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6
Q

What did Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase discover?

a) how viral DNA changed the way a bacteria functioned
b) How both viral protein and viral DNA were needed to change the way a bacteria functioned
c) How both viral protein and viral DNA quickly killed bacteria
d) how viral protein changed the way a bacteria functioned

A

c) How both viral protein and viral DNA quickly killed bacteria

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7
Q

In eukaryotes, replication starts more or less simultaneously at multiple points of origin along a chromosome. Suppose radioactive adenine is inserted into a cell that is just beginning to replicate. Then the radioactive adenine is quickly replaced with non-radioactive andenine. What would the pattern of radioactivity would be found in the cell’s DNA?

a) There would be many short radioactive sections of DNA in the lagging strands only.
b) There would be many short sections of radioactive DNA.
c) There would be one radioactive section of DNA starting at one particular end of the chromosomes.
d) There would be many short radioactive strands of DNA in the leading strands only.

A

a) There would be many short radioactive sections of DNA in the lagging strands only.

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8
Q

Who used X-ray diffraction to determine the shape of DNA?

a) Watson and Crick
b) Hershey and Chase
c) Pauling and Corey
d) Wilkins and Franklin

A

d) Wilkins and Franklin

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9
Q

The four nucleotides in a DNA molecule differ from one another only in the:

a) kind of purine or pyrimidine bases they contain
b) attachment of the phosphates to the sugars
c) the number of carbon atoms in their sugars
d) positions of the bases in the molecule

A

a) kind of purine or pyrimidine bases they contain

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10
Q

Wilkins and Franklin used X-ray diffraction to determine the structure of DNA.
What did their famous photograph show?
a) chromosomes during anaphase
b) DNA crystals
c) a mirror image produced by a microscope mirror
d) the number of chromosomes in a diploid cell

A

b) DNA crystals

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11
Q

During DNA replication, the function of RNA primers is to:

a) serve as a binding site for DNA ligase
b) serve as starting points for DNA strand elongation by DNA polymerase III in prokaryotes
c) serve as starting points for DNA strand elongation by DNA polymerase I in the 3’ - 5’ direction
d) open replication bubbles

A

b) serve as starting points for DNA strand elongation by DNA polymerase III in prokaryotes

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12
Q

Which statement is true, based on the findings of Erwin Chargaff?

a) The ratio of adenine to thymine in all organisms is constant.
b) The amount of adenine in all organisms is constant.
c) The ratio of adenine to cytosine in all organisms is constant.
d) The ratio of adenine to thymine varies among organisms.

A

a) The ratio of adenine to thymine in all organisms is constant.

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13
Q

In a DNA nucleotide, the number 3 carbon of the deoxyribose sugar bonds with which of the following?

a) a phosphate of another nucleotide
b) a nitrogenous base
c) two OH groups
d) a phosphate of the nucleotide

A

a) a phosphate of another nucleotide

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14
Q

During DNA replication, one of the new strands of DNA is synthesized continuously. The other strand is synthesized as a number of separate fragments of DNA that are subsequently linked by DNA ligase. Why does this occur?

a) RNA primers only anneal to one of the parental strands of DNA.
b) One of the parental strands is unwound slower than the other by helicase.
c) DNA polymerase III only synthesizes DNA in the 3’ - 5’ direction.
d) DNA polymerase III only synthesizes DNA in the 5’ - 3’ direction.

A

d) DNA polymerase III only synthesizes DNA in the 5’ - 3’ direction.

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15
Q

Beadle and Tatum exposed bread mould spores to X-rays, which caused mutations. What did they conclude?

a) Each mutation changed the ability of spores to synthesize a specific nutrient.
b) Mutations had no effect on the ability of spores to synthesize nutrients.
c) Multiple mutations changed the ability of spores to synthesize a specific nutrient.
d) Each mutation changed the ability of spores to synthesize several nutrients.

A

a) Each mutation changed the ability of spores to synthesize a specific nutrient.

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16
Q

Which of the following statement about transcription is accurate?

a) It occurs in the nucleus.
b) It is the process where mRNA base pairs with DNA.
c) It begins at a TATA box.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

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17
Q

Why does the Sanger process of DNA sequencing use dideoxynucleosides?

a) They move slowly during gel electrophoresis.
b) They are radioactive.
c) They are fluoresce.
d) They stop the synthesis of DNA strands.

