DIT-Things to know 2 Flashcards
MEN1
Parathyroid adenoma Pituitary adenoma Pancreatic tumor - Gastrinoma - Insulinoma (hypoglycemia) - Glucagonoma (hyperglycemia and diabetes) - VIPoma (diarrhea)
MEN2A
Medullary thyroid cancer
Pheochromocytomas
Parathyroid hyperplasia
RET oncogene
MEN2B
Medullary thyroid cancer
Pheochromocytoma
Mucosal neuromas
RET oncogene
What might a lab detect in the urine or plasma of a patient with pheochromocytoma?
Plasma
- Metanephrine
- Normetanephrine
Urine
- Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
Most common tumor the adrenal gland
Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (in adults)
Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (in children)
Medical treatment for pheochromocytoma
Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, hyperparathyroidism
Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, mucosal neuromas
- Benign, non-functioning adrenal adenoma
- Pheochromocytoma
- Neuroblastoma
- Non-selective alpha blocker
- MEN2A
- MEN2B
Which cell wall inhibitor matches each of the following?
- Next step in tx of otitis media if amoxicillin resistant
- Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis
- Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis
- Single-dose treatment for gonorrhea
- Amoxicillin + Clavulonic avid
- Penicillin V, Aminopenicillins, 1st gen cepahlosporins
- Penicillin G
- Ceftriaxone
Equation for confidence interval
CI= mean +- Z (SEM)
Stages of grief
Denial Anger Bargaining Grief Acceptance
In what gestational week does they thyroid begin to develop?
Embryonic origin?
Third week of gestation
Derived from endoderm from the floor of the primitive pharynx
Remnants of thyroid development
Thyroglossal duct
- connection from tongue to thyroid
- infection risk
Foreamen cecum
- more common
- middle of tongue
What is the most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue?
Tongue
Hypothyroidism will cause elevation in what labs?
LDL and Total cholesterol
Formation of thyroid hormone
- Na gradient brings Iodide (I-) into follicle
- Iodide is oxidized by Peroxidase to iodine (I2)
- Organification= Iodine binds to thyroglobulin (Tg)
- Thyroid hormone is formed inside they thyroglobulin by union of tyrosine and iodine
- Coupling or condensation of MIT and DIT –> T3 and T4
What converts T4 –> T3 in periphery
Propylthiouracil
Labs seen in Hypothyroidism
Increased TSH
Decreased T3 T4
Baby with impaired growth
Intellectual disability
Enlarged tongue
Distended abdomen
What could of fixed this
Iodine to mother during development
Hashimoto thyroiditis
- type of rxn
- infiltrate
- genes
- increased risk of
Type IV hypersensitivity
Lymphocytic infiltrate
HLA-DR5 and HLA-B5
Risk: B cell lymphoma of thyroid
Painful Goiter
- infiltration
- triggered by
- Tx
Subacute (granulomatous, de Quervain) thyroiditis
Granulomatous infiltration
Viral infection
- Coxsackievirus
- Echovirus
- Adenovirus
- Measles
- Mumps
NSAIDS
Corticosteroids
Fixed, hard painless goiter
- tissue
- infiltrate
- may see
Riedel’s thyroiditis
Chronic inflammation of thyroid –> replaced by fibrous tissue
Hypothyroid
Euthyroid
Macrophages and eosinophils
Extension of fibrosis into local structures (airway)
Pregnancy affect on serum thyroid hormone levels
Pregnancy = increased estrogen
Estrogen increases thyroid binding globulin (TBG)
Binds up circulating thyroid hormone, thyroid senses T3/T4 dropping so releases more
Total T3/T4 increased
Free T3/T4 normal
Hyperthyroidism vs thyrotoxicosis
Hyperthyroidism: thyroid is making too much thyroid hormone
Thyrotoxicosis: too much thyroid hormone from any reason
- Exogenous hormone
- Thyroid inflammation
Graves disease MOA
- Associated with
- key features
- Tx
Autoimmune
TSI binds to the TSH receptor and stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete T3 and T4
HLA-DR3 and HLA-B8
Exophthalmos
Pretibial myxedema
- Abnormal connective tissue deposit in orbit, extraocular muscle or skin on front of shins
Methimazole (preferred)
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
Beta blocker (tachycardia and anxiety)
Benign tumor that can present with hyperthyroidism
Struma ovarii teratoma
Contains functional thyroid tissue
Most likely diagnosis of patient with hyperthyroidism?
- Extremely tender thyroid gland
- Pretibial myxedema
- Pride in recent weight loss, medical professional
- Palpation of single thyroid nodule
- Palpation of multiple thyroid nodules
- Recent study using IV contrast (iodine)
- Eye changes: proptosis, edema, injection
- History of thyroidectomy or radioablation of thyroid
- Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis
- Graves disease
- Thyroid hormone abuse
- Toxic thyroid adenoma
- Multinodular goiter
- Jed0Basedow phenomen
- Graves disease
- Too much exogenous thyroid hormone
A Tall thin male teenager has abrupt onset of dyspnea and left-sided chest pain. Percussion on the affected side reveals hyper-resonance, and breath sounds are diminished. What is most likely?
Spontaneous pneumothorax
Attributable risk
(A/ A+B) - (C/ C+D)
Ground glass appearance of cytoplasm of thyroid
Papillary thyroid cancer
Orphan annie eyes
Papillary thyroid cancer
Concentric calcification
Psammoma bodies
Papillary thyroid cancer
Mutation of papillary thyroid cancer
RET gene mutation
BRAF
Uniform cuboidal cells lining follicles and invading capsule
- spread
- associated with
Follicular thyroid carcinoma
Hematogenously
RAS mutation
PAX8-PPAR gamma 1 rearrangment
Tumor of thyroid
Increased level of calcitonin
Associated with
Mutation
Medullay thyroid carcinoma
Proliferation of parafollicular C cells
RET gene mutation
MEN 2A and MEN2B
Tumors that activate tyrosine kinase receptor
Follicular thyroid carcinoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Rock hard thyroid with local extensions
Elderly patient
Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
Undifferentiated
Rapidly fatal
What type of cancer in thyroid?
1) Arises from parafollicular C cells
2) RAS mutation or a PAX8-PPARy-1 rearrangment
3) Rearrangement in RET oncogene
4) Mutation in BRAF gene
5) Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei
1) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
2) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
3) Medullary thyroid carcinoma, papillary carcinoma
4) Papillary carcinoma
5) Papillary thyroid cancer
What nerve can be damaged in thyroid surgery
Result?
Recurrent laryngeal n.
Hoarseness
Number needed to harm
1/ AR
AR= (A/A+B) - (C/C+D)
Cell types and secretion in pancreas
Alpha= Glucagon
Beta= Insulin
Delta= somatostatin
Glucagon does what
Stimulates
- Gluconeogenesis
- Glycogenolysis
- Lipolysis (break down of fat adn TG to produce ketones)
- Insulin secretion
GLUT-2
GLUT-4
GLUT-1
GLUT-2 (independent)
- beta cells
- Liver
- Small intestine
- Renal cells
GLUT-4 (Insulin dependent)
- Adipose tissue
- Skeletal muscle
GLUT-1 (independent)
- Brain and RBCs
What glut transport is dependent on insulin
GLUT-4
- Adipose tissue
- Skeletal muscle
Insulin binds to what of fat and muscle cells
Does what
Tyrosine kinase receptor
Causes cell to insert more GLUT-4 transporters into membrane
Type 1 DM
- Ab against
- Association
Islet cell antibody against glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)
HLA-DR3-DQ2
HLA- DR4- DQ8
Hemoglobin A1C
Moiety on hemoglobin molecule as it floats around, glucose sticks to it in an non-enzymatic reaction called glycation
More glucose in blood the more it sticks to hemoglobin
Measure percentage of surface area covered in glucose= A1C
Kimmelstiel wilson nodules
Acellular nodules in glomerulus
Diabetes
Too much glucose causes what complications
Leaky vessels
Retinopathy –> hemorrhage –> blindness
Nephropathy –> progressive proteinuria
Vascular disease –> astherosclerosis
Alcohol sugar
Alcohol form of glucose
Glucose –> (this alcohol sugar)
Sorbitol
Aldose reductase
Sorbital –> Fructose
Sorbitol dehydrogenase
Increased glucose –> sorbitol effect on tissues
Some tissues dont have srbitol dehydrogenase
Trapped in cells
- Schwann cells
- Lens
- retina
- kidney
Causes osmotic pressure that draws in free water causes swelling and damage to cell
Motor neuropathy
Sensory neuropathy
Autonomic neuropathy
How is hemoglobin glycosylated in DM to form HgbA1C
Nonenzymatic glycation
Diabetes with a strong genetic predisposition
Type II DM
Polymyositis vs Polymyalgia rheumatica
Polymyositis
- Muscle weakness
- Elevated Ck and aldolase
- ANA
- Anti-Jo 1
Polymyalgia rheumatica
- Joint pain
- Normal Ck and aldolase
- No muscle pain or weakness
Diabetic ketoacidosis
- values
- complications
Hyperglycemia > 150 Hyperkalemia - Excess H, pull H out of cell in exchange for K - Dump K in urine -Total K low
Arrhythmias
- serum hyperkalemia, total body potassium depletion
V tach
Torsades
Invasive fungal infections
- Mucormycosis (brain abscess)
Extreme hyperglycemia > 800
Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic state
Type II DM
How do acidosis and alkalosis affect extracellular K concentrations?
Acidosis
- Increases extracellular K concentration
- Pushes H into cells
Alkalosis
- Decreases extracellular K concentration
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome
Occlusion of IVC or hepatic veins –> hepatic congestion
Which ECG leads will show evidence of ischemia in an inferior wall MI?