A

d) They stop the synthesis of DNA strands.

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18
Q

The restriction enzyme AluI leaves blunt ends on DNA fragments after digestion. These blunt ends

a) require a polymerase enzyme to bond them to other blunt ends.
b) are fully base paired.
c) form hydrogen bonds with the blunt ends of other fragments produced by AluI.
d) have only one unpaired base

A

b) are fully base paired.

19
Q

During gel electrophoresis, one well always contains DNA-marker molecules. What is the purpose of these markers?

a) to serve as a channel for ethidium bromide
b) to serve as a channel to the direction of the fragments in the other wells
c) to serve as a guide to the length of the fragments in the other wells
d) to indicate when the electric current is turned on

A

c) to serve as a guide to the length of the fragments in the other wells

20
Q

When comparing the structure of DNA in eukaryotes and prokaryotes, which of the following is true?

a) A nucleosome consists of a group of eight histones and is found in eukaryotes only.
b) Nucleosomes and solenoids are found in eukaryotes only.
c) Plasmids and supercoiling are found in prokaryotes only.
d) all of the above statements are true

A

d) all of the above statements are true

21
Q

When comparing the structure of DNA in eukaryotes and prokaryotes, which of the following is true?

a) eukaryotes contain DNA in a homogolous chromosome pairs and in mitochondria and chloroplasts.
b) prokaryotes contain DNA in supercoiled paired chromosomes and not in plasmids.
c) eukaryotes contain DNA in a single chromosome and in mitochondria and chloroplasts.
d) prokaryotes contain DNA in paired chromosomes and in plasmids.

A

a) eukaryotes contain DNA in a homogolous chromosome pairs and in mitochondria and chloroplasts.

22
Q

Which statement about telomeres is true?

a) They prevent the loss of genes from the ends of chromosomes during replication.
b) They are associated with aging.
c) They are repeating DNA sequences at the ends of chromosomes.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

23
Q

What happens in the presence of high cellular concentrations of tryptophan?

a) the repressor attaches to the DNA but transcription proceeds
b) the repressor binds to tryptophan and then leaves the operator
c) tryptophan binds to the repressor, which then binds to the operator
d) tryptophan binds to the operator and prevents transcription

A

c) tryptophan binds to the repressor, which then binds to the operator

24
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) The DNA in eukaryotes is arranged into chromosomes.
b) The DNA in eukaryotes contains non-coding regions.
c) The spliceosomes are larger in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
d) The mRNA transcript of the DNA of eukaryotes has a 5’ cap.

A

c) The spliceosomes are larger in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

25
Q

The recognition site of the SmaI restriction enzyme is shown below.

SmaI 5’-GGGCCC-3’
3’-CCCGGG-5’

The restriction fragments would…

a) produce blunt ends with A-T base pairs.
b) produce sticky ends with A-T base pairs.
c) produce sticky ends with G-C base pairs.
d) produce blunt ends with G-C base pairs.

A

d) produce blunt ends with G-C base pairs.

26
Q

What is required during the growth of a newly synthesized strand of DNA in the Sanger technique for sequencing DNA?

a) tagged nucleoside monophosphates
b) dideoxynucleoside diphosphates
c) nucleoside triphosphates
d) tagged nucleoside diphosphates

A

b) dideoxynucleoside diphosphates

27
Q

In which order do the DNA polymerase enzymes functions during DNA replication in prokaryotes?

a) DNA polymerase I, then DNA polymerase II and then DNA polymerase III
b) DNA polymerase I, then DNA polymerase III and then DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III, then DNA polymerase II and then DNA polymerase I
d) DNA polymerase III, then DNA polymerase I and then DNA polymerase II

A

d) DNA polymerase III, then DNA polymerase I and then DNA polymerase II

28
Q

Which statement about telomeres is true?

a) They prevent the loss of genes from the ends of chromosomes during replication.
b) They are associated with aging.
c) They are repeating DNA sequences at the ends of chromosomes.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

29
Q

What was Archibald Garrod’s contribution to our understanding of genetics?

a) He investigated the structure of the enzyme which metabolizes alkapton,
b) He studied the disease alkaptonuria and its pattern of inheritance.
c) He investigated gene regulation in the operon producing the enzymes of the alkapton synthesis pathway.
d) He determined the structure of the chemical alkapton.

A

b) He studied the disease alkaptonuria and its pattern of inheritance.