II, III, aVF
What are the findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome
Hemisection of spinal cord
Ipsilateral UMN signs below lesion (lateral corticospinal tract)
Ipsilateral loss of proprioception, vibration sense, and fine touch below lesion
(dorsal columns)
Contralateral loss or pain and temperature sensation 2-3 segments below lesion
(lateral spinothalamic tract)
What produces hromone leptin
Adipocytes
Hypothalamic nuclei that regulate hunger
- Paraventricular nucleus
- Dorsal medial nuclei
- Arcuate nucleus
- Lateral hypothalamus
- Stimulated –> hunger
- Inhibted by leptin
- Lesion –> anorexia - Ventromedial nuclei
- Stimulated by leptin
Lateral likes lunch but lesion (or leptin) lateral you get little
Ventromedial nuclei –> go medially or thinner
Leptin makes you thin
Lipodystrophy
Caused by
Distortions in the structure or function of adipose tissue
Buffalo hump
Leptin deficiency
HIV medication
- Protease inhibitors
5 categories of criteria for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome
Abdominal obesity Elevated triglycerides Low HDL Elevated BP Elevated glucose
Liver disease associated with obesity
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
BMI to be obese
> = 30
Substances known for causing methemoglobinemia
Nitrates
Antimalarial drugs
- Chloroquine
- Primaquine
Dapsone
Local anesthetics
- Lidocaine
Sulfonamides
Metoclopramide
Parathyroid gland cells
Chief cells: PTH
Oxyphil cells
- packed with mitochondria
- appear at pubery
- increase with age
Parathyroid innervation
Cervical sympathetic ganglia
Doesnt directly innervated parathyroid
Controls blood flow to parathyroid gland
PTH on bone cells
Increase bone turn over
Ramps up osteoclasts
Osteoclasts: dont have PTH recpetors
Osteoblasts: have PTH receptor
- make cytokine RANKL –> activates osteoclasts
Subperiosteal bone reabsorption on radial aspect of medial phalanges
Tapering of distal clavicles
Salt and pepper appearance skull
Also see?
Osteitis Fibrosis Cystica
Brown tumors of long bones
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism from renal failure values
Increased BUN and Cr
Increased Phosphate
Values for secondary hyperparathyroidism from Vit D deficiency
Increased PTH
Decrased Ca
Decreased or normal phosphate
Decreased Vit D
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Mutations in gene called GNAS-1
Encodes G protein at PTH receptor in kidney
Increase PTH
Decrease Ca
AD
Albright hereditary osteodystrophy
- Short stature
- Obesity
- Undevelopment of 4th and 5th digits
- Ostitis fibrosa cystica
WAGR complex
Wilms tumor
Aniridia (no iris)
Genitourinary malformation
Retardation (mental and motor)
WT1 deletion
Extrinsic coagulation pathway
Tissue factor pathway
VII
X
Intrinsci coagulation pathway
Contact activation pathway
XII
XI
IX
X
Deficient in factor IX
Hemophilia B
Deficient in Factor VIII
hemophilia A
Accelerating factors for coagulation pathways
Factor V
Factor VIII
What inhibits the accelerating factors for the coagulation pathways
Protein C
Protein S
RL step of coagulation pathway
Factor X
Common Final pathway in coagulation
Factor X –> Xa
Xa + Va activate prothrombin
Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen –> fibrin
Fibrin + XIIIa –> mesh
Warfarin inhibits
Factor II (thrombin) Factor VII (extrinsic) Factor IX (intrinsic) Factor X Protein C Protein S
First seen with starting Warfarin
Inhibit Protein C and Protein S
Transient hyeprcoagulable state
What cleaves Fibrinogen to fibrin
Thrombin (Factor II)
Coagulase from S. Aureus
What is essential for coagulation cascade
Calcium
Factor XI
Kallikrein
Activates plasminogen –> plasmin
Produces Bradykinin
Plasmin
Breaks down fibrin mesh
Prothrombin time (PT)
Add tissue factor and see how long for clot to form
Test
- Tissue factor pathway
- Final common pathway
Factor VII
Factor X
Factor V
Factor II (prothrombin)
Resported with INR
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
25-40 seconds
Taking plasma add material to activate contact activation pathway
Factor XII Factor XI Factor IX Factor VIII Factor X Factor V Factor II (prothrombin)
Hemophilia A and B
- deficiency
- increases
Hemophilia A
- Factor VIII deficiency
Hemophila B
- Factor IX deficiency
Increase PTT
Coagulation disorders vs platelet disorders cause what type of bleeding
Coagulation disorders
- macrohemorrhages
Platelet disorders
- Microhemorrhages
Vit K deficiency
Cofactor for several clotting factors
Factor II, VII, IX, X, C and S
diSCo started in 1972
Increase PT and PTT
Factor V Leiden
Hypercoagulable
Makes factor Va resistant to inactivation by protein C
Stays active longer –> more coagulation
Prothrombin G20210A mutation
Hypercoagulable
Predisposes to thrombosis
Mutation Guanine –> Adenine at 20210
Antithrombin deficiency
- resistant to
Hypercoagulable
Unable to inactivate thrombin
Resistant to heparin
Protein C deficiency
Hypercoagulable
Unable to inactivate factor V and VIII
or deficiency in protein S
Which glomerular disease should be suspected most in patients with each of the following findings?
- IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM; diffuse capillary thickening
- IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hypercellular
- IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition
- EM: subendothelial humps and “tram track” appearance
- Nephritis, deafness, cataracts
- LM: crescent formation in the glomeruli
- LM: segmetnal sclerosis and hyalinosis
- EM spiking on the GBM due to electron-dense subepthelial deposits
- Membranous GN
Diffuse proliferative GN - Acute post-streptococcal GN
- Goodpasture syndrome
- Membranoproliferative GN
- Alport syndrome
- Rapidly progressive GN
- Focal segmental glomerulosclerossi
- Membranous GN
Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
- What happens
- symptoms
- Tx
Platelet drop
Heparin binds platelet factor 4 –> autoantibody-heparin PF4 complex –> activates platelets
Thrombocytopenia
Hypercoagulable state
Stop heparin
Start direct thrombin inhibitor until platelets back up
Start warfarin
What lab test is used to monitor adequate anticoagulation in a patient taking heparin?
PTT
What lab test is used to monitor adequate anticoagulation in a patient taking warfarin
PT (INR)
Which genetic syndrome is caused by?
- Absence of HGPRTase
- Deficiency of aldolase B
- Deficiency of cystathionine synthase
- Galactose-1- phosphate uridyl transferase deficiency –> intellectual disability, hepatosplenomegaly, cataracts
- Deficiency of tyrosinase
- Lesch-Nyhan
- Fructose intolerance
- Homocystinuria
- Galactosemia
- Albinism
What gives RBC their shape
Average life span RBC
Spectrin
120 days
Anisocytosis
Poikilocytosis
Polycythemia
Erythrocytosis
Reticulocytes
Anisocytosis: RBCs of varying sizes
Poikilocytosis: RBCs of varying shapes
Polycythemia: too many RBCs
Erythrocytosis: too many RBCs
Reticulocytes: immature RBCs
Basophilic stippling
Lead poisoning
RBC with uniform spikes all over surface
Burr cell
Echinocyte
Uremia
Renal failure
Pyruvate kinase deficiency
RBC with irregular spikes in size and distribution
Spur cell
Acanthocyte
Abetalipoproteinemia
Spherical RBCs
Spherocytes
Hereditary sphenocytosis
Fragmented RBCs
Schistocytes
DIC
TTP, HUS
RBCs looks like bulls eye
Target cells
“HALT” said the hunter to his target
Hemoglobin C disease
Asplenia
Liver disease
Thalassemia
Cell type seen in abetalipoproteinemia
Spur cell
Acanthocytes
RBC with irregular spikes in size and distribution
Crescent shaped RBC
Sickle cell
Sickle cell anemia
RBC with basophilic remnant of a nucleus (purple spot in RBC)
Howell-Jolly body
Asplenia
RBC with white spot of oxidized hemoglobin
Heinz body
G6PD
RBC with little part taken out of it
Bite cell
Heinz body removed
G6PD
Tear drop RBCs
Myelofibrosis
Pencil or cigar shaped cells
Elliptocytes
Hereditary elliptocytosis
RBC covered in blue dots
Ringed Sideroblast
Granules of iron
Disorders of heme synthesis
Found in bone marrow
Cell type seen with?
- Lead poisoning
- G6PD deficiency
- DIC
4 Abetalipoproteinemia
- Asplenia
- Basophilic stippling
- Heinz body, Bite cells
- Schistocytes
- Spur cells (acantholysis)
- Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells
Types of Hemoglobin
- HbA
- HbA1c
- HbF
- HbS
- HbC
- Hb Bart’s
- HbH
- Normal
(2 alpha 2 beta) - Poorly controlled diabetes
( 2 alpha 2 beta-glucose) - Fetal hemoglobin
( 2 alpha 2 gamma) - Sickle cell hemoglobin
( 2 alpha 2betaS glu –> val) - Hemoglobin C dis
(2 alpha 2 betaC glu –> lys) - Severe alpha thalassemia
(4 gamma) - Severe alpha thalassemia
(4 beta)
RBC production locations
“Young Liver Synthesizes Blood”
Yolk sac
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow
An 18-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe abdominal pain. She says she had a similar attack 1 year earlier after taking some barbiturates.
At that time she underwent an exploratory laparotomy, which revealed nothing. The
patient no longer takes barbiturates but recently
started an extremely low-carbohydrate and low-calorie diet. She has a temperature of
37°C (98.6°F), a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 128/83 mm Hg. Her
WBC count is normal. Laboratory studies reveal a sodium level of 127 mEq/L, and urinalysis
shows increased porphobilinogen levels.
The physician tells the patient that she has a genetic condition involving her RBCs. What
congenital disorder did the physician most likely tell the patient she has?
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Fanconi’s anemia
(C) Hereditary spherocytosis
(D) Porphyria cutanea tarda
(E) Sickle cell disease
A. Acute intermittent porphyria
A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. Laboratory tests show a deficit in uroporphyrinogen synthetase and excess δ-aminolevulinate and porphobilinogen in the urine. Which of the following symptoms would most likely also be present in this patient? (A) Chest pain (B) Hypotension (C) Neuropsychiatric disturbances (D) Polyphagia (E) Stiff neck
C. Neuropsychiatric disturbances
Acute intermittent porphyria
Dark red urine
Psychologic disturbances
Polyneuropathy
Abdominal pain
- deficiency
- drug that precipitated
Treatment
Acute intermittent porphyria
Uroporphyrinogen-1 synthase
(porphobilinogen deaminase)
Precipitated by
- Barbiturates
- Seizure durgs
- rifampin
- metoclopramide
Give Heme and Glucose
- down regulates delta-ALA synthase
A 27-year-old man walks into the emergency
department in an agitated state. He complains
of severe abdominal pain and eventually becomes
combative, requiring five-point restraint.
His vital signs show elevated blood pressure
and tachycardia. When a straight catheter is inserted,
reddish urine enters the Foley bag. The
urine is negative for RBCs, and a toxicity
screen is negative. His doctor suspects a porphyria;
laboratory tests for urine porphobilinogen
are positive. Which of the following enzyme
defi ciencies is responsible for this
patient’s disorder?
(A) Aminolevulinate dehydratase
(B) Aminolevulinate synthase
(C) Ferrochelatase
(D) Heme oxygenase
(E) Porphobilinogen deaminase
(F) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(G) Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase
E. (E) Porphobilinogen deaminase
aka Uroporphyrinogen-1- synthase
Sun sensitivity –> blistering
Tea colored urine
Excess hair growth
Hyperpigmentation
- associated with
- increased lab
- deficiency
Porphyria cutanea tarda
Associated with hepatitis C and alcoholism
Increase LFTs
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
AD
Build up uroporphyrinogen III
Lead poisoning affects
delta-ALA dehydratase
Ferrochelatase
Increased levels of protoporphyrin
A 3-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with irritability, an ataxic gait, and regression
of speech to single words. During the interview, the patient is constantly putting objects
in his mouth. Laboratory values are signifi cant for a hemoglobin level of 8.3 g/dL. Which of
the following etiologies should be suspected in this patient?
(A) Acetaminophen toxicity
(B) Aspirin toxicity
(C) Button battery ingestion
(D) Lead poisoning
(E) Organophosphate absorption
(F) Tricyclic antidepressant overdose
D. Lead poisoning
Abdominal pain Renal failure Mental deterioration Foot/ wrist drop Memory loss
Tx
Lead poisoning
EDTA
Succinmer
Severe poisoning in child
- Dimercaprol + succimer
Tumors that cause erythrocytosis
“Potentially Really High Hematocrit”
Pheochromocytomas
Renal cell carcinoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hemangioblastoma
RL step of Heme synthesis
delta-ALA synthase
Which substance and cofactor are required for generation of GABA
Glutamate
B6
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Iron deficiency anemia
Esophageal webs
Dysphagia
+/- atrophic glossitis
Alpha thalassemia trait/ minor
2 abnormal alpha alleles
2 normal alpha
Hemoglobin H
3 abnormal alpha alleles
Lots of beta
Hemoglobin Bart
4 abnormal alpha
Hydrops fetalis
Death
Chipmunk face
Hair on end appearance on xray of skull
Target cells
Beta thalassemia Major
Increase Hemoglobin F
2 alpha, 2 gamma
Sideroblastic anemia Labs
Treatmetn
Increased serum iron
Increased ferritin
Tx: B6
Test for beta thalassemia minor
Hemoglobin electrophoresis
What is the RL step of beta oxidation of fatty acids
Carnitine acyltransferase I
Cofactors required for function of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
These cofactors are also required for?
Tender Loving Care For Noone
TPP Lipoic acid CoA FAD NAD
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Hypersegmented neutrophils
Glossitis
Increased homocysteine
Normal methylmalonic acid
Folate deficiency
Hypersegmented neutrophila Anemia Glossitis Neurologic deficits Increased homocysteine INcreased MMA
B12 deficiency
Perncious anemia
B12 deficiency
Intrinsic factor def
Anemia
Increased CMV
Hypersegmented neutrophils Orotic acid in urine
-deficiency
Orotic aciduria
Deficiency of UMP synthase
Causes of aplastic anemia
Radiation Benzene Drugs - Chloramphenicol - Cancer drugs Viral infections - ParvoB19 - EBV - HIV Fanconi anemia - inherited defect of DNA repair
Megaloblastic anemia + peripheral neuropathy
B12 deficiency
HIV positive patient with macrocytic anemia
Zidovudine
What disorder is associated with each of the following?
- HTN + hypokalemia + metabolic alkalosis
- Fever + night sweats + WL
- Adrenal hemorrhage due to meningococcemia
- Blue sclerae
- Hyperphagia + hypersexuality + hyperorality + hyperdocility
- Nystagmus + intention tremor + scanning speech
- Lower extremity purpura + arthralgias + renal disease
- hyperaldosteronism
- B symptoms of lymphoma
- Waterhouse frridrichsen syndrome
- Osteogenesis imperfecta
- Kluver-Bucy syndrome
(B/L amygdala) - Charcot triad of MS
- Henoch-Schelein purpura
Cold agglutinins
- what it is
- nearly always
- occur with
Ab against RBC that interact more strongly at low temps
IgM
Occur regularly in infections with EBV or mycoplasma
Warm agglutinins
- what is it
- nearly always
- Seen in
Ab against RBC that react at body temp
IgG
Seen in: - EBV, HIV - Lupus - Malignancies (CLL, non-hodgkin lymphoma) - Congenital immune abnormalities
Direct coombs
Using Ab to detect Ab already bound to RBCs
Indirect coombs
New blood see if Ab bind
Test prior to transfusion and screen for maternal Ab to fetus blood
MCHC
mean corpuscular hemoglobin content
Increased MCHC Increased RDW Splenomegaly Jaundice Pigmented gallstones
(+) osmotic fragility test
(+) Eosin-5- maleimide
Hereditary spheocytosis
Defect of proteins
- Ankyrin, spectrin, Band 3, Protein 4.2
Eosin-5- maleimide
- reduced binding to RBCs indicated band 3 deficiency
Associated with G6PD deficiency
“Spleen purges Nasty Inclusion From Damaged Cells”
Sulfonamides Primiquine Nitrofurantoin Isoniazid Fava Beans Dapsone Chloroquine
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
RBCs missing surface markers
CD55 CD59
Complement attacks and lyses RBCs
Ham’s test
A 45-year-old woman arrives in the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her upper abdomen for the past 4 hours. She had a similar episode in the past, but it went away within an hour. Her history is significant for a recent flu-like infection and a prolonged feeling of fatigue and general exhaustion. Physical examination reveals that her sclerae are icteric, her palate is abnormally pigmented, and her skin has a yellow hue. Ultrasound shows radiopaque gallstones. A Coombs’ test is negative.
A peripheral blood smear shows small RBCs, several of which have no central pallor.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
(A) A mutation in the gene encoding ankyrin
(B) A mutation in the glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
gene
(C) Circulating antibodies targeted against
erythrocytes
(D) Iron deficiency anemia
(E) RBC hemolysis because of a mechanical
heart valve
(A) A mutation in the gene encoding ankyrin
Hereditary spheocytsosi
A 20-year-old African-American man develops
anemia after being treated for a urinary tract infection.
A peripheral blood smear shows RBC
lysis and precipitates of hemoglobin within the
RBCs. Which of the following drug classes
most likely caused his hemolytic anemia?
(A) Aminoglycosides
(B) Fluoroquinolones
(C) Macrolides
(D) Sulfonamides
(E) Tetracyclines
D. Sulfonamides
G6PD deficiency
A 30-year-old, previously healthy man from Lagos,
Nigeria, passes dark brown urine 2 days after starting the
prophylactic antimalarial drug primaquine. On physical examination,
he appears pale and is afebrile. There is no organomegaly.
Laboratory studies show that his serum haptoglobin
level is decreased. Which of the following is the most likely
explanation of these findings?
A Antibody-mediated hemolysis
B Impaired DNA synthesis
C Impaired globin chain synthesis
D Increased susceptibility to complement-induced lysis
E Mechanical fragmentation of RBCs as a result of
vascular narrowing
F Oxidative injury to hemoglobin
G Reduced deformability of RBC membrane
F Oxidative injury to hemoglobin
G6PD deficiency
A 16-year-old boy notes passage of dark urine. He has a
history of multiple bacterial infections and venous thromboses for the past 10 years, including portal vein thrombosis in the previous year. On physical examination, his right leg is swollen and tender. CBC shows hemoglobin, 9.8 g/dL; hematocrit,
29.9%; MCV, 92 μm3; platelet count, 150,000/mm3; and WBC
count, 3800/mm3 with 24% segmented neutrophils, 1% bands, 64% lymphocytes, 10% monocytes, and 1% eosinophils. He has a reticulocytosis, and his serum haptoglobin level is very
low. A mutation affecting which of the following gene products
is most likely to give rise to this clinical condition?
A β-Globin chain
B Factor V
C Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D Phosphatidylinositol glycan A (PIGA)
E Prothrombin G20210A
F Spectrin
D Phosphatidylinositol glycan A (PIGA)
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
PIGA gene mutation
Prevents expression of certain proteins that are required as glycolipid anchor
- A 32-year-old woman from Hanoi, Vietnam, gives birth
at 34 weeks’ gestation to a markedly hydropic stillborn male
infant. Autopsy findings include hepatosplenomegaly and
cardiomegaly, serous effusions in all body cavities, and generalized
hydrops. No congenital anomalies are noted. There
is marked extramedullary hematopoiesis in visceral organs.
Which of the following hemoglobins is most likely predominant
on hemoglobin electrophoresis of the fetal RBCs?
A Hemoglobin A1
B Hemoglobin A2
C Hemoglobin Bart’s
D Hemoglobin E
E Hemoglobin F
F Hemoglobin H
C Hemoglobin Bart’s
alpha-thalassemia major
chr 16
- A 3-year-old boy from Sicily has a poor appetite and
is underweight for his age and height. Physical examination shows hepatosplenomegaly. The hemoglobin concentration is 6 g/dL, and the peripheral blood smear shows severely hypochromic and microcytic RBCs. The total serum iron level is normal, and the reticulocyte count is 10%. A radiograph of the skull shows maxillofacial deformities and expanded marrow spaces. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this child’s illness?
A Imbalance in α-globin and β-globin chain
production
B Increased fragility of erythrocyte membranes
C Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin F
D Relative deficiency of vitamin B12
E Sequestration of iron in reticuloendothelial cells
A Imbalance in α-globin and β-globin chain
production
beta-thalassemia major
bronze diabetes
12 A 17-year-old girl has had a history of fatigue and weakness
for her entire life. She has not undergone puberty. On
physical examination, secondary sex characteristics are not
well developed. She has hepatosplenomegaly. CBC shows hemoglobin
of 9.1 g/dL, hematocrit of 26.7%, MCV of 66 μm3,
platelet count of 89,000/mm3, and WBC count of 3670/mm3.
The appearance of the peripheral blood smear is shown in the
figure. Additional laboratory findings include serum glucose
of 144 mg/dL, TSH of 6.2 mU/mL, and ferritin of 679 ng/mL.
A mutation in a gene encoding for which of the following is
most likely to be present in this girl?
A Ankyrin
B β-Globin
C G6PD
D HFE
E NADPH oxidase
B β-Globin
beta-thalassemia
- intermediate severity
10 A 10-year-old child has experienced multiple episodes
of pneumonia and meningitis with septicemia since infancy.
Causative organisms include Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Haemophilus influenzae. On physical examination, the child
has no organomegaly and no deformities. Laboratory studies
show hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL, hematocrit of 27.8%, platelet
count of 372,000/mm3, and WBC count of 10,300/mm3. A hemoglobin
electrophoresis shows 1% hemoglobin A2, 7% hemoglobin
F, and 92% hemoglobin S. Which of the following is
the most likely cause of the repeated infections in this child?
(RBC white white center) A Absent endothelial cell expression of adhesion molecules B Diminished hepatic synthesis of complement proteins C Impaired neutrophil production D Loss of normal splenic function E Reduced synthesis of immunoglobulins
D Loss of normal splenic function
Sickle cell anemia
13 A 12-year-old boy has a history of episodes of severe abdominal,
chest, and back pain since early childhood. On physical
examination, he is afebrile, and there is no organomegaly.
Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL, platelet
count of 194,000/mm3, and WBC count of 9020/mm3. The peripheral
blood smear shows occasional sickled cells, nucleated
RBCs, and Howell-Jolly bodies. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
shows 1% hemoglobin A2, 6% hemoglobin F, and 93% hemoglobin
S. Hydroxyurea therapy is found to be beneficial in
this patient. An increase in which of the following is the most
likely basis for its therapeutic efficacy?
A Erythrocyte production B Overall globin chain synthesis C Oxygen affinity of hemoglobin D Production of hemoglobin A E Production of hemoglobin F
E Production of hemoglobin F
Sickle cell anemia
19 34-year-old woman reports becoming increasingly tired
for the past 5 months. On physical examination, she is afebrile
and has mild splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin
concentration of 10.7 g/dL and hematocrit of 32.3%. The
peripheral blood smear shows spherocytes and rare nucleated
RBCs. Direct and indirect Coombs test results are positive at
37° C, although not at 4° C. Which of the following underlying
diseases is most likely to be diagnosed in this patient?
A Escherichia coli septicemia
B Hereditary spherocytosis
C Infectious mononucleosis
D Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
E Systemic lupus erythematosus
E Systemic lupus erythematosus
Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia secondary to SLE
20 A 22-year-old woman has experienced malaise and a
sore throat for 2 weeks. Her fingers turn white on exposure
to cold. On physical examination, she has a temperature of
37.8° C, and the pharynx is erythematous. Laboratory findings
include a positive monospot (heterophile antibody) test
result. Direct and indirect Coombs test results are positive at
4° C, although not at 37° C. Which of the following molecules
bound on the surfaces of the RBCs most likely accounts for
these findings?
A α2-Macroglobulin
B Complement C3b
C Fibronectin
D Histamine
E IgE
B Complement C3b
Cold agglutinin disease
38 A 28-year-old, previously healthy man has noted
increasing fatigue for the past 6 months and formation of bruises
after minimal trauma. Over the past 2 days, he has developed
a cough. On physical examination, his temperature is 38.9° C,
and he has diffuse rales in both lungs. He has no hepatosplenomegaly
and no lymphadenopathy. Laboratory findings include
a sputum culture positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae,
hemoglobin of 7.2 g/dL, hematocrit of 21.7%, platelet count of 23,400/mm3, WBC count of 1310/mm3, prothrombin time of 13 seconds, partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds, and total bilirubin of 1 mg/dL. The ANA test result is negative. What is the most likely explanation of these findings?
A Hematopoietic stem cell defect
B Hemolysis of antibody-coated cells
C Increased susceptibility to lysis by complement
D Metastatic adenocarcinoma to bone marrow
E Secondary hypersplenism
A Hematopoietic stem cell defect
Aplastic anemia
47 A 37-year-old woman has noted an excessively heavy
menstrual flow each of the past 6 months. She also has noticed
increasing numbers of pinpoint hemorrhages on her lower extremities
in the past month. Physical examination shows no organomegaly
or lymphadenopathy. CBC shows hemoglobin of
14.2 g/dL, hematocrit of 42.5%, MCV of 91 μm3, platelet count
of 15,000/mm3, and WBC count of 6950/mm3. On admission
to the hospital, she has melena and after a transfusion of platelets,
her platelet count does not increase. Which of the following
describes the most likely basis for her bleeding tendency?
A Abnormal production of platelets by
megakaryocytes
B Defective platelet-endothelial interactions
C Destruction of antibody-coated platelets by the spleen
D Excessive loss of platelets in menstrual blood
E Suppression of pluripotent stem cell division
C Destruction of antibody-coated platelets by the spleen
Bleeding due to low platelet count
Idiopathic chronic immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)
48 A 9-year-old boy has developed prominent bruises on
his extremities over the past week. On physical examination,
he has ecchymoses and petechiae on his arms and legs.
Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 13.8 g/dL; hematocrit,
41.9%; MCV, 93 μm3; platelet count, 11,300/mm3; and WBC
count, 7720/mm3. He had respiratory syncytial virus pneumonia
3 weeks ago. His condition improves with corticosteroid
therapy. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to
cause his hemorrhagic diathesis?
A Antiplatelet antibodies
B Bone marrow aplasia
C Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa dysfunction
D Vitamin C deficiency
E Von Willebrand factor metalloproteinase deficiency
A Antiplatelet antibodies
Acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and chronic ITP
49 A 21-year-old woman known to have a protein C deficiency
develops recurrent pulmonary thromboembolism and
is placed on anticoagulant therapy. Two weeks after initiation
of this therapy, she has a sudden change in mental status and
experiences difficulty speaking and swallowing. A cerebral
angiogram shows a left middle cerebral artery occlusion. Laboratory
studies show hemoglobin of 13 g/dL, platelet count of
65,400/mm3, WBC count of 5924/mm3, prothrombin time of
12 seconds, and partial thromboplastin time of 51 seconds. The
anticoagulant therapy is discontinued. Which of the following
pharmacologic agents used as an anticoagulant in this patient
is most likely to have caused these findings?
A Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
B Heparin
C Tissue plasminogen activator
D Urokinase
E Warfarin
B Heparin
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
45 A 23-year-old woman in her 25th week of pregnancy has
felt no fetal movement for the past 3 days. Three weeks later,
she still has not given birth and suddenly develops dyspnea
with cyanosis. On physical examination, her temperature is 37°
C, pulse is 106/min, respirations are 23/min, and blood pressure
is 80/40 mm Hg. She has large ecchymoses over the skin
of her entire body. A stool sample is positive for occult blood.
Laboratory studies show an elevated prothrombin time and
partial thromboplastin time. The platelet count is decreased,
plasma fibrinogen is markedly decreased, and fibrin split products
are detected. A blood culture is negative. Which of the following
is the most likely cause of her bleeding diathesis?
A Consumption of coagulation factors
B Defects in platelet aggregation
C Increased vascular fragility
D Reduced production of platelets
E Toxic injury to the endothelium
A Consumption of coagulation factors
Thrombocytopenia
Increased PT and PTT
Fibrin split products
Low fibrinogen
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
50 A 56-year-old woman suffers the sudden onset of headache
and photophobia, and her condition worsens for the next 2
days. On physical examination, she has a temperature of 38° C
and is disoriented. CBC shows hemoglobin of 11.2 g/dL, hematocrit
of 33.7%, MCV of 94 μm3, platelet count of 32,000/
mm3, and WBC count of 9900/mm3. The peripheral blood
smear shows schistocytes. The serum urea nitrogen level is 38
mg/dL, and the creatinine level is 3.9 mg/dL. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B β-Thalassemia major
C Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
E Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
F Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
F Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
TTP
54 A clinical study is performed involving adult patients
diagnosed with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. A subgroup
of patients who had fever or diarrhea preceding the
initial diagnosis of anemia were excluded. The patients had
schistocytes present on peripheral blood smears. Some of these
patients were found to have a deficiency of a metalloproteinase
known as ADAMTS13. Which of the following conditions
were the patients with this deficiency most likely to have?
A Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)
C Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
D Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
E Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
E Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
55 A 45-year-old woman has had episodes of blurred vision
and headaches for the past 6 months. She has had worsening
confusion with paresthesias over the past 3 days. On
physical examination, she has a temperature of 39.6° C, pulse
of 100/min, respiratory rate of 20/min, and blood pressure
of 80/50 mm Hg. Petechial hemorrhages are noted over her
trunk and extremities. Laboratory findings include hemoglobin,
10.9 g/dL; hematocrit, 34%; MCV, 96 μm3; platelet count,
28,000/mm3; and WBC count, 8500/mm3. Fragmented RBCs
are noted on her peripheral blood smear. Blood urea nitrogen
is 40 mg/dL, and serum creatinine is 3.1 mg/dL. Which of the
following is the most likely underlying cause for her findings?
A Circulating toxin that injures capillary endothelium
B Decreased factor VIII activity
C Defective ADP-induced platelet aggregation
D Formation of autoantibodies to platelet glycoproteins
IIb/IIIa and Ib-IX
E Inappropriate release of thromboplastic substances
into blood
F Presence of antibodies against ADAMTS13
metalloproteinase
F Presence of antibodies against ADAMTS13
Neurlogic abnromalities Fever Thrombocytopenia microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Renal failure
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
deficiency of von Willebrand factor (vWF) metalloproteinase (ADMTS13)
52A 23-year-old woman has a history of easy bruising.
Physical examination shows multiple bruises ranging in color
from red to blue to purple on her arms and legs. There is no organomegaly,
and no deformities are noted. Laboratory studies
show hemoglobin, 9.5 g/dL; hematocrit, 28.2%; platelet count,
229,300/mm3; WBC count, 7185/mm3; prothrombin time, 12
seconds; and partial thromboplastin time, 38 seconds. A 1:1
dilution of the patient’s plasma with normal pooled plasma
corrects the partial thromboplastin time. Ristocetin-dependent
platelet aggregation in patient plasma is markedly reduced.
Factor VIII activity is 30% (reference range 50% to 150%).
Which of the following is the most likely potential consequence
of this disease?
A Bone marrow failure from aplasia
B Excessive bleeding after oral surgery
C Increasing difficulty with joint mobility
D Myeloproliferative disorder
E Recurrent deep venous thrombosis
B Excessive bleeding after oral surgery
Normal platelet count
Prolonged bleeding time
Von Willebrand disease
58 A 15-year-old girl has a history of easy bruising and
hemorrhages. Since menarche at the age of 13 years, she has had menometrorrhagia. On physical examination, she displays joint deformity and has decreased mobility of the ankles, knees, and wrists. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 11.8 g/dL; hematocrit, 35.1%; platelet count, 267,000/mm3;
WBC count, 5960/mm3; prothrombin time, 13 seconds; and
partial thromboplastin time, 60 seconds. A 1:1 dilution of the patient’s plasma with normal pooled plasma corrects the partial thromboplastin time. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A Antiphospholipid syndrome
B Hemophilia B
C Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
D Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
E Von Willebrand disease
B Hemophilia B
PTT corrected by nromal pooled plasma
Factor IX deficiency
56 A 12-year-old boy has had worsening problems with joint
mobility involving his arms and legs, particularly his knees and
ankles, for the past 6 years. He has been receiving therapy for
this condition. His grandfather had a similar condition and died
at age 25 years. On physical examination, he has no visible petechiae
or areas of purpura. Laboratory studies show that prothrombin
time is 12 seconds, and partial thromboplastin time
is 52 seconds. After addition of an equivalent aliquot of normal
plasma, the partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds. Hemoglobin
is 12.9 g/dL, platelet count is 238,500/mm3, and WBC
count is 6620/mm3. His platelet function studies are normal.
What is the most likely inheritance pattern for his condition?
A Autosomal dominant
B Autosomal recessive
C Confined placental mosaicism
D Germline mutation
E X-linked recessive
E X-linked recessive
Hemophilia A
monitored with Factor VIII
59 A 16-year-old girl has had frequent nosebleeds since
childhood. Her gums bleed easily, even with routine tooth
brushing. She has experienced menorrhagia since menarche
at age 13 years. On physical examination, there are no abnormal
findings. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin,
14.1 g/dL; hematocrit, 42.5%; MCV, 90 μm3; platelet count,
277,400/mm3; and WBC count, 5920/mm3. Her platelets fail
to aggregate in response to ADP, collagen, epinephrine, and
thrombin. The ristocetin agglutination test result is normal.
There is a deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. Prothrombin time is 12 seconds, and partial thromboplastin time is 28 seconds.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
D Vitamin C deficiency
E Von Willebrand disease
B Glanzmann thrombasthenia
AR
An 8-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician
after his parents noticed very dark urine in the
toilet earlier that morning. Initial laboratory
studies show intravascular hemolysis; further
testing shows that his RBCs are susceptible to
complement-mediated lysis. This patient most
likely has which of the following conditions?
(A) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
(B) Common bile duct stricture
(C) Hereditary spherocytosis
(D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
(E) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
(D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
- Low-molecular-weight heparins (LMWH) are
distinct from unfractionated heparin in several
ways. Which of the following is the primary
target of LMWH?
(A) Antithrombin III
(B) Factor IIa
(C) Factor VII
(D) Factor Xa
(E) Factors II, IX, and X
(D) Factor Xa
LMWH act on Xa
- A 7-year-old African-American boy is brought
to see his pediatrician. His father says he has
noticed that the boy has been complaining of
right knee pain for the past week. On physical
exam, multiple ecchymoses are noted on both
upper and lower extremities. His father claims
that the boy has always bruised easily, and he
has recently learned how to ride a bicycle.
Which of the following elements of the coagulation
cascade is most likely to be missing in
this child?
(A) Antithrombin III
(B) Factor VII
(C) Factor VIII
(D) Factor IX
(E) Protein C
(C) Factor VIII
Hemophilia A
X linked
- A 16-year-old boy is brought to the emergency
department because of the acute onset of fever,
chills, and a productive cough. X-ray of the
chest shows an infi ltrate restricted to the left
lower lobe. Samples taken of the sputum show
α-hemolytic gram-positive cocci in pairs. The
patient says that he has had similar infections
over the past year. A peripheral blood smear is
done, and results show several sickle-shaped
RBCs. Which of the following explains why
this patient is susceptible to this particular type
of infection?
(A) Bone marrow infi ltration resulting in neutropenia
and compromised immune function
(B) Large vessel occlusions in the cerebral vasculature
resulting in neurologic events and
aspiration pneumonia
(C) Microvascular infarcts resulting in pulmonary
failure
(D) Microvascular infarcts resulting in splenic
dysfunction
(E) Vaso-occlusion in the renal medulla
(D) Microvascular infarcts resulting in splenic
dysfunction
Sickle cell disease
14.A child is brought to the pediatrician because
her parents are concerned about lead poisoning
since their house is known to contain leadbased
paint. A complete blood cell count reveals
anemia. Lead poisoning causes anemia
because it does which of the following?
(A) Disrupts heme synthesis by causing decreased
iron absorption from the gut
(B) Disrupts heme synthesis by increasing the
activity of aminolevulinate dehydratase
(C) Disrupts heme synthesis by inhibiting ferrochelatase
(D) Disrupts hemoglobin function by binding
to hemoglobin with high affi nity, preventing
oxygen binding
(E) Disrupts RBC DNA synthesis, causing
megaloblastic changes in RBCs
(C) Disrupts heme synthesis by inhibiting ferrochelatase
Lead inhibits (ALA) dehydratase Ferrochelatase
27 A 3-year-old girl was in her usual state of good
health 1 month ago when she developed an
acute viral upper respiratory infection. She
now presents to the emergency department
with nonblanching purple skin lesions. The
rest of her physical examination is unremarkable.
The complete blood count demonstrates
a low platelet count, while the peripheral
blood smear is notable only for large platelets.
Which of the following laboratory fi ndings
would most likely be present in this patient?
(A) Antiplatelet antibodies
(B) Decreased megakaryocytes on bone marrow
biopsy
(C) IgA defi ciency
(D) Increased fi brin split products
(E) Vitamin K defi ciency
(A) Antiplatelet antibodies
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
36 Hydrops fetalis occurs in the setting of a certain
type of thalassemia. What is the underlying
mechanism leading to this event?
(A) Excess α-globin chains binding tighter to
oxygen
(B) Excess α-globin chains binding weaker to
oxygen
(C) Excess β-globin chains binding tighter to
oxygen
(D) Excess β-globin chains binding weaker to
oxygen
(E) Excess gamma-globin chains binding
tighter to oxygen
(F) Excess gamma-globin chains binding
weaker to oxygen
(E) Excess gamma-globin chains binding
tighter to oxygen
alpha thalassemia
40 A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician
concerned about an excessive amount of bleeding
from her gums when she brushes her teeth.
Her laboratory results show an increased partial
thromboplastin time and an increased bleeding
time, but are otherwise unremarkable.
Which of the following treatments will most
likely alleviate this patient’s symptoms?
(A) Cryoprecipitate
(B) Factor VIII concentrate
(C) Fresh frozen plasma
(D) Low-molecular-weight heparin
(E) Protamine sulfate
(A) Cryoprecipitate
Von Willebrand disease
42 A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic
complaining of frequent bleeding while brushing
her teeth and easy bruising. She reports
she recently had pneumonia and was treated
with a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Laboratory
tests show:
Prothrombin time: 18 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time: 37 seconds
Platelet count: 231,000/mm³
Hematocrit: 37%
WBC count: 4800/mm³
The cofactor that is defi cient in this patient is
needed for the carboxylation of glutamate residues
of which of the following?
(A) Factors II, VII, VIII, and X
(B) Factors VII, VIII, IX, and XII
(C) Proteins C and S and factors IX, X, XI, and
XII
(D) Proteins C and S and factors XII, IX, and X
(E) Proteins C and S, prothrombin, and factors
VII, IX, and X
(E) Proteins C and S, prothrombin, and factors
VII, IX, and X
Prolong pT
Deficiency of factor in extrinsic pathways
- A 20-year-old African-American man develops
anemia after being treated for a urinary tract infection.
A peripheral blood smear shows RBC
lysis and precipitates of hemoglobin within the
RBCs. Which of the following drug classes
most likely caused his hemolytic anemia?
(A) Aminoglycosides
(B) Fluoroquinolones
(C) Macrolides
(D) Sulfonamides
(E) Tetracyclines
(D) Sulfonamides
G6PD deficiency
44 Several drugs are used to prevent myocardial
infarction in patients with acute coronary syndrome.
One class of drugs binds to the glycoprotein
receptor IIb/IIIa on activated platelets,
thereby interfering with platelet aggregation.
This prevents renewed formation of clots that
could block the lumen of the cardiac vessels.
Which of the following is an example of this
class of drug?
(A) Abciximab
(B) Clopidogrel
(C) Leuprolide
(D) Selegiline
(E) Ticlopidine
(A) Abciximab
47 A 70-year-old man comes to his physician for a
routine physical examination. Although he is
asymptomatic, a blood test shows an abnormal
level of immunoglobulin. After further testing,
he is diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy
of undetermined signifi cance. Which of the following is the current treatment for monoclonal
gammopathy of undetermined signifi -
cance?
(A) Alendronate
(B) Anticoagulation
(C) High-dose steroids
(D) No treatment
(E) Vinca alkaloids
(D) No treatment
Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significant (MGUS)
48 An 8-year-old boy has a chronic history of severe
hemolytic anemia, hepatosplenomegaly,
and maxillary overgrowth. He has received
blood transfusions since early infancy but has
not received a transfusion in over 4 months. A
hemoglobin electrophoresis shows marked elevation
of HbF, increased HbA2, and absence of
HbA1. Which of the following diagnoses is
most consistent with this patient’s electrophoresis?
(A) α-Thalassemia minor
(B) β-Thalassemia major
(C) β-Thalassemia minor
(D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase defi -
ciency
(E) HbH disease
(F) RBCs containing hemoglobin Barts
(B) β-Thalassemia major
Thalassemias
Sickle cell disease
- mutation
- xray
- tx
HbS mutation
Point mutation on beta globulin
Glu –> Val
Hair on end appearance on Xray skull
– bone marrow hyperplasia
Hydroxyurea
-increases production of HbF
Order of bands on electrophoresis
Left to right C S F A
Ham’s test
Osmotic fragility test
Paroxysmal nocturnla hemoglobinuria
Hereditary spherocytosis
Women develops muscle cramps and darkening of urine after exercising. Diagnosis?
McArdle disease
Von Willebrand factor (vWF)
- fxn
- works with
- defieicny
Complexes with and stabilizes factor VIII
Platelet adhesion to vessel wall and other platelets
Deficiency increase PTT
Increase bleeding time
Life span platelets
8-10 days
Platelet Adhesion steps
Endothelial damage
Exposure underlying collagen
Damaged cells release contents
vWF binds exposed collagen and bind glycoprotein receptor GpIb on surface of platelet
Platelet Activation
Platelet Aggregation
Activation
- platelets grow pseudopods help bind in injury site
- secrete substances
Aggregation
- Activated platelet secretes ADP (adenosine diphosphate)
- ADP binds to receptor on surface of platelet
- Triggers expression of glycoprotein IIB/IIIA to come to surface of platelet
- binds fibrinogen, forms series of crosslinks between platelets
Branching rods on oral infection
Actinomyces israelii
Eczema
Recurrent infections
Thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
Hemosiderinuria
Thrombosis
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Deficiency of metalloprotease ADAMTS13
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Deficiency of metalloprotease ADAMTS13
ADAMTS13 cleaves vWF into active units
Unregulated platelet aggregation –> thrombosis
Consumption of paltelets –> thrombocytopenia
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Platelet disorder presentation
Bleeding from mucous membranes
Epistaxis (nose bleeds)
Petechiae
Purpura
Increased bleeding time
Normal PT and PTT
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)
- labs
- tx
Autoantibodies bind glycoprotein IIb/IIIa on surface platelets
Decreased platelets
Increased megakaryocytes
(trying to make more platelets)
Steroids
IVIG
Splenectomy
Thrombotic thromocytopenic purpura symptoms
"HUNT For The TPP" Hemolysis Uremia Neurological symptoms Thrombocytopenia Fever TTP
Hemolytic uremic syndrome associated with
features
E.coli 0157:H7
Children
Hemolysis
Renal insufficiency
Thromobytopenia
Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Defect of glycoprotein Ib
Platelet unable to bind collagen
Moderate thrombocytopenia
Platelet number only slightly low
Increased bleeding time
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
Defect in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
Abnormal platelet aggregation
Normal platelet count
Increased bleeding time
Increased PTT
Increased bleeding time
Von Willebrand disease
Ristocetin cofactor assay
Causes platelets to agglutinate if vWF is present
Von Willebrand disease
tx
DDAVP
- desmopressin (ADH analog)
ADH increase release of vWF from storage sites in endothelial cells
Decreased platelets Increased bleeding time Increased PT and PTT Decreased fibrinogen Increase fibrin split products (d-dimer)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Which matches?
- Anti-gp IIb/IIIa antibodies
- ADAMTS-13 deficiency
- gp Ib defect
- gp IIb/ IIIa defect
- Von Willebrand factor defect
- Widespread activation of platelets and coagulation cascade
- ITP
- TTP-HUS
- Bernard-Soulier syndrome
- Glanzmann thromasthenia
- von Willebrand disease
- DIC
Antiplatelet antibodies
Immune thrombocytopenia
Large cells with bi-lobed nucleus
Prominent nucleoli with clearing around nucleoi
Clearing around cell
Reed Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma
48 A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a fever of 38.3º C (101º F), night sweats, and fatigue. The patient says that she has lost about 6.7 kg (15 lb) over the past year. A CT scan demonstrates mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Biopsy of the nodes shows a small number of large cells with “owl-eye” nucleoli, multiple nuclei, and an abundance of pale cytoplasm on a background of many reactive lymphocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes. Which of the following drugs could be used to treat this condition? (A) Azathioprine (B) Cisplatin (C) Doxorubicin (D) Paclitaxel (E) β-Interferon
C. Doxorubicin
Hodgkin lymphoma
- A 34-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with night sweats, a fever of 38º C (100.2º F), and weight loss of 5 kg (12 lb) over the last 3 months. A CT scan demonstrates mediastinal
lymphadenopathy, and results of a biopsy
of the node are shown in the image.
Which of the following drugs is part of the
multidrug regimen that would be used to manage this patient’s disease?
(A) Cyclosporine (B) Hydroxyurea (C) Imatinib (D) Isoniazid (E) Vinblastine
E.(E) Vinblastine
ABVD Adriamycin Bleomycin Vinblastine Decarbazine
Hodgkin lymphoma in younger male
Lymphocyte-prdominant type
Few reed sterberg to lymphocytes
Bands of collagen, sclerosis and fibrosis
Women
Nodular sclerosing
Hodgkin lymphoma
t(14;18)
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
-Elderly
Follicular lymphoma
t (8;14)
Burkitt lymphoma
c-MYC
Starry sky appearance
Type of burkitt lymphoma
Endemic
- Africa
- involves mandible
Sporadic
- pelvis or abdomen
Immunodeficiency assoc
- HIV
t(11;14)
Mantle cell lymphoma
Disruption of regulation of cyclin D
Non-hodgkin lymphoma associated with sjogren, hashimoto and h. pylori
Marginal cell MALToma
Most common lymphoma in U.S
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Owl eye nuclei
Reed-sternberg cels
Hodgkin lymphoma
Lymphoma associated with EBV
Burkitt lymphoma
Hodgkin lymphoma
Over 20% blasts in bone marrow
AML or ALL
Child Bone pain terminal deoxynucleotidy transferase (TdT) 20% blasts t(9;22)
ALL
Auer rods
20% blasts
Adult
AML
Elderly adult
CD19 CD 20
Smudge cells
CLL
t(9;22) Fatigue Abdominal pain Splenomegaly Middle aged
CML
t(9;22)
- is what
- creates
- associated with
- tx
Philadelpha chromosome
Mutation bcr-abl
Oncogene
Activated tyrosine kinase always on
CML: always present
ALL: Sometimes present
AML: rarely present
Tx: imatinib
- inhibits bcr-abl tyrosine kinase
t(15;17)
tx
M3 AML
Treat w/ all-trans retinoic acid
Acute luekemia positive for peroxidase
AML
Bence Jones proteins
Multiple myeloma
Rouleaux formation
RBC stacked like coins
MM
33 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency
department with a temperature of 38.7º
C (101.7º F), petechiae covering her abdomen,
and mental status changes. On questioning,
her husband states that “she had been fi ne
3 weeks ago but got sick real fast.” Physical examination
shows severe weakness, petechiae
and ecchymoses on the abdomen and back,
and pale conjunctiva. A laboratory study shows
severe anemia and thrombocytopenia with leukocytosis.
The peripheral blood smear demonstrates
the presence of abundant myeloblasts.
Which of the following chromosomal translocations
is most likely involved in this disorder?
(A) t(8:14) c-myc activation
(B) t(9:22), bcr-abl
(C) t(11:14), BCL1/PRAD1
(D) t(11:22), EWS gene
(E) t(15:17), PML-RAR-α
(E) t(15:17), PML-RAR-α
AML
15 A 70-year-old man has experienced increasing fatigue
for the past 6 months. On physical examination, he has nontender
axillary and cervical lymphadenopathy, but there is no
hepatosplenomegaly. The CBC shows hemoglobin, 9.5 g/dL;
hematocrit, 28%; MCV, 90 μm3; platelet count, 120,000/mm3;
and WBC count, 42,000/mm3. His peripheral blood smear
shows a monotonous population of small, round, maturelooking
lymphocytes. Flow cytometry shows these cells to
be CD19+, CD5+, and deoxynucleoti dyl transferase negative
(TdT−). Cytogenetic and molecular analysis of the abnormal
cells in his blood are most likely to reveal which of the following
alterations?
A Clonal rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes
B Clonal rearrangement of T-cell receptor genes
C t(8;14) leading to c-MYC overexpression
D t(9;22) leading to BCR-ABL rearrangement
E t(14;18) leading to BCL2 overexpression
A Clonal rearrangement of immunoglobulin genes
CLL
17 A 4-year-old boy has appeared listless during the
past week. He exhibits irritability when his arms or legs are
touched. In the past 2 days, large ecchymoses have appeared
on the right thigh and left shoulder. CBC shows hemoglobin,
9.3 g/dL; hematocrit, 28.7%; MCV, 96 μm3; platelet count,
45,000/mm3; and WBC count, 13,990/mm3. Examination of
the peripheral blood smear shows blasts that lack peroxidasepositive
granules, but contain PAS-positive aggregates and
stain positively for deoxynucleoti dyl transferase negative
(TdT−). Flow cytometry shows the phenotype of blasts to be
CD19+, CD3−, and sIg−. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B Acute myelogenous leukemia
C Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
A Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
ALL
8 A 36-year-old woman has a cough and fever for 1 week.
On physical examination, her temperature is 38.3° C. She has
diffuse crackles in all lung fields. A chest radiograph shows
bilateral extensive infiltrates. CBC shows hemoglobin, 13.9 g/
dL; hematocrit, 42%; MCV, 89 μm3; platelet count, 210,000/
mm3; and WBC count, 56,000/mm3 with 63% segmented neutrophils,
16% bands, 7% metamyelocytes, 3% myelocytes, 1%
blasts, 8% lymphocytes, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow
biopsy is obtained and shows normal maturation of myeloid
cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B Hairy cell leukemia
C Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion type
D Leukemoid reaction
E Myelodysplastic syndrome
D Leukemoid reaction
CML
14 A 14-year-old boy complains of discomfort in his chest
that has worsened over the past 5 days. On physical examination,
he has generalized lymphadenopathy. A chest radiograph
shows clear lung fields, but there is widening of the mediastinum.
A chest CT scan shows a 10-cm mass in the anterior
mediastinum. A biopsy specimen of the mass is obtained and
microscopically shows effacement by lymphoid cells with
lobulated nuclei having delicate, finely stippled, nuclear chromatin.
There is scant cytoplasm, and many mitotic figures are
seen. The cells express deoxynucleoti dyl transferase negative
(TdT−), CD2, and CD7 antigens. Molecular analysis reveals a
point mutation in the NOTCH1 gene. The oncologist tells the
parents that chemotherapy can be curative in vast majority of
such cases. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Burkitt lymphoma
B Follicular lymphoma C Hodgkin lymphoma, nodular sclerosing type
D Lymphoblastic lymphoma
E Mantle cell lymphoma
F Small lymphocytic lymphoma
D Lymphoblastic lymphoma
ALL
18 A 7-year-old boy has complained of a severe headache
for the past week. On physical examination, there is tenderness
on palpation of long bones, hepatosplenomegaly, and
generalized lymphadenopathy. Petechial hemorrhages are
present on the skin. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin,
8.8 g/dL; hematocrit, 26.5%; platelet count, 34,700/mm3; and
WBC count, 14,800/mm3. A bone marrow biopsy specimen
shows 100% cellularity, with almost complete replacement
by a population of large cells with scant cytoplasm lacking
granules, delicate nuclear chromatin, and rare nucleoli. His
oncologist is confident that chemotherapy will induce a complete
remission. Which of the following combinations of phenotypic
and karyotypic markers is most likely to be present in
marrow cells from this boy?
A Early pre-B CD19+ hyperdiploidy
B Early pre-B CD20+ t(9;22)
C Pre-B CD5+ normal karyotype
D Pre-B CD23+ 11q deletion
E T cell CD2+ numerous blasts
F T cell CD3+ MLL gene translocation
A Early pre-B CD19+ hyperdiploidy
ALL
20 The figure skater Sonja Henie, who won gold medals
at the 1928, 1932, and 1936 Winter Olympic Games, became
progressively fatigued in her late 50s. On physical examination,
she had palpable nontender axillary and inguinal lymph
nodes, and the spleen tip was palpable. Laboratory studies
showed hemoglobin, 10.1 g/dL; hematocrit, 30.5%; MCV, 90
μm3; platelet count, 89,000/mm3; and WBC count, 31,300/
mm3. From the peripheral blood smear shown in the figure,
which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C Infectious mononucleosis
D Iron deficiency anemia
E Leukemoid reaction
B Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
CLL
24 A 62-year-old man has experienced vague abdominal
discomfort accompanied by bloating and diarrhea for the past
6 months. On physical examination, there is a midabdominal
firm mass. The stool is positive for occult blood. An abdominal
CT scan shows an 11 × 4 cm mass involving the wall of the
distal ileum and adjacent mesentery. A laparotomy is performed,
and the mass is removed. Microscopically, the mass is
composed of sheets of large lymphoid cells with large nuclei,
prominent nucleoli, and frequent mitotic figures. The neoplastic
cells mark with CD19+ and CD20+ and have the BCL6 gene
rearrangement. Which of the following prognostic features is
most applicable to this case?
A Aggressive, can be cured by chemotherapy
B Aggressive, often spreads to liver, spleen, and marrow
C Aggressive, often transforms to acute leukemia
D Indolent, can be cured by chemotherapy
E Indolent, often undergoes spontaneous remission
F Indolent, survival of 7 to 9 years without treatment
A Aggressive, can be cured by chemotherapy
Diffuse large cell lymphoma of B cells
22 A 12-year-old boy has had increasing abdominal distention
and pain for the past 3 days. Physical examination of his
abdomen shows lower abdominal tenderness with tympany
and reduced bowel sounds. An abdominal CT scan shows a
7-cm mass involving the region of the ileocecal valve. Surgery
is performed and the resected mass microscopically shows
sheets of intermediate-sized lymphoid cells, with nuclei having
coarse chromatin, several nucleoli, and many mitotic figures.
A bone marrow biopsy sample is negative for this cell population.
Cytogenetic analysis of the cells from the mass shows
a t(8;14) karyotype. Flow cytometric analysis reveals 40% of
the cells are in S phase. The tumor shrinks dramatically after
a course of chemotherapy. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma
B Burkitt lymphoma
C Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
D Follicular lymphoma
E Plasmacytoma
B Burkitt lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma
Sporadic
25 A 9-year-old boy living in Uganda has had increasing
pain and swelling on the right side of his face over the past 8
months. On physical examination, there is a large, nontender
mass involving the mandible, which deforms the right side of his face. There is no lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly, and
he is afebrile. A biopsy of the mass is performed and microscopic
examination shows intermediate-sized lymphocytes
with a high mitotic rate. A chromosome analysis shows a
46,XY,t(8;14) karyotype in these cells. The hemoglobin concentration
is 13.2 g/dL, platelet count is 272,000/mm3, and WBC
count is 5820/mm3. Infection with which of the following viruses
is most likely to be causally related to the development
of these findings?
A Cytomegalovirus
B Epstein-Barr virus
C Hepatitis B virus
D HIV
E Human papillomavirus
F Respiratory syncytial virus
B Epstein-Barr virus
Endemic african variety of burkitt lymphoma
23 A 55-year-old man felt a lump near his shoulder 1 week
ago. On physical examination, there is an enlarged, nontender,
supraclavicular lymph node and enlargement of the Waldeyer
ring of oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue. There is no hepatosplenomegaly.
CBC is normal except for findings of mild anemia.
A lymph node biopsy specimen shows replacement by a
monomorphous population of lymphoid cells that are twice the
size of normal lymphocytes, with enlarged nuclei and prominent
nucleoli. Immunohistochemical staining and flow cytometry
of the node indicates that most lymphoid cells are CD19+,
CD10+, CD3−, CD15−, and terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
negative (TdT−). A BCL6 gene mutation is present. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
B Chronic lymphadenitis
C Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
D Hodgkin lymphoma
E Small lymphocytic lymphoma
C Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Diffuse B cell lymphoma
30 A 62-year-old man has had fever and a 4-kg weight loss
over the past 6 months. On physical examination, his temperature
is 38.6° C. He has generalized nontender lymphadenopathy, and
the spleen tip is palpable. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin,
10.1 g/dL; hematocrit, 30.3%; platelet count, 140,000/mm3; and
WBC count, 24,500/mm3 with 10% segmented neutrophils, 1%
bands, 86% lymphocytes, and 3% monocytes. A cervical lymph
node biopsy specimen microscopically shows a nodular pattern
of small lymphoid cells. A bone marrow biopsy specimen shows
infiltrates of similar small cells having surface immunoglobulins
that are CD5+, but CD10−. Cytogenetic analysis indicates t(11;14)
in these cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
B Burkitt lymphoma
C Follicular lymphoma
D Mantle cell lymphoma
E Small lymphocytic lymphoma
D Mantle cell lymphoma
Mantle cell lymphoma
42 A 33-year-old man has experienced multiple nosebleeds
along with bleeding gums for the past month. On examination,
his temperature is 37.3° C. He has multiple cutaneous ecchymoses.
Laboratory studies show hemoglobin, 8.5 g/dL; hematocrit,
25.7%; platelet count, 13,000/mm3; and WBC count,
52,100/mm3 with 5% segmented neutrophils, 5% bands, 2%
myelocytes, 83% blasts, 3% lymphocytes, and 2% monocytes.
Examination of his peripheral blood smear shows the blasts
have delicate nuclear chromatin along with fine cytoplasmic
azurophilic granules. These blasts are CD33+. Which of the
following morphologic findings is most likely to be present on
his peripheral blood smear?
A Auer rods
B Döhle bodies
C Hairy projections
D Heinz bodies
E Sickle cells
F Toxic granulations
A Auer rods
AML
43 A 38-year-old man experiences sudden onset of a severe
headache. Physical examination shows no localizing neurologic
signs and no organomegaly. A stool sample is positive
for occult blood. Areas of purpura appear on the skin of his
extremities. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL,
hematocrit of 28.9%, platelet count of 16,400/mm3, and
WBC count of 75,000/mm3. The peripheral blood smear
has the appearance shown in the figure; schistocytes also
are seen. The plasma D-dimer level (fibrin degradation products),
prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time
all are elevated. Cytogenetic analysis of cells from a bone marrow
biopsy specimen is most likely to yield what karyotypic
abnormality?
A t(8;14)
B t(8;21)
C t(9;22)
D t(14;18)
E t(15;17)
E t(15;17)
Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
47 In an experiment, cell samples are collected from the
bone marrow aspirates of patients who were diagnosed with
lymphoproliferative disorders. Cytogenetic analyses are performed
on these cells, and a subset of the cases is found to have
the BCR-ABL fusion gene from the reciprocal translocation
t(9;22)(q34;11). The presence of this gene results in increased
tyrosine kinase activity. Patients with which of the following
conditions are most likely to have this gene?
A Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C Follicular lymphoma
D Hodgkin lymphoma, lymphocyte depletion type
E Multiple myeloma
B Chronic myelogenous leukemia
CML
49 A 60-year-old woman has had headaches and dizziness for
the past 5 weeks. She has been taking omeprazole for ulcers. On
physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive, and her
face has a plethoric to cyanotic appearance. There is mild splenomegaly,
but no other abnormal findings. Laboratory studies
show hemoglobin, 21.7 g/dL; hematocrit, 65%; platelet count,
400,000/mm3; and WBC count, 30,000/mm3 with 85% polymorphonuclear
leukocytes, 10% lymphocytes, and 5% monocytes.
The peripheral blood smear shows abnormally large platelets
and nucleated RBCs. Which of the following is most characteristic
of the natural history of this patient’s disease?
A Development of a gastric non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B Increase in monoclonal serum immunoglobulin
C Marrow fibrosis with extramedullary hematopoiesis
D Spontaneous remissions and relapses without
treatment
E Transformation into acute B-lymphoblastic leukemia
C Marrow fibrosis with extramedullary hematopoiesis
Polycythemia vera (PCV)
50 A 45-year-old man has experienced a gradual weight
loss and weakness, anorexia, and easy fatigability for 9
months. Physical examination shows marked splenomegaly. CBC shows hemoglobin, 12.9 g/dL; hematocrit, 38.1%; MCV, 92 μm3; platelet count, 410,000/mm3; and WBC count,
168,000/mm3. The peripheral blood smear is depicted in the figure. Karyotypic analysis shows the Ph1 chromosome. The patient undergoes chemotherapy with imatinib mesylate (tyrosine kinase inhibitor). He remains in remission for 3 years and then begins to experience fatigue and an 8-kg weight loss. CBC shows hemoglobin, 10.5 g/dL; hematocrit, 30%; platelet count, 60,000/μL; and WBC count, 40,000/μL. Karyotypic analysis shows two Ph1 chromosomes and aneuploidy. Flow cytometric analysis of the peripheral blood shows CD19+,
CD10+, sIg−, and CD3− cells. Which of the following
complications of the initial disease did this patient develop
after therapy?
A Acute myeloblastic leukemia
B B-cell lymphoblastic leukemia
C Hairy cell leukemia
D Myelodysplastic syndrome
E Sézary syndrome
B B-cell lymphoblastic leukemia
CML
51 A 50-year-old man has had headache, dizziness, and
fatigue for the past 3 months. His friends have been commenting
about his increasingly ruddy complexion. He also has experienced
generalized and severe pruritus, particularly when
showering. He notes that his stools are dark. On physical examination,
he is afebrile, and his blood pressure is 165/95 mm Hg.
There is no hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. A stool
sample is positive for occult blood. CBC shows hemoglobin,
22.3 g/dL; hematocrit, 67.1%; MCV, 94 μm3; platelet count,
453,000/mm3; and WBC count, 7800/mm3. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A Chronic myelogenous leukemia
B Erythroleukemia
C Essential thrombocytosis
D Myelodysplastic syndrome
E Polycythemia vera
E
Polycythemia vera (PCV)
27 A 67-year-old man has had increasing weakness, fatigue, and weight loss over the past 5 months. He now has decreasing vision in both eyes and has headaches and dizziness. His hands are sensitive to cold. On physical examination, he has generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies indicate a serum protein level of 15.5 g/dL and albumin concentration of 3.2 g/dL. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, and microscopic examination of the specimen
shows infiltration by numerous small plasmacytoid lymphoid cells with Russell bodies in the cytoplasm. Which of the following additional laboratory findings is most likely to be reported for this patient?
A Bence Jones proteinuria
B Hypercalcemia
C Karyotype with t(14;18) translocation
D Monoclonal IgM spike in serum
E WBC count of 255,000/mm3
D Monoclonal IgM spike in serum
Lymphoplamacytic lymphoma (waldenstrom macroglobulinema)
Hyperviscosity Visual distrubances Dizziness Headache Raynaud
48 A 63-year-old woman experiences a burning sensation
in her hands and feet. Two months ago, she had an episode
of swelling with tenderness in the right leg, followed by dyspnea
and right-sided chest pain. On physical examination, the
spleen and liver now appear to be enlarged. CBC shows hemoglobin,
13.3 g/dL; hematocrit, 40.1%; MCV, 91 μm3; platelet
count, 657,000/mm3; and WBC count, 17,400/mm3. The peripheral
blood smear shows abnormally large platelets. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Acute myelogenous leukemia
B Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C Essential thrombocytosis
D Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
E Polycythemia vera
C
Essential thrombocytosis
35 An 83-year-old man complains of worsening malaise
and fatigue over the past 5 months. On physical examination,
he is afebrile and normotensive. The spleen tip is palpable.
A CBC shows hemoglobin, 10.6 g/dL; hematocrit, 29.8%;
MCV, 92 μm3; platelet count, 95,000/mm3; and WBC count,
4900/mm3 with 63% segmented neutrophils, 7% bands, 2%
metamyelocytes, 1% myelocytes, 22% lymphocytes, 5% monocytes,
and 3 nucleated RBCs per 100 WBCs. The peripheral
blood smear shows occasional teardrop cells. An examination
of the bone marrow biopsy specimen and smear is most likely
to show which of the following findings?
A Erythroid hyperplasia
B Extensive fibrosis
C Fatty replacement
D Many megaloblasts
E Numerous myeloblasts
B
Myelofibrosis
Tear drop cells
52
A
Myeofibrosis
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinema
- proliferation
- associated with
- dont have
Monoclonal proliferation of IgM
Assoc w/
- Amyloidosis
- Hyperviscosity
No lytic bone lesions
Myeloproliferative neoplasma
3 types
mutation
Monclonal proliferation of mature myeloid cells
Types
- polycythemia vera
- essential thrombocytosis
- myelofibrosis
Mutation
- JAK2
JAK2 mutation in red cell precursor
Increased red cell mass
Decreased erythropoietin
Polycythemia vera
Red face Pruritis after hot shower Splenomegaly hyperviscosity of blood HA Red hands and feet
Polycythemia vera
Increased platelets
Low thrombopoietin
Essential thrombocytosis
Fibrosis and olbiteration of marrow space
tear drop
Myelofibrosis
Monoclonal Ab spike
MM
MGUS
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
MM urine analysis
No protein in urine
Monoclonal Ab spike on UPEP
A patient presents with hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and low plasma renin.
Diagnosis?
Treatment
Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)
Spironolactone
Stain for carcinoma
Cytokeratin stain
Epithelial vs mesenchymal tumors
Epithelial
- adenoma
- papilloma
- carcinoma
Mesenchymal
- sarcoma
- oma
Liver metastasis
“Cancer Sometime Penetrates Benign Liver”
Colon Stomach Pancreas Breast Lung
Colon»_space; stomach > pancreas
Elevated LFTs Abdominal pain Hepatomegaly Ascites Jaundice