30
Q

A genetic engineer is interested in a particular gene on human chromosome number six. He uses a restriction endonuclease to produce fragments of the chromosome and then clones each fragment in a different culture of bacteria. He now needs to determine which culture contains the fragment with the gene of interest. He has available a single-stranded radioactive DNA probe that is complementary to the template strand of the gene. In which order would he need to perform these steps for each of the bacterial colonies?

  1. Allow annealing between the probe and the DNA form the bacteria to occur.
  2. Flood the culture with the DNA probe.
  3. Separate the strands of double-stranded DNA from the bacteria using heat.
  4. Break open the bacteria.
  5. Prepare an autoradiograph.
  6. Wash away unannealed probes.

a) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2, 6
b) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 6
c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5
d) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4

A

c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5

31
Q

When is a fragment of DNA referred to as recombinant DNA?

a) when it contains DNA sequences from more than one organism
b) when it has been modified by a host cell
c) when it has been amplified using the polymerase chain reaction
d) when it is acted upon by spliceosomes and parts of it are excised

A

a) when it contains DNA sequences from more than one organism

32
Q

Why is heat used during the polymerase chain reaction?

a) to accelerate chemical processes
b) to break covalent bonds
c) to anneal DNA primers to single-stranded DNA
d) to break hydrogen bonds

A

d) to break hydrogen bonds

33
Q

What does the bioengineering technique called transformation entail?

a) the use calcium ions to increase the permeability of cell membranes
b) the use of an ice water bath increase the permeability of cell membranes
c) the introduction of foreign DNA into a cell by a vector
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

34
Q

Which of these correctly describes the order in which cell components function during protein synthesis?

a) RNA polymerase, mRNA, ribosome, tRNA
b) DNA polymerase, mRNA, ribosome, tRNA
c) mRNA, RNA polymerase, ribosome, tRNA
d) RNA polymerase, mRNA, tRNA ribosome

A

a) RNA polymerase, mRNA, ribosome, tRNA

35
Q

Aminoacylation is the process by which:

a) a DNA molecules is bound to its corresponding tRNA molecule
b) a tRNA molecules is bound to its corresponding amino acid
c) an mRNA molecule is bound to its corresponding tRNA
d) an rRNA molecule is bound

A

b) a tRNA molecules is bound to its corresponding amino acid

36
Q

What is a translocation mutation?

A

a change of an entire gene to another chromosome

37
Q

What is an inversion mutation?

A

the reversal of a DNA sequence within a chromosome

38
Q

What are SINEs

A

SINEs (short interspersednuclear elements)

Repetitive DNA sequences of approximately 500 base pairs in size, interspersed through the genome

39
Q

A mutation which results in the changing of all the codons following the error is called a:

a) Frameshift
b) Point
c) Codon
d) Interfection

A

a) Frameshift

40
Q

Alternative Splicing is an example of which type of control:

a) Transcriptional
b) Posttranslational
c) Translational
d) Posttranscriptional

A

d) Posttranscriptional

41
Q

If a codon reads AUU, the tRNA anti-codon will read:

a) TAA
b) UAA
c) UTT
d) GCC

A

b) UAA

42
Q

During PCR, heat (94-96°C) is used to:

a) Break hydrogen bonds
b) Accelerate chemical processes
c) Break covalent bonds
d) Anneal DNA primers to the single-stranded DNA

A

a) Break hydrogen bonds

43
Q

Match the term with their definition:

1) Pseudpgenes
2) VNTRs
3) Transponsons
4) LINEs
5) Telomere

a) region at the end of each chromosome
b) repetative DNA sequences of approximately 6500 base pairsin size, interspersed throughout the genome
c) repetative DNA sequences that vary in length between homologous chromosomes
d) DNA sequences that move around the genome, inserting themselves into different chromosomes
e) DNA sequences that are similar to existing genes, but do not code for the synthesis protein

A

1) Pseudpgenes
e) DNA sequences that are similar to existing genes, but do not code for the synthesis protein

2) VNTRs
c) repetative DNA sequences that vary in length between homologous chromosomes

3) Transponsons
d) DNA sequences that move around the genome, inserting themselves into different chromosomes

4) LINEs
b) repetative DNA sequences of approximately 6500 base pairsin size, interspersed throughout the genome

5) Telomere
a) region at the end of each chromosome

Grade 12 Biology (4 decks)

